重庆大足区2025-2026学年八年级上学期期末质量监测英语试题

2025～2026学年度上期期末质量监测 八年级英语试题卷 注意事项： 1．测试时间：120分钟，满分：150分。 2．全卷分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷，共九个大题；试题卷总页数：8页。 3．所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 4．需要填涂的地方，一律用2B铅笔涂满涂黑。需要书写的地方一律用0.5MM签字笔书写。 5．答题前，务必将自己的姓名、监测号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 6．测试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。 第Ⅰ卷 （共100分） Ⅰ．听力测试。（共35分） 第一节（每小题1分，共6分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 1．A．Yes, I did. B．Yes, I was. C．No, I don’t. 2．A．Sure. B．That’s right. C．Yes, I’d love to. 3．A．Good luck! B．Thank you. C．I agree. 4．A．Got it. B．No, I didn’t. C．Good idea! 5．A．OK. B．Last week. C．Yes, it is. 6．A．She is tall. B．Ella. C．She likes dancing. 第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7．A．/kæʃ/. B．/kætʃ/. C．/ka:（r）/. 8．A．Not too bad. B．Amazing. C．Terrible. 9．A．Keep some fish. B．Grow some flowers. C．Sweep the floor. 10．A．A story book. B．A book about fishing. C．A book about cooking. 11．A．A fireman. B．A teacher. C．A doctor. 12．A． B． C． 第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。 13．Where did Tom go on vacation? A．To Hainan. B．To Shanghai. C．To Beijing. 14．What does Tom think of the people there? A．They were friendly B．They were busy. C．They were strict.. 听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。 15．What is Lucy going to do this weekend? A．Have a party. B．Visit her grandparents. C．Study for a test. 16．When will they meet? A．At 8:00 a.m. B．At 9:00 a.m. C．At 10:00 a.m. 第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 17．What does Mike do? A．A teacher, B．A student. C．An IT engineer. 18．How often does Mike practice programming? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Every day. 19．What subject does Mike think is the most important for his dream job? A．Math. B．English. C．Science. 20．Who helps Mike with his programming? A．His father. B．His uncle. C．His teacher. 第五节（每小题2分，共8分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空一词。请将答案填写在答题卡上对应的位置。 How to take care of your teeth 21．Brushing teeth ______ is more important than brushing ______. 22．It’s better to brush teeth ______ breakfast, not ______. 23．Drinking ______ can help to protect teeth after eating. 24．The speaker gives some advice to help us take better care of our teeth. Good teeth can keep our ______. Ⅱ．语法选择。（每小题1分，共10分） 根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 The environment plays an important part in China. In the past few years, the country has ___1___ many national parks to protect wild animals. These parks ___2___ large areas of land. Because of these parks, we ___3___ see that the protection of animals is working very well. For example, ___4___ number of Hainan gibbons (海南长臂猿) has grown a lot, which are rare apes. ___5___ park has over 70,000 antelopes (羚羊). But in the 1990s, there were ___6___ than 20,000. We can see that these parks are helping the animals and ___7___ important they are. According ___8___ official numbers, China is doing a good job in ___9___ nature. The country is also using clean energy and making rules to keep the air and water ___10___. All these efforts make China the leader in environmental protection. 1. A. build B. built C. builds 2. A. cover B. covers C. covered 3. A. must B. shall C. can 4. A. a B. the C. an 5. A. Another B. Other C. Others 6. A. few B. fewer C. little 7. A. that B. what C. how 8. A. to B. of C. with 9. A. protects B. protected C. protecting 10. A. cleaned B. clean C. cleanly Ⅲ．完形填空。（每小题1.5分，共15分） 根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 Hannah was a girl who lived in a small village. Everyone else did the same things every day, but Hannah was ___11___. She had a great imagination and she liked exploring (探索) the forest behind her house. One day, she found an old house in the forest. Her mother had told her not to go near it, but Hannah was too curious (好奇). She opened the door slowly and was amazed. The room was filled with ___12___! They were covered in dust but looked wonderful. Hannah was very ___13___. She felt she had found a hidden treasure of books. She spent the whole afternoon cleaning the house and ___14___ two interesting books to take home. Excitedly, she told her friends about her discovery, but they just___15___ at her, thinking it was silly. Hannah felt a little sad, but she didn’t ___16___. That night, she read the books by ___17___. They were filled with amazing stories about love and friendship. Hannah decided to share these stories ___18___ other villagers. She started reading aloud in the village square. At first, only a few people came to listen. But soon, ___19___ people came around and listened to her stories. Hannah even began writing her own stories. People from other villages also came to visit her. The villagers were so moved that they all helped ___20___ the old house, turning it into a wonderful library for everyone. Hannah also taught the children how to read and write. Her stories helped many people. She learned that sharing your talent can help others and bring good changes to the whole community. 11. A. similar B. different C. important D. confident 12. A. sweetness B. wood C. books D. villagers 13. A. upset B. excited C. relaxed D. bored 14. A. forgot B. decided C. picked D. lost 15. A. smiled B. shouted C. looked D. laughed 16. A. give up B. cut up C. put up D. make up 17. A. herself B. myself C. ourselves D. themselves 18. A. of B. with C. for D. to 19 A. fewer B. less C. many D. more 20. A. build B. break C. buy D. repair Ⅳ．阅读理解。（每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 A The Aoyu is the mascot (吉祥物) for the 15th National Sports Games of China. It is a lucky animal from Chinese stories. It has a dragon’s head and a fish’s body. The dragon means you are strong and lucky. The fish means you can be successful. Here is a table to tell you more about Aoyu. Parts of Aoyu What It Means Where You Can See It Dragon’s Head Means you are strong and lucky. On toys and pictures. Fish’s Body Means you can be successful. On the mascot’s body. Fire Pattern Means players love sports. On the mascot’s body. The Aoyu mascot is a great mix of old Chinese culture and sports. It says “welcome” to all and wishes good luck to the players! 21. What is the Aoyu? A. A real fish. B. A sports player. C. A mascot for games. D. A dragon in a story. 22. According to the table, what does the “Fish’s Body” mean? A. You are strong. B. You can be successful. C. You love sports. D. You are from Guangdong. 23. What is the passage mainly about? A. How to draw the Aoyu. B. Stories about dragons in China. C. The meaning of the Aoyu mascot. D. How to play sports well. B In a village by a mountain, there was a special stone. It was smooth and looked ordinary, but it could sing beautiful songs when the moon rose. Everyone loved it. A young man named Leo wanted to become famous. He thought, “If I have the stone, I can be a great singer.” So one night, he took the stone away and hid it in his house. But in his house, the stone never sang. Leo tried everything—he put it under the moonlight, he talked to it softly, but the stone stayed silent. Leo felt very sad. Many years later, an old man visited the village. He saw the stone in Leo’ s window. “This stone is beautiful,” the old man said, “but why is it here? Its music comes only when it is with its mountain friends—the wind, the trees, and the stars.” Leo finally understood. He carried the stone back to the mountain. That night, under the full moon, the stone began to sing again, more beautifully than ever. Leo learned that some beauty cannot be owned—it must be shared. 24. Why did Leo take the stone? A. Because he wanted to help the village. B. Because he wanted to become famous. C. Because the stone asked him to do so. D. Because he wanted to study its music. 25. What happened after Leo took the stone home? A. It sang louder than before. B. It made Leo a famous singer. C. It never sang again in his house. D. It brought him many friends. 26. What can we learn from Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4? A. The stone would sing under the full moon. B. The stone would sing in a very quiet place. C. The stone would sing only for kind people. D. The stone would sing when it’s with its mountain friends. 27. What does the story want to tell us? A. It is easy to become famous with help. B. Beautiful things are always expensive. C. Never take things that do not belong to you. D. True beauty often needs to be shared, not owned. C Black Friday is one of the busiest shopping days in the world. It comes after the American holiday of Thanksgiving. On this day, shops offer big discounts (打折), and people wait in long lines to buy things. The name “Black Friday” started in Philadelphia, USA, in the 1960s. The police used it to describe the traffic jams (堵塞) and groups of people in the street after Thanksgiving. For shops, it was a good day to make more money. They hoped to go from “in the red” (losing money) to “in the black” (making money). Why did Black Friday become popular? Because it is the start of the Christmas shopping season. Shops offered special deals to encourage people to buy more things. Later, online shops joined in and created “Cyber Monday” for online shopping. Black Friday is now popular in many countries, like the UK, Canada, and Brazil. In China, Alibaba, a big internet company, created “Singles’ Day” on November 11th. It is even bigger than Black Friday now. Today, Black Friday sales can last a whole week. Some people love shopping in stores early in the morning, while others prefer buying things online at home. From an American event, it has become a global shopping day. 28. What is Black Friday known for? A. Having family dinners. B. Big discounts and long queues. C. Watching parades on the street. D. A holiday for traveling. 29. Why did the police in Philadelphia call it “Black Friday”? A. Because there were many people and the traffic was heavy. B. Because shops closed early that day. C. Because the weather was always dark. D. Because people wore black clothes. 30. According to the passage, what does “Cyber Monday” mainly focus on? A. Family dinners and parades. B. Traffic safety in big cities. C. Traveling and holiday celebrations. D. Online discounts and shopping. 31. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Black Friday is only popular in the United States now. B. Cyber Monday is more popular than Black Friday. C. “Singles’ Day” in China is an online shopping day. D. People can only shop in stores on Black Friday. D Did you know there’s a hidden world living inside your body? It’s called the microbiome (微生物群系), made of trillions of tiny organisms (微生物)—bacteria (细菌), fungi (真菌), and viruses (病毒). Most are not harmful but are helpful partners that keep you healthy. This community lives in every part of your body, but the largest one is in your gut (肠道). There, these microbes break down food, produce vitamins, and help your immune system fight germs. Your microbiome is as unique as your fingerprint, influenced by what you eat and how you live. Scientists have found that your gut and brain are connected through the “gut-brain axis.” The microbes send messages to your brain, which can affect your mood. This shows a strong link between physical and mental health. A healthy microbiome is a diverse one. But processed foods, antibiotics (抗生素), and stress can harm this balance. To protect your inner world, eat plenty of fruits, vegetables, and yogurt. Manage your stress and spend more time doing outdoor activities. Treat your microbiome as a garden: nurture it well, and it will protect you in return. 32 What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Some tiny living things can make you sick. B. To introduce the tiny world living inside you. C. Your body is like a machine. D. To explain how the body fights germs. 33. What can the “gut-brain axis” do? A. Make the brain digest food. B. Let microbes control our mind. C. Help the gut and brain talk to each other. D. Stop viruses from hurting the brain. 34. In the last paragraph, what does the word “nurture” mean? A. 照料 B. 清洗 C. 忽视 D. 研究 35. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Dangers of Invisible Microbes B. How to Build a Strong Immune System C. The Digestive System and Its Functions D. The Secret Garden Inside You: Understanding Your Microbiome Ⅴ．口语应用。（每小题2分，共10分） 阅读下面对话，从7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 A: Hi, Linda! ___36___ B: Yes, I’m going to visit the new city library. A: Sounds great! ___37___ B: I’m going to read some books and do my project. What about you? A: ___38___ I have to study for the math test. B: Oh, that’s too bad. Last weekend I went to the Science Museum. A: Really? ___39___ B: I saw a robot show and tried some experiments. ___40___ A: Wow, I’d love to go there next time! A. What are you going to do there? B. What did you do there? C. Would you like to go with me? D. How did you get there? E. It was really interesting. F. I’m going to stay at home. G. Do you have any plans for this weekend? 第Ⅱ卷（共50分） Ⅵ．任务型阅读。（65-66小题，每小题2分；67-68小题，每小题3分，共10分） 阅读下文并回答问题。 Ria is a 27-year-old woman from Beijing. After a difficult time in her life, she started running. Now, she has a big dream. She wants to run 20,000 kilometers from Russia to Portugal (葡萄牙). She will follow the old Silk Road. This long run is not just about sports for her. It is also about finding herself and connecting her life in the East and the West. To get ready for this run, Ria uses a special helper: artificial intelligence (AI). She uses AI like ChatGPT to plan her running routes, decide what food to eat, and even solve her health problems. For example, when she runs, the AI tells her how fast to go and when to drink or eat. She thinks AI can help many people in sports. Ria wants to show other women, especially in Asia, that they can do amazing things too. She also hopes her run will encourage them to follow their dreams and not just do what people usually expect. Ria’s run is more than just a race. It is a story about not giving up, using new technology, and becoming a better you. 41. Is Ria’s dream to run 20,000 kilometers? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 42. What does Ria use AI to do for her run? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 43. What does Ria want to tell other women from her experience? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 44. Do you want to run like Ria? Why? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Ⅶ．完成句子。（69-72小题，每空1分；73小题2分，共10分） 根据所给提示，完成句子。69-72小题，每空一词，含缩略词。73小题请将完整的句子写在答题卡上对应的位置。 45. Michael cut some potatoes into pieces. (改为否定句) Michael ______ cut ______ potatoes into pieces. 46. I will do my homework tomorrow. (对划线部分提问) ______ will you ______ tomorrow? 47. Lily is not as outgoing as Lucy. (改为同义句) Lily is ______ outgoing ______ Lucy. 48. 汤姆上个周末带领我们参观了他的家。 (完成译句) Tom ______ us ______ his home last weekend. 49. different we can, together, but, we are, be stronger (.) (连词成句) ______________________ Ⅷ．概要补全。（75和76小题，每小题2分；74和77小题，每小题3分；共10分） 阅读文章，用恰当的短语或句子补全概要。补全部分总词数不超过30词，不能照抄原文连续超过3个词。 The Danish government has a new plan to make the internet safer for young people. The key part of this plan is a ban (禁令) that would stop children under the age of 15 from using social media apps. This is because parents are more and more worried about the bad effects (影响) of these apps on young people’s health. However, the plan is also flexible (灵活的). There is a special rule for teenagers who are 13 and 14 years old. They can still use some social media apps, but only if their parents clearly say yes. Danish leaders strongly support this plan. The Prime Minister said the goal is to keep children happy and healthy. She also said that social media take up too much children’s free time. The free time could be better used for sports, hobbies, or meeting friends in real life. The ban will focus on apps that are very popular with young people, like TikTok, Instagram, and Snapchat. A recent study found that young people spend an average of over two and a half hours every day on these apps. Denmark is not the first country to do this. For example, Australia started a similar ban for younger teens last year. With much support from the government, the plan is very likely to become a law in the near future. Denmark’s government plans to create a safer internet for young people. Its key idea is ___50___ like TikTok and Instagram. The rule is a little flexible: teenagers who are 13 or 14 years old can still use these apps if their parents ___51___. Danish leaders say social media takes up too much of children’s free time. They hope this plan will help young people ___52___ on sports, hobbies, and meeting friends in real life instead. ___53___, this plan is expected to become a law soon. Ⅸ．书面表达。（满分20分） 54. 假设你们学校正在举办题为“My Best Friend and I”的征文活动。请根据以下提示，写一篇短文介绍你和你最好的朋友，你们有什么不同和相同之处，你对这份友谊有什么看法。 提示： 外貌：tall, short, of medium height, straight/ curly hair, big eyes, wear glasses, strong, thin... 性格：outgoing, serious, funny, hard-working, lazy, quiet, friendly, kind, helpful... 爱好：play basketball/football, read books, draw, watch movies, listen to music, play computer games, ... 其他方面：good at.../do well in..., favorite subject..., more... than..., the same as..., different from... 要求：词数80-120词；文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025～2026学年度上期期末质量监测 八年级英语试题卷 注意事项： 1．测试时间：120分钟，满分：150分。 2．全卷分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷，共九个大题；试题卷总页数：8页。 3．所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 4．需要填涂的地方，一律用2B铅笔涂满涂黑。需要书写的地方一律用0.5MM签字笔书写。 5．答题前，务必将自己的姓名、监测号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 6．测试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。 第Ⅰ卷 （共100分） Ⅰ．听力测试。（共35分） 第一节（每小题1分，共6分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 1．A．Yes, I did. B．Yes, I was. C．No, I don’t. 2．A．Sure. B．That’s right. C．Yes, I’d love to. 3．A．Good luck! B．Thank you. C．I agree. 4．A．Got it. B．No, I didn’t. C．Good idea! 5．A．OK. B．Last week. C．Yes, it is. 6．A．She is tall. B．Ella. C．She likes dancing. 第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7．A．/kæʃ/. B．/kætʃ/. C．/ka:（r）/. 8．A．Not too bad. B．Amazing. C．Terrible. 9．A．Keep some fish. B．Grow some flowers. C．Sweep the floor. 10．A．A story book. B．A book about fishing. C．A book about cooking. 11．A．A fireman. B．A teacher. C．A doctor. 12．A． B． C． 第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。 13．Where did Tom go on vacation? A．To Hainan. B．To Shanghai. C．To Beijing. 14．What does Tom think of the people there? A．They were friendly. B．They were busy. C．They were strict.. 听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。 15．What is Lucy going to do this weekend? A．Have a party. B．Visit her grandparents. C．Study for a test. 16．When will they meet? A．At 8:00 a.m. B．At 9:00 a.m. C．At 10:00 a.m. 第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 17．What does Mike do? A．A teacher, B．A student. C．An IT engineer. 18．How often does Mike practice programming? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Every day. 19．What subject does Mike think is the most important for his dream job? A．Math. B．English. C．Science. 20．Who helps Mike with his programming? A．His father. B．His uncle. C．His teacher. 第五节（每小题2分，共8分） 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空一词。请将答案填写在答题卡上对应的位置。 How to take care of your teeth 21．Brushing teeth ______ is more important than brushing ______. 22．It’s better to brush teeth ______ breakfast, not ______. 23．Drinking ______ can help to protect teeth after eating. 24．The speaker gives some advice to help us take better care of our teeth Good teeth can keep our ______. Ⅱ．语法选择。（每小题1分，共10分） 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B Ⅲ．完形填空。（每小题1.5分，共15分） 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. D Ⅳ．阅读理解。（每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. C B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. B 25. C 26. D 27. D C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. B 29. A 30. D 31. C D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D Ⅴ．口语应用。（每小题2分，共10分） 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. G 37. A 38. F 39. B 40. E 第Ⅱ卷（共50分） Ⅵ．任务型阅读。（65-66小题，每小题2分；67-68小题，每小题3分，共10分） 【41~44题答案】 【答案】41. Yes, it is. 42. She uses AI to plan her running routes, decide what food to eat, solve her health problems, and tell her how fast to run and when to drink or eat. 43. She wants to tell them that they can do amazing things too, and encourages them to follow their dreams and not just do what people usually expect. 44. Yes, because I admire her courage and determination to overcome challenges and use technology to achieve big dreams. Ⅶ．完成句子。（69-72小题，每空1分；73小题2分，共10分） 根据所给提示，完成句子。69-72小题，每空一词，含缩略词。73小题请将完整的句子写在答题卡上对应的位置。 【45题答案】 【答案】 ①. didn’t ②. any 【46题答案】 【答案】 ①. What ②. do 【47题答案】 【答案】 ①. less ②. than 【48题答案】 【答案】 ①. showed ②. around 【49题答案】 【答案】We are different, but we can be stronger together. Ⅷ．概要补全。（75和76小题，每小题2分；74和77小题，每小题3分；共10分） 【50~53题答案】 【答案】50. a ban on social media 51. give permission 52. spend more time 53. With strong support Ⅸ．书面表达。（满分20分） 【54题答案】 【答案】 例文 My best friend is Lily. She is tall with curly hair, while I am of medium height with straight hair. We are both outgoing and love reading books. However, she is better at math than I am, and my favorite subject is English. We often help each other with homework. I think friendship means sharing happiness and supporting each other. I feel lucky to have such a friend. Our differences make us learn from each other, and our similarities bring us closer. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $