重庆2025-2026学年上期期末学业评价七年级英语试题

2025—2026学年上期期末学业评价 七年级英语试题 (全卷共十个大题满分：150分考试时间：120分钟) 注意：1．试题的答案书写在答题卡(卷)上，不得在试卷上直接作答。 2．作答前认真阅读答题卡(卷)上的注意事项。 3．考试结束，由监考人员将试题和答题卡(卷)一并收回。 第Ⅰ卷(共100分) Ⅰ．听力测试。(共35分) 第一节(每小题1分，共6分) 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语。 1．A．Nice to meet you, too. B．I’m fine, thanks. C．Hi there! 2．A．Yes, it is. B．Yes, you can. C．I’m Peter Brown. 3．A．A pen. B．It’s red. C．P-E-N. 4．A．Sounds good. B．Me, too. C．My mistake. 5．A．Yes, I do. B．Sure! I’d love to. C．Yes, please. 6．A．You are welcome. B．Here you are. C．Thanks, you too. 第二节(每小题1.5分，共9分) 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7．A．/ɪ/ B．/æ/ C．/ʌ/ 8．A．/baɪ’ɒlədʒi/ B．/’bɔ:rɪŋ/ C．/’hɪstri/ 9．A．/weikʌp/ B．/weɪ-kʌp/ C．/ge-tʌp/ 10．A．Mike. B．Emma. C．Peter. 11．A．On Monday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Thursday. 12．A． B． C． 第三节(每小题1.5分，共6分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。 13．Who loves gardening? A．Mary. B．Mary’s father. C．Mary’s grandpa. 14．Where does Mary’s grandma learn the piano? A．At home. B．At night school. C．In a music club. 听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。 15．Why is Li Ming at school early? A．He is on duty today. B．He likes to read before class. C．He needs to run in the morning. 16．When does Li Ming get up? A．At 6:00. B．At 6:30. C．At 7:00. 第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 17．What subject does Ms Li teach? A．English. B．Chinese. C．Math. 18．How does Ms Li like to teach? A．With many rules. B．Through fun activities. C．By reading a lot. 19．Where are the lockers? A．Outside the classroom. B．At the back of the classroom. C．Next to the reading corner. 20．What does Ms Li want students to bring to the classroom? A．Plants and sports things. B．Books and sports things. C．Books and plants. 第五节(每小题2分，共8分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的演讲内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空1词，并把答案填写在答题卡上对应的位置。 Make your bed 21．Different ideas Some: the first step to... Some others: want ______ ______for another 5 minutes 22．Why you should do it help you ______ ______ help you sleep better 23．How to... do it after getting up do it ______ ______ use a clock 24．The speaker wants to tell us that making the bed is a ______ It can make our life better. Ⅱ．语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分) 根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 My name is Timo Halla. I am 13 ___1___ old. I live with my parents in Helsinki, Finland. Now it is December. ___2___ Tuesday, I usually get up at 7:30. I often listen to the news or music. After breakfast, I walk to school. ___3___ is only a 10-minute walk. My school ___4___ at 9:00. There are 18 students in my class. Each lesson is 45 minutes long and there is a break between ___5___. We have one Finnish lesson and two home economics lessons ___6___ the morning. After that, I have lunch at 12:00. The afternoon lessons begin at 12:30 ___7___ finish at 2:15. Then I go to my ice hockey club. I usually get home around 4:00. It is ___8___ dark outside. I often have dinner at 6:00. After that, I read with my parents for ___9___ hour. Then I prepare my schoolbag for the next day. At 9:30, it is time for me ___10___ to bed. 1. A. year B. years C. year’s 2. A. Some B. Any C. Every 3. A. It B. This C. That 4. A. begin B. begins C. is beginning 5. A. lesson B. lessons C. lesson’s 6. A. in B. on C. at 7. A. and B. but C. or 8. A. yet B. already C. even 9. A. a B. an C. the 10. A. go B. going C. to go Ⅲ．完形填空。(每小题1.5分，共15分) 根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案。 It’s not a good week for Mia’s family because her father has just lost his job. Tomorrow is Rosa’s birthday. Rosa is her friend in the Climbing Club. Mia wants to buy a ___11___ for her, but she only has ___12___ money. And she can’t ask Mom or Dad for more money. Mia sees a second-hand (二手的) book sale going on. She goes there to have a look. ___13___ books catch her eye. One is a ___14___, and the other is a book about women explorers (探险家). “Rosa must be ___15___ them,” Mia thinks, “But is it good to give her second-hand books for her birthday?” “A second-hand gift is better than no gift at all.” Mia thinks. With her last dollar, she buys ___16___ books and goes home with a smile on her face. She feels a little ___17___. At the birthday party, Rosa opens all her gifts and ___18___ everyone. She stops ___19___ she opens Mia’s gift. So Mia wonders (想知道): Does Rosa like the books? When Mia gets home, she sees a message (信息) from Rosa on her phone. Mia, your gift is great! How do you know I would love a book about women explorers? And I also have a good book to share with my ___20___ now. She always wants to make wonderful food for her granddaughter. Thank you so much! The week turns out to be a good one after all. 11. A. cake B. card C. gift D. toy 12. A. much B. a lot of C. little D. a little 13. A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 14. A. cookbook B. textbook C. notebook D. storybook 15. A. good at B. bored with C. interested in D. tired of 16. A. both B. many C. all D. most 17. A. sad B. better C. surprised D. funny 18. A. thanks B. needs C. welcomes D. remembers 19. A. after B. before C. but D. because 20. A. brother B. uncle C. grandma D. cousin Ⅳ．阅读理解。(每小题2分，共30分) 阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 A 21. Where is the welcome talk? A. In the school hall. B. In the science building. C. In the music hall. D. On the sports field. 22. When does the music show begin? A. At 9:00. B. At 10:30. C. At 11:30. D. At 12:30. 23. Where is the library according to the map? A. Next to the school hall. B. In front of the school gate. C. Across from the sports field. D. Behind the classroom building. B An English project is a useful way to use what you learn. In the US, many students do projects after a lesson. For example, after learning the unit “Family”, they often make a “History Box”. Let’s look at Emma, a smart student from California. She is interested in her family history. She follows four steps to finish her project. First, she chooses three special things from her home. She finds an old family photo, her grandfather’s watch and an old diary. Then she talks to her grandparents to learn about the stories of these things. Third, she prepares her box. She puts the things in a box and writes a short story for each one. She spends three days doing it. Finally, she shows her “History Box” to the class. Emma enjoys it. She says, “It’s never boring. I can discover my family’s past and learn new things.” Projects make learning meaningful. Would you like to try? 24. Which unit is the project “History Box” for? A. Nature. B. Family. C. My School. D. My Favourite Subject. 25. What are the three things Emma finds for her box? A. A book, a pen and a photo. B. A photo, a watch and a diary. C. A bag, a hat and a pair of shoes. D. A map, a ball and a fishing rod. 26. Who does Emma talk to for information? A. Her parents. B. Her grandparents. C. Her teachers. D. Her neighbors. 27. What does Emma think of doing project? A. Easy. B. Boring. C. Difficult. D. Meaningful. C Scene One: The family These two very old people are Grandpa Joe and Grandma Josephine. And these two are Grandpa George and Grandma Georgina. They are all over ninety years old. Then there are Mr. and Mrs. Bucket and little Charlie Bucket. They live together in a small wooden house. Scene Two: The Hard Life Mr. Bucket is the only person with a job. He works in a toothpaste factory. He works very hard, but never makes enough money to feed the family. Every day, they eat bread for breakfast, potatoes and cabbage for lunch, and cabbage soup for supper. Charlie is always hungry, but he never says a word. Scene Three: The Chocolate Factory Near their house, there is a large chocolate factory. It belongs to Mr. Willy Wonka. Every day on his way to school, Charlie can smell the delicious chocolate in the air. He only gets one small bar of chocolate a year, on his birthday. He wants to visit the factory one day. Scene Four: A Birthday Surprise This year the whole family saves money for his gift. They all want Charlie to find a “Golden Ticket (金奖券)”. With the ticket, he can visit the chocolate factory. On his birthday, Charlie opens the bar slowly. His heart beats fast. But there is no ticket. Charlie is sad. Grandpa Joe comes close and says to Charlie, “I have a little surprise for you.” He pulls out a small coin (硬币). “It is my secret money,” he says. “Go and buy one more bar. We have one more chance to find that Golden Ticket.” 28. How many people are there in the family? A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven. 29. From Scene Two, what can we know about Mr. Bucket? A. He is the only one in the family with a job. B. He works in a chocolate factory. C. He is too lazy to make enough money. D. He has meat and eggs for dinner every day. 30. What can we know about Charlie in Scene Three? A. Mr. Willy Wonka is a friend of his. B. He buys chocolate on his way to school. C. A bar of chocolate is special to Charlie. D. He visits the chocolate factory every day. 31. Each picture matches (匹配) one scene. Which scene is not here? A. Scene One. B. Scene Two. C. Scene Three. D. Scene Four. D Australia has a new rule for teenagers. It is the first country in the world to stop children under the age of 16 using social media (社交媒体). The new rule comes out in November 2024. Why is there such a rule? The country says that social media is a big problem for kids. Research (研究) shows that about 60% of teenagers feel sad or unhappy after spending too much time on social media. Also, cyberbullying (网络欺凌) is a serious problem. One study found that 40% of students face that online. A leader in Australia says, “Social media is bad for our kids. It’s time to change.” How does the rule work? The rule does not punish (惩罚) kids or parents. It’s social media companies’ job to stop children from using their apps, such as TikTok and Instagram. If they do not follow the rule, they must pay a very big fine (罚款)—up to A$50 million (about 235 million yuan). People have different ideas about this. Some people think this is a good way to keep kids safe and help them have fun in nature. But others are worried. They say it is difficult to check a person’s real age. They also worry that kids might use other ways to go online secretly (悄悄地). Is this rule the best way to help? We do not know yet. But it’s a meaningful step. In the future, other countries might follow Australia’s example to make the internet a safer place. 32. Who is the new rule for? A. Children under 16 in Australia. B. Children under 16 in the world. C. All young people in Australia. D. All young people in the world. 33. Why does the writer use the numbers “60%” and “40%” in Paragraph 2? A. To show that social media has many problems. B. To show that all students in Australia are sad. C. To tell us how to use social media in a smart way. D. To explain why the new rule is difficult to follow. 34. Why are some people worried about the new rule? A Because kids can have fun in nature. B. Because the rule keeps children safe. C. Because kids may go online secretly. D. Because it is easy to find out kids’ ages. 35. What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A. Parents pay money if kids use apps. B. Only Australia has internet problems. C. Other countries may follow the rule soon. D. The rule works well in many other countries. Ⅴ．口语应用。(每小题2分，共10分) 阅读下面对话，从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话。 A: Hi, Linlin. Are you OK? B: ___36___ Today is Wednesday. A: So? What’s wrong? B: I’m worried. I have two English classes this morning. A: ___37___ Why? B: ___38___ There are so many! A: Exactly. It is difficult for many students. But don’t worry. B: Really? ___39___ A: Sure. Reading English stories and listening to songs are very helpful. B: ___40___ I’ll try these ways. A. Sure! B. No, not really. C. I have no idea. D. Thanks! You are so kind. E. You don’t like English? F. Do you have any advice for me? G. Because I always forget English words. 第Ⅱ卷(共50分) Ⅵ．任务型阅读。(65-66题，每小题2分，67-68题，每小题3分，共10分) 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成下列各题。 Today, many students use AI (人工智能) to help with their schoolwork. Let’s look at three different stories. Peter: “I love science. I use AI to do virtual experiments (虚拟实验). In the classroom, some experiments are dangerous, but I am always safe with AI on the computer. Also, some experiments take a long time, but AI shows me the results in just a few seconds! But sometimes I want to touch real things.” Tony: “I think AI is helpful for math. When I meet difficult problems, it is like a teacher at home. But sometimes I want to do my math homework quickly, so I just copy the answers. Now, I have a big problem. I can’t work out any hard problems by myself in exams.” Li Wen: “I use AI to practice speaking English. I’m shy. AI is like a friend. It notices my mistakes and helps me patiently (耐心地). I have fun talking to it and I think this is a good way to learn English. But I still feel nervous when talking to real people. Real conversations are so different.” Using AI is a new change in our life. It is important to choose a smart way to use it. Don’t let AI do all the thinking for you! 41. Does Peter love science? ___________________________________ 42. What does Tony use AI to do? ___________________________________ 43. What do the three students think of using AI in their study? ___________________________________ 44. Do you think Li Wen uses AI in a smart way? Why or why not? (About 20 words) ___________________________________ Ⅶ．根据句意或所给提示填写单词(每小题 1 分，共5 分) 45. Look at the photo. The man is my father. Is he ________['hænsəm]? 46. There is an old saying: “Early to bed, early to ______ [raɪz].” 47. Healthy ______ (tooth) are very important for us to enjoy delicious food. 48. For many students, a good friend ______ (mean) a lot in their school life. 49. Our school has a ______ (music) festival next week. Would you like to join us? Ⅷ．完成句子。(74-77小题，每空1分，78小题2分，共10分) 根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。 50. He ______ ______ at home. 51. Zhang Hua is ______ ______ today. 52. ______ ______ Zhang Hua have lunch? 53. He is really ______ ______ math. 54. ______________________________. Ⅸ．段意补全。(79-80小题，每小题2分，81-82小题，每小题3分，共10分) 阅读文章，用恰当的单词或短语补全段意。补全部分总词数不超过20词。 My name is Sadia Khatun. I’m from Bangladesh. It’s difficult to walk on some roads in the rainy season here. So how do I go to school? It’s easy! The school comes to me! I study on a “floating school”. My floating school is a “school bus” and classroom all in one. The boat picks me up early in the morning. Our classroom is on the boat too. There are several boats on the river at the same time. Each boat has one teacher and one class. The teacher teaches us all the subjects. The boat is long and wide. We sit at wooden desks. Big windows bring in lots of sunlight and fresh air. There’s a blackboard at the front. There’s a computer next to it, and it gets its power from the sun. At the end of the school day, the boat takes me home. I learn a lot at my school and have fun too. I love my floating school! Paragraph 1 Sadia’s reason for studying on ___55___ Paragraph 2 The boat’s role (作用) as a school bus and ___56___ Paragraph 3 ___57___ and the things inside. Paragraph 4 Sadia’s ___58___ about her school Ⅹ.书面表达。(满分15分) 59. 学校“英语乐园(English Fun Club)”正在招收新成员。假设你是李华，看到了下面的招新海报，并有意加入。请给负责老师Mr. Wang写一封申请邮件，介绍自己并申请加入。 写作内容要求： ▶自我介绍：包括你的个人信息(年龄、性格等)。 ▶兴趣能力：你有哪些兴趣和特长? ▶加入理由：你为什么想加入?你希望在社团里有哪些收获? 要求： 1．词数60词左右(开头和结尾已给出)； 2．文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。 Dear Mr. Wang, My name is Li Hua. I’m from Class 3, Grade 7. I want to join the English Fun Club. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I’m looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 2025—2026学年上期期末学业评价 七年级英语试题 (全卷共十个大题满分：150分考试时间：120分钟) 注意：1．试题的答案书写在答题卡(卷)上，不得在试卷上直接作答。 2．作答前认真阅读答题卡(卷)上的注意事项。 3．考试结束，由监考人员将试题和答题卡(卷)一并收回。 第Ⅰ卷(共100分) Ⅰ．听力测试。(共35分) 第一节(每小题1分，共6分) 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语。 1．A．Nice to meet you, too. B．I’m fine, thanks. C．Hi there! 2．A．Yes, it is. B．Yes, you can. C．I’m Peter Brown. 3．A．A pen. B．It’s red. C．P-E-N. 4．A．Sounds good. B．Me, too. C．My mistake. 5．A．Yes, I do. B．Sure! I’d love to. C．Yes, please. 6．A．You are welcome. B．Here you are. C．Thanks, you too. 第二节(每小题1.5分，共9分) 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7．A．/ɪ/ B．/æ/ C．/ʌ/ 8．A．/baɪ’ɒlədʒi/ B．/’bɔ:rɪŋ/ C．/’hɪstri/ 9．A．/weikʌp/ B．/weɪ-kʌp/ C．/ge-tʌp/ 10．A．Mike. B．Emma. C．Peter. 11．A．On Monday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Thursday. 12．A． B． C． 第三节(每小题1.5分，共6分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。 13．Who loves gardening? A．Mary. B．Mary’s father. C．Mary’s grandpa. 14．Where does Mary’s grandma learn the piano? A．At home. B．At night school. C．In a music club. 听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。 15．Why is Li Ming at school early? A．He is on duty today. B．He likes to read before class. C．He needs to run in the morning. 16．When does Li Ming get up? A．At 6:00. B．At 6:30. C．At 7:00. 第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 17．What subject does Ms Li teach? A．English. B．Chinese. C．Math. 18．How does Ms Li like to teach? A．With many rules. B．Through fun activities. C．By reading a lot. 19．Where are the lockers? A．Outside the classroom. B．At the back of the classroom. C．Next to the reading corner. 20．What does Ms Li want students to bring to the classroom? A．Plants and sports things. B．Books and sports things. C．Books and plants. 第五节(每小题2分，共8分) 听两遍。根据你所听到的演讲内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空1词，并把答案填写在答题卡上对应的位置。 Make your bed 21．Different ideas Some: the first step to... Some others: want ______ ______for another 5 minutes 22．Why you should do it help you ______ ______ help you sleep better 23．How to... do it after getting up do it ______ ______ use a clock 24．The speaker wants to tell us that making the bed is a ______. It can make our life better. Ⅱ．语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分) 根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. C Ⅲ．完形填空。(每小题1.5分，共15分) 根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案。 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11 C 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. C Ⅳ．阅读理解。(每小题2分，共30分) 阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. C 23. A B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. B 25. B 26. B 27. D C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. D 29. A 30. C 31. A D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. A 33. A 34. C 35. C Ⅴ．口语应用。(每小题2分，共10分) 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. E 38. G 39. F 40. D 第Ⅱ卷(共50分) Ⅵ．任务型阅读。(65-66题，每小题2分，67-68题，每小题3分，共10分) 【41~44题答案】 【答案】41. Yes, he does. 42. He uses it to help with his math problems. 43.  They think AI is helpful, but it also has some problems. 44. Yes, I do. Because AI helps her practice speaking and correct mistakes, though she still needs real conversations. Ⅶ．根据句意或所给提示填写单词(每小题 1 分，共5 分) 【45题答案】 【答案】handsome 【46题答案】 【答案】rise 【47题答案】 【答案】teeth 【48题答案】 【答案】means 【49题答案】 【答案】musical Ⅷ．完成句子。(74-77小题，每空1分，78小题2分，共10分) 【50~54题答案】 【答案】50. ①. is ②. not 51. ①. on ②. duty 52. ①. When ②. does 53. ①. good ②. at 54. We have a basketball match at 3 p.m. on Friday. Ⅸ．段意补全。(79-80小题，每小题2分，81-82小题，每小题3分，共10分) 【55~58题答案】 【答案】55. a floating school 56. classroom 57. The boat’s size 58. feelings Ⅹ.书面表达。(满分15分) 【59题答案】 【答案】 Dear Mr. Wang, My name is Li Hua. I’m from Class 3, Grade 7. I want to join the English Fun Club. I’m 13 years old. I am outgoing. I love English and I am good at speaking it. I want to join the English Fun Club because I can read magazine stories, play fun games, sing English songs and help each other. Through these activities, I hope to improve my reading skills. Besides, I plan to make more friends and learn to help each other in this warm group. I’m looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $