浙江宁波市慈溪市2025学年第一学期七年级期末测试 英语试题

2025学年第一学期七年级期末测试 英语试题 温馨提示： 1.本试题卷包括四部分；全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等信息分别填写（填涂）在答题纸 规定的位置上。 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范 作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分听力理解（共三节；满分30分） 第一节：听小对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 1.What is the girl's name? A.Sam Lee. B.Sally Brown. C.Emma Green. 2.What color is the girl's basketball? A.Orange. B.Yellow. C.Brown. 3.What does David have in his schoolbag? A.A key. B.A map. C.A pencil. 4.What time does Tom's class begin? A.At8:00 B.At8:15. C.At8:30. 5.What does the girl do after dinner? A.She reads books.B.She plays the guitar.C.She does her homework 第二节：听长对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6.Who is Jim talking to? A.His mother. B.His father. C.His sister. 7.What does he want? A.A new pencil box. B.A new bike. C.A new schoolbag. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8.When does Bill have PE? A.On Monday. B.On Friday. C.On Wednesday. 9.What does he think of PE? A.It's fun. B.It's hard. C.It's boring. 10.What sport does he play in PE class? A.Ping-pong. B.Tennis. C.Basketball. 英语试题第1页（共6页） 第三节：听独白，回答问题。（共5小题每小题2分，满分10分） 11.What is Yaming talking about? A.His club. B.His school. C.His family. 12.How old is he? A.Thirteen. B.Fourteen. C.Fifteen. 13.Where is he from? A.Beijing. B.Shanghai. C.Hangzhou. 14.What does he like doing at weekends? A.Playing sports. B.Singing songs. C.Reading books. 15.Who is a teacher? A.His mother. B.His father. C.His sister. 第二部分阅读理解（共两节；满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Lingling is a student in No.1 Middle School.She is in Class 2,Grade 7.She has a good friend.His name is Jack.He is from England and he is 13 years old.He comes to China with his parents this year. Lingling and Jack are in the same class,so they often go to school and go home together.They both like playing basketball.And they often play it after class on Thursday afternoon.Jack likes history and Chinese very much.He thinks it's interesting to learn about Chinese history.Linging likes all the sujects,but her favorite subject is English She thinks it's useful.Their English teacher is Miss Wang.She is very kind and always makes her classes fun.In her class,she often tells stories in English.They are easy and interesting.After class,she often helps her students with their English problems.They all like her very much and they are happy to be in her class. Lingling thinks her school life is great! 16.Which class is Lingling in? A.Class One,Grade Six. B.Class Two,Grade Seven. C.Class Three,Grade Nine. D.Class Four,Grade Eight. 17.Who is Jack? A.Lingling's brother. B.Lingling's cousin. C.Lingling's uncle. D.Lingling's classmate. 18.When do Lingling and Jack play basketball? A.On Thursdays. B.On Fridays. C.On Wednesdays. D.On Saturdays 19.Lingling likes English because she thinks A.it's easy B.it's fun C.it's useful D.it's exciting 英语试题第2页（共6页） 20.What does Miss Wang often do in her class? A.She sings fun and easy English songs. B.She tells her students the past of English C.She tells interesting stories in English D.She helps her students with their problems. A Good morning!I'm Gina.Here is a picture of my room.It is old and small,but it is very nice.Look!This is my bed.It's blue.A nice white quilt is on the bed.My desk is across from the bed.It's yellow.A green pencil box is on it.There is a red pencil and a black pen in it.I have a yellow schoolbag.It's a gift from my grandma.It's on the chair in front of the desk.Where are my books?Oh,they are all in my bookcase.All my things are in right places.I love my room so much 21.Which of Gina's things have the same colour? A.Her bed and pencil box. B.Her pen and pencils. C.Her chair and bookcase. D.Her desk and schoolbag. 22.Who gives Gina the schoolbag? A.Her mother B.Her father. C.Her grandmother. D.Her grandfather. 23.Where are Gina's books? A.In her bookcase. B.On her desk. C.In her schoolbag D.Under her bed. 24.Which picture is Gina's room? B 25.What does Gina's room look like? A.It's new. B.It's tidy. C.It's big. D.It's dark C Today is Sunday.Lisa doesn't go to school.She gets up at 7:30 in the morning.She has breakfast at 8:00.She eats some bread and drinks a glass of milk.After breakfast,she goes to the park with her parents. 英语试题第3页（共6页） There are many people in the park.A group of small boys are singing in a yard and some old women are dancing.Two old people are playing Chinese chess under a tree. And many more are looking.Lisa is happy to see some little girls playing basketball on the sports field.She joins them and plays basketball with them for a while.Then she walks in the park with her parents. At 12:00,they have lunch in the restaurant next to the park.After that,they go back home.In the afternoon,Lisa goes to the drama club with her friends.She really enjoys her Sunday! 26.Where does Lisa go on Sunday morning? A.The farm. B.The library. C.The school. D.The park. 27.Who does Lisa go there with? A.Her parents.B.Her friends. C.Her classmates.D.Her cousins. 28.The underlined word "them"(in Para.2)means A.the old people B.the little girls C.the small boys D.the old women 29.What does Lisa do on Sunday afternoon? A.She plays Chinese chess. B.She plays basketball. C.She goes to the drama club. D.She sings and dances. 30.The best title for the passage is A.Lisa's Happy Sunday B.Our Fun Clubs C.Interesting Activities D.People in the Park 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 Hello!My name is Lucy. 31 I'm a student in Garden School.I'm in Class 3,Grade 7.My favorite color is pink.32I have a pink schoolbag,a pink pencil box and a pink pen. 33 Her name is Jenny.She is 14 years old.Her favorite color is pink too.34 She also wants to have a pink schoolbag.We are in the same class.35 And we often help each other. A.I have a good friend. B.I'm 13 years old C.We often go to school together. D.I like pink things. E.She has a pink dress 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分30分） 第一节：完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入 空白处的最佳选项。 英语试题第4页（共6页) My name is Linda.I'm 12 years old.Today is my36 birthday.I have a birthday 37 at home.My mom and dad 38 a nice birthday cake for me.The cake looks very 39 with chocolate flowers and I like it very much. My good friends,Jane and Tom,come to 40 party.Jane gives me a story book because she knows I like_41.Tom gives me a radio(收音机).He says that I can 42 music with it. When the party 43,we sing the "Happy Birthday"song together.Then I make a 44 and blow out the candles.After that,we play many fun games )My dad takes some 45 to help me remember fun times with my friends.We look happy in the photos. I think today is a great day.I thank my parents and my friends! 36.A.11th B.12th C.13th D.14th 37.A.band B.duty C.party D.break 38.A.buy B.cut C.mark D.circle 39.A.funny B.hot C.old D.nice 40.A.her B.my C.his D.your 41.A.singing B.dancing C.reading D.drawing 42.A.listen to B.look at C.act out D.talk about 43.A.rises B.finishes C.grows D.begins 44.A.wish B.list C.drama D.routine 45.A.gifts B.photos C.numbers D.examples 第二节：词汇运用（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 have and really animal beautiful My grandpa lives on a farm.The farm is not very big,but it's very 46.There are many 47 on the farm.You can see brown ducks,white 48 black cows, white horses,and white sheep.He also 49 some apple trees.You can see many red apples on the trees.I 50 love my grandpa's farm. B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给音标注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 Do you love nature?Do you want to 51(/dI'skAva(r)/)beautiful things in nature?Yes?Then come and join our 52(/nertfa(r)/)club!Our club has exciting outside activities.They let you have a53(/lt/)of fun.But it's not only for fun-you can learn many 54(/'mi:ninfl/)things.Here is a story about Tim,a member of our club.Tim and his friends go55(/harkm/)together,but they get lost ()Tim remembers what he learns in the club.He uses a map to find the way! Email Lisa at lisa66@happymail.com for more information. 英语试题第5页（共6页） 第三节：句型转换（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下列句子及括号内的要求，在空白处填入适当的内容，每空填写一词。 56.There is a pen in my schoolbag.(改为一般疑问句) a pen in your schoolbag? 57.My favorite color is red.(对划线部分提问) your favorite color? 58.He is my brother.(改为否定句) He my brother. 59.They have a P.E.class on Monday.(对划线部分提问) they have a P.E.class? 60.Tim likes apples..(改为一般疑问句) Tim apples? 第四部分书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 假设你是亚明，你的英国笔友Tom想了解你的学校生活。请你给Tom写一封 回信，简要介绍你的学校生活。内容包括： 1.你所在的年级和班级； 2.你每天的上下学时间及你的课后活动： 3.你最喜欢的科目及原因； 4.你对学校生活的感受。 注意： 1.内容完整，语言流畅，书写规范，可适当发挥： 2.文中不得出现你的真实姓名、校名等信息； 3.词数60左右：开头及结尾已写好，不计入总词数。 Dear Tom, I'm glad to tell you about my school life. What about your school life?Please write to me soon. Yours, Yaming 始<而（共6页）这是2025学年第一学期七年级期末测试英语学科听力部分，请同学们做好答题准备。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。Good morning. May I have your name? Good morning. My name is Sally Brown. Nice to meet you. Sally. My name is sam ly. Nice to meet you too, sam. Is this your . basketball? No, IT isn't. My basketball is Brown, but this one is yellow. What do you have in your schoolbag. David, I have a key. It's the key to my room. Hello, tom. What time visit now? It's eight o'clock. Oh, that's the bill. Let's go to class. goodbye. What do you do after dinner? Sometimes I read books or do my homework. What about you? I usually play the guitar for a while. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话读两遍。听下面一段较长对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hi, mom. Hi jam. What's wrong? I need a new school bag. My old one is too old. Okay, let's go to buy one this afternoon. Thank you, mom. Hi, mom. Hi . jam. What's wrong? I need a new school back. My old one is too old. Okay, let's go to buy one this afternoon. Thank you, mom. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hi bill. What day is IT today? It's wednesday. Do you have PE today? Yes, IT is my favourite subject, is really interesting. When is your P, E . class? Is in the afternoon, we can play tenison P, E class. That sounds fun. Hi bill. What day is IT today? It's wednesday. Do you have PE today? Yes, IT is my favourite subject, is really interesting. When is your P, E . class? Is in the afternoon, we can play tenison P, E class. That sounds fun. 第二节到此结束，第三节听下面一段独白。独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，读白读两遍。现在你有25秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。Hello everyone, my name is arming. I'm thirteen years old. I'm from beijing at weekends. I like reading books in the yard. I think reading is interesting. My father is a teacher. He teaches english in a middle school. My mother and sister are singers. They can sing very beautifully. I love my family. Hello everyone, my name is arming. I'm thirteen years old. I'm from beijing at weekends, I like reading books in the yard. I think greeting is interesting. My father is a teacher. He teaches english in a middle school. My mother and sister are singers. They can sing very beautifully. I love my . family. 第三节到此结束，请同学们将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。听力部分到此结束。 2025学年第一学期七年级期末测试英语试题 参考答案及评分标准 第一部分听力理解（共三节：满分30分) 第一节：听小对话，回答问题。（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 1-5 BCAAB 第二节：听长对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 6-10 ACCAB 第三节：听独白，回答问题。（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 11-15 CAACB 第二部分阅读理解（共两节：满分40分) 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 16-20 BDACC 21-25 DCACB 26-30 DABCA 第二节（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 31-35 BDAEC 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分30分) 第一节：完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 36-40 BCADB 41-45 CADAB 第二节：词汇运用（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 46.beautiful 47.animals 48.and 49.has 50.really 51.discover 52.nature 53.lot 54.meaningful 55.hiking 第三节：句型转换（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 56.Is;there 57.What;is 58.is;not 59.When;do 60.Does;like 第四部分书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） I.评分要点： 1.你所在的年级和班级： 2.你每天的上下学时间及你的课后活动： 3.你最喜欢的科目及原因： 4.你对学校生活的感受。 II.One possible version: Dear Tom. I'm glad to tell you about my school life. I'm in Class 2,Grade 7.Our school starts at 8:30 in the morning and finishes at 3:45 in the afternoon.After school,I often play football with my classmates on the school sports field.I like all the subjects,but my favorite subject is English because it's interesting.I think I have a happy and colourful school life. What about your school life?Please write to me soon. Yours, Yaming Ⅲ.评分标准： 评分要点 标准描述 可给分值 6~7分描述所有信息，内容合理、丰富 内容充实 3~5分描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 1.内容要点 覆盖要点 12分描述了小部分信息，内容不合理 0分 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关 6~7分用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 用词适切 35分用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理解 2语言运用 语法正确 1~2分有较多用语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 句型多样 0分 有大量语言错误，影响了理解 行文连贯 34分行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰 3行文结构 结构紧凑 1~2分行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 指代清晰 0分 没有连贯意识 书写整洁 2分 大小写、标点正确规范，词数达标，书写整洁 标点正确 4.书写规范 1分 大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 大写规范 大小写、标点错误较多，词数严重不足，书写难以辨认 词数达标 0分