内容正文:
这里是2025至2026学年度上期九年级期末质量监测英语听力测试部分,请考生们做好听音和答题准备。第一节听两遍,根据你所听到的句子,从ABC3个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每小题你将有7秒钟的时间读题和答题。One good night, dear boys and girls. Good . night, dear boys and girls. Two, happy birthday to you, ally. Happy birthday to you, ally. Three, what's the weather like today in beijing? What's the weather like today in beijing? For don't run in the hallways, tom. Don't run in the hallways, tom. Five、how much is the blue shirt? How much is the blue shirt? Six we want the soccer game yesterday. We want the soccer game yesterday. 第二节听两遍,根据你所听到的对话和问题,从ABC3个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每小题你将有8秒钟的时间读题和答题。Seven, hey, jack, could you please tell me how to pronounce smooth? Oh, its smooth. Oh oh is pronounced. You read IT again. Please . question, how is the word pranced? Hey, jack, could you please tell me how to pronounce smooth? Oh, its smooth. Oh oh, is pronounced you read IT again. Please . question, how is the word pranced? Eight, Jenny is Sunny today. What are you doing now? Nothing much. I'm just reading a magazine . question, what is Jenny doing now? Jenny is Sunny today. What are you doing now? Nothing much. I'm just reading a magazine. question. What is Jenny . doing now? nine. Look, Peter, someone left a book in the classroom. Oh, emma, IT must belong to Cathy, the old man and the sea is her favourite novel. Question, whose dog is IT? Look, Peter, someone left a book in the classroom. Oh, emma. IT must belong to Cathy, the old man and the sea is her favorite . novel question whose book is IT. Ten, Lucy, how often do you do exercise? Four times a week? But my sister Helen hardly ever does any exercise. Question, how often does Lucy exercise? Lucy, how often do you do exercise? Four times a week? But my sister Helen hardly ever does any exercise. Question, how often is Lucy exercise? Eleven, dave. it's a quarter . to eight. Please hurry or we can catch the train. Take IT easy. Our train will leave in an hour. Question, when will the train leave? Dave, it's a quarter to eight. Please hurry or we can catch the train. Take IT easy. Our train will leave in an hour. Question, when will the train leave? Twelve, welcome to city cinema. Could you please show me your ticket to the movie? Zu topia, too. sure. Here's my ticket in row five. See twelve . question, which is the woman's ticket. Welcome to city cinema. Could you please show me your ticket to the movie? Zozo pia too. sure. Here's my ticket in row five. See twelve question. which is the woman's ticket. 第三节听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从ABC3个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。听长对话前,你将有10秒钟的时间阅读各个小题,听完后你将有10秒钟的时间答题,听第一段材料,回答第13和10四小题。Hi, lisa. We are leaving the middle school. How do you feel? I'm excited. How about you? Can I feel a bit sad . because I have to say goodbye to my classmates and teachers. Well, you can take some photos with them. That sounds like a good idea. I'm sure those photos will bring me good memories. Then have you ever thought about what you want to be in the future? Yes, to be an astronaut like wool is always my dream. cool. I hope your dream will come true. Hi lisa. We are leaving the middle school. How do you feel? I'm excited. How about you? Can I feel a bit sad. because I have to say goodbye to my classmates and teachers. Well, you can take some photos with them. That sounds . like a good idea. I'm sure those photos will bring me good memories. Then have you ever thought about what you want to be in the future? Yes, to be an astronaut like wool is always my dream. cool. I hope your dream will come true. 听第二段材料,回答第15和10 6小题。Hello, welcome to our restaurant. Can I help you? Hi, i'd like to order a table for two. Okay, what time will you come? Seven . o'clock this evening. And i'd like to have a table by the window. Okay, a table by the window at seven this evening, right? perfect. Thank you for your help. You're welcome. See you then. Hello, welcome to our restaurant. Can I help you? Hi, i'd like to order a table . for two. Okay, what time will you come? Seven o'clock this evening. And i'd like to have a table by the window. Okay, a table by the window at seven this evening, right? perfect. Thank you for . your help. You're welcome. See you then. 第四节听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从ABC3个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。听短文前,你将有20秒钟的时间阅读各小题,听完后你将有20秒钟的时间答题。Hello, do you listeners, have you ever heard about you to match? Last saturday, our P. E. Teacher, mr. John, took us to watch a football match called you in our city. The players were people from different backgrounds, a cook, a taxi driver and even a student from a university. They played for the love for the sport. Tickets were cheap, so there were crowds of people. Everyone cheered, left and enjoy the game together. Mister Jones said. This is more than football. IT connects all of us. After the match, many visitors went to see our city's famous places of interests tried local food. Mister john told us, watching this match isn't just about enjoying the game, it's about feeling the power of teamwork and the warmth of people getting together. I hope you can also go out of your rooms more on weekends. Listening to his words, I decided not to spend my next weekend at home anymore. Looking forward to your ideas by for listening. Hello, dear listeners, have you ever heard about you match? Last saturday, our p teacher, mr. John, took us to watch a football match called, uh, in our city, chang ching. The players were people from different backgrounds, a cook, a taxi driver and even a student from a university. They played for the love for the sport. Tickets were cheap, so there were crowds of people. Everyone cheered, left and enjoy the game together. Mister Jones said, this is more than football. IT connects all of us. After the match, many visitors went to see our city's famous places of interests and tried local food. Mister john told us watching this match isn't just about enjoying the game, it's about feeling the power of teamwork and the warmth of people getting together. I hope you can also go out of your room more on weekends. Listening to his words, I decided not to spend my next weekend at home anymore. Looking forward to your ideas. Buy for listening. 第五节听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,在横线上填入恰当的单词,并把单词填写在答题卡上对应的番号后横线上。听短文前,你将有20秒钟的时间阅读各小题,听完后你将有20秒钟的时间答题。Hello, everyone, today I want to tell you the secret of small steps. First, stop and smile. When you finish a hard math problem, take a breath and smile, telling your brain I did well can make you have a sense of pride in yourself. Second, share your joy, tell someone who loves you. Maybe your parent or friend say today I read for fifteen minutes, their happy face or kind words will warm your heart and make your step feel even bigger. Sharing doesn't just spread happiness. IT also builds your confidence in moving forward. Third, record your progress. Use a notebook or a paper on your wall. Every time you do something good, draw a star. Looking at your stars will help you see how much you are learning and growing friends. Just like a small tree grows into a big one, your small steps will help you do Better everyday. These small steps are the key to making your big dream come true. I do hope you can often have your small steps and keep moving towards your dream. Thank you for listening. Hello, everyone. Today I want to tell you the secret of small steps. First, stop and smile. When you finish a hard math problem, take a breath and smile, telling your brain I did well can make you have a sense of pride in yourself. Second, share your joy. Tell someone who loves you, maybe your parent or friend. Say, today I read for fifteen minutes, their happy face or kind words will warm your heart and make your step feel even bigger. Sharing doesn't just spread happiness. IT also builds your confidence in moving forward. Third, record your progress. Use a notebook or a paper on your wall every time you do something good, draw a star. Looking at your stars will help you see how much you are learning and growing friends. Just like a small tree grows into a big one, your small steps will help you do Better everyday. These small steps are the key to making your big dream come true. I do hope you can often have your small steps and keep moving towards your dream. Thank you for listening. 听力测试完毕,请考生们继续完成其他试题。
2025—2026学年度上期九年级期末质量监测
英 语 试 题
(全卷共九个大题 满分:150分 考试时间:120分钟)
注意事项:
1. 试题的答案书写在答题卡上,不得在试卷上直接作答。
2. 作答前认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
3. 考试结束,由监考人员将试题卷和答题卡一并收回。
第 I 卷 (共100分)
I. 听力测试。(共35分)
第一节 (每小题1分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Good morning! B. Good afternoon! C. Good night!
2. A. Thank you. B. The same to you. C. Nice to meet you.
3. A. It’s cute. B. It’s cloudy. C. It’s exciting.
4. A. OK, I don’t B. Sure, I will. C. Sorry, I won’t.
5. A. It’s 50 yuan. B. It’s long. C. It’s 50 kilos.
6. A. Sorry to hear that. B. Take your time. C. Congratulations!
第二节 (每小题1.5分,共9分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /smu:ð/. B. /tu:θ/. C. /stʊd/.
8. A. Listening to music. B. Watching TV. C. Reading a magazine.
9. A. Peter’s. B. Emma’s. C. Kathy’s.
10. A. Hardly ever. B. Four times a week. C. Twice a week.
11. A. At 7:45. B. At 8:15. C. At 8:45.
12. A. B. C. City Cinema
Zootopia 2
Row 5 /Seat 12
City Cinema
Zootopia 2
Row 9 /Seat 5
City Cinema
Zootopia 2
Row 12 /Seat 23
第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料,回答第13和14小题。
13. How does Lisa feel when she is leaving the middle school?
A. Sad. B. Excited. C. Worried.
14. What does Ken want to be in the future?
A. An astronaut. B. An engineer. C. A singer.
听第二段材料,回答第15和16小题。
15. How many people does the woman order the table for?
A. Three. B. Two. C. One.
16. In what way are they talking?
A. In an angry way. B. In a strange way. C. In a friendly way.
第四节 (每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. What does Mr. Zhang do according to the story?
A. A P.E. teacher. B. A university student. C. A taxi driver.
18. Where was the football match held?
A. In Chengdu. B. In Chongqing. C. In Guizhou.
19. Why did Mr. Zhang say the match is “more than football”?
A. Because it teaches football skills.
B. Because it connects people together.
C. Because it helps people find new jobs.
20. What may the writer do next Saturday?
A. Play computer games at home.
B. Help mom do housework.
C. Go hiking with classmates.
第五节 (每小题2分,共8分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的演讲内容,在横线处补全笔记。每空1词,并把答案填写在答题卡上对应的位置。
Ⅱ. 语法选择。(每小题1分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Perler Beads (拼豆) —they are small, colorful plastic beads. Last weekend, my mom bought 25 a bag of Perler beads for my birthday. It was really 26 to open the box and see all the small, colorful pieces inside. I decided to make a big yellow star.
First, a perfect star pattern 27 online with my mom’s help. Then, I began to work. I placed each tiny bead on the special board 28 . This needed a lot of 29 . My mom watched 30 said I was doing well.
After about an hour, my star was. finished. Then my mom helped me. She covered it with special paper and used a warm iron. The heat made the beads stick together. We waited for it 31 cool down. When it was ready, it became strong.
I was so happy! I showed it to my dad. He smiled and said it was 32 favorite star. I made it into a keychain (钥匙扣).
Now, I really love Perler Beads. I 33 three things since last weekend. I want to make 34 present for my best friend next month. I think she will love it!
25. A. I B. me C. my
26. A. excite B. exciting C. excited
27. A. is found B. found C. was found
28. A. slow B. slower C. slowly
29. A. care B. careful C. carefully
30. A. so B. but C. and
31. A. for B. to C. with
32. A. he B. him C. his
33. A. make B. made C. have made
34. A. a B. an C. the
Ⅲ. 完形填空。 (每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Last week, our English class was super fun! Our teacher 35 two cool stories that made me think a lot.
First, we watched a short video from a cartoon called Nobody. It’s about a 36 pig monster and his three friends. They aren’t big or strong and live in a place called Langlang Mountain. But guess what? They have a big 37 : to become heroes! So they dress up like characters from Journey to the West and go on an adventure (冒险). Other monsters (怪兽) 38 them, but they hold on to their dream. They tried their best instead of 39 hope. Even when things get really hard, they keep trying and help people along the way. Their story is funny but also very moving.
Then, teacher told us about a real person—Pang Zhongwang. He grew up in a poor 40 . His parents were sick, so after school he 41 bottles and paper to make a living. Even so, he never stopped studying. He worked so hard that he got into Tsinghua University —one of the best schools in China! Now he’s doing science to help people. Wow! He didn’t have magic or a superhero costume, but he had something. 42 better: a big heart and lots of courage. His mother gave him the name “Zhongwang,” which means “the hope of all,” and he truly lives up to it.
I liked 43 stories because they taught me something important. The little monsters and Pang Zhongwang both started as “nobodies,” 44 they didn’t give up.
Now whenever I face difficulties in my life, I will think of them. I tell myself that I can be brave as well. Maybe my “Langlang Mountain” is just a math problem or a shy feeling. And maybe—just maybe—I can be a somebody one day.
35. A. shared B. created C. discovered D. produced
36. A. silent B. little C. sleepy D. silly
37. A. dream B. purpose C. courage D. victory
38. A. take pride in B. look after C. point at D. laugh at
39. A. giving up B. taking up C. holding up D. keeping up
40. A. family B. community C. background D. society
41. A. threw B. bought C. collected D. invented
42. A. even B. just C. yet D. never
43.A.all B. both C. neither D. either
44. A. because B. unless C. if D. but
IV. 阅读理解。 (每小题2分,共30分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
HOW MUCH DO YOU KNOW?
45. How much did the first microwave oven weigh? Fun Facts!
A. 240 kg less than three washing machines.
B. 340 kg more than three washing machines.
C. 440 kg more than three washing machines.
D. 340 kg as heavy as three washing machines.
46. Which of the following picture best shows the second fact?
A. B. C. D.
47. In Austria, what might happen if you send someone 12 roses?
A. They might think it is unlucky. B. They may think it is too expensive.
C. They would feel very happy. D. They would feel especially honored.
B
When you are a teenager, it seems that every time you say, “Mum and Dad, I want to...” your parents answer, “No, you can’t.” or “You can’t do...” Teenagers often think they should be allowed to make their own decisions, but their parents always say no to them.
It is true that parents sometimes still see their teenagers as the young children they once were. They remember their children’s past mistakes and worry about the safety, which is why they make rules. But their purpose is to protect, not to control.
However, always arguing is not helpful. For teenagers who want more freedom, the best way is to build trust, not to fight. Instead of just complaining or talking about what friends can do, try open and honest talk. For example, if you want to stay out later, explain your plans clearly. Tell your parents where you will be, who you will be with, what you will do, and why it is important to you.
So, if you want to get more freedom, please try to understand your parents and don’t lie to them. Try a friendlier way. If you want them to allow you to stay out late, don’t just say, “All the other kids in my class can stay out late.” Tell them as much as you can about your plan and keep your promise. Then they will say, “OK, but be more careful and give us a call if possible.”
48. Why do parents make rules for teenagers?
A. Because they think teenagers are not clever enough.
B. Because they want to control every part of their lives.
C. Because they see them as young kids and worry about them.
D. Because they do not trust any of their teenagers’ friends.
49. According to paragraph 3, what is the best way for teenagers to get more freedom?
A. Compare their situation with their friends.
B. Keep arguing until their parents agreed.
C. Do what they want without telling parents.
D. Build trust by talking openly and honestly.
50. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about?
A. The needs of lying in some special situations.
B. The importance of honesty and clear plan.
C. The reasons for parents’ changes of their mind.
D. The comparison between different parents’ rules.
51. According to the text, what will you say if you call your parents when staying out late?
A. “I will be back at about ten as we planned.”
B. “All my classmates can stay out very late.”
C. “Don't call me. I am not a baby any longer.”
D. “Don't ask me where I am or who I'm with.”
C
Chinese classical poetry (古典诗歌) is a special kind of writing in ancient Chinese language. It often follows traditional forms and is closely connected to history, such as the famous poetry from the Tang Dynasty. Its history is very long—we can find it as early as in the Book of Songs, which came out over 2,500 years ago.
There are many different styles of classical poetry. Most of them grew and changed over time, especially toward the end of the Tang Dynasty. People kept writing and developing such poetry until 1919.Even today, some poets still write in this way.
Throughout these years, Chinese poetry has shown many styles and forms. Each historical period and dynasty has its own poetic features (特征). For example, Li Bai, a great Tang poet, wrote “Before my bed, the moon's bright light, Looks like frost on the ground so white.” These simple words create a beautiful and lasting image.
Another important part of Chinese poetry is how it connects with other Chinese arts, such as painting and calligraphy (书法). Together, they make Chinese culture more beautiful and meaningful. Classical Chinese poetry has also influenced poets all over the world, helping them write their own poems in new ways.
In short, Chinese classical poetry is not only old words —it is a living art that continues to inspire (鼓舞) people today.
52. How long has the poetry from the Tang Dynasty been around?
A. For about 1,500 years. B. For more than 2,500 years.
C. Since 2,000 years ago. D. For about 1,000 years.
53. Why does the author mention painting and calligraphy in paragraph 4?
A. To show Chinese poetry is more important than the other two.
B. To suggest that Chinese poetry is the most meaningful art form.
C. To compare Chinese poetry with the arts of other countries.
D. To explain how Chinese poetry connects with other Chinese arts.
54. What can we infer from the text?
A. Chinese poetry is a special kind of writing that dates back to ancient times.
B. The styles of Chinese classical poetry grew and changed over time.
C. In China, each historical period and dynasty has its own poetic features.
D. Many people still like reading Chinese poetry and are encouraged by them.
55. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The History and Influence of Chinese Poetry
B. The Life of Li Bai: A Tang Dynasty Poet
C. The Writing and Forms of Classical Poetry
D. The Connection between Poetry and Other Arts
D
Time magazine recently named Architects of AI (AI建筑师) as its “person of the year”. The article pointed out something special about China’s way. While the world often talks about powerful AI that serves only a few, China works on making AI useful and not too expensive for common people and businesses. This is like offering a “Chinese solution” to help bridge the gap (差距) between those with and without technology.
In the West, many companies are using huge amounts of money trying to build one very smart AI that can do everything. This could become an “AI black hole” Chinese tech leaders, however, believe the real importance is in real uses. They ask, “How can AI help factories, schools, or hospitals work better?”
This thought is pushing China’s top AI companies, like Zhipu AI and Moonshot AI. Their aim is to make powerful AI tools much less expensive. A company called MiniMax wants to offer very good AI services at a very low price, so both small businesses and developers can use them. He Xiaopeng, the CEO of carmaker XPeng, similarly focuses on embodied (具像化) intelligence, creating new roles focused on managing robotics, which offer a practical way to job creation.
The attention on low-cost AI is also clear in robots. A new company named AgiBot is making human-like robots to help with true problems, like caring for older people. Because of China's quick factories and supply chains (供应链), these robots could sell for under $20,000—much cheaper than many others.
Even when facing difficulties like export (出口) controls, Chinese companies find ways to do well. Huawei made its own chips for AI, which are now very strong. Another company, DeepSeek, offers many of its AI models for free online. This helps developers in other countries learn and build their own AI tools.
China’s idea is to build an AI future that is useful, low-cost, and open to all. Let’s hope for more true architects of AI.
56. What is the “Chinese solution” mentioned in Paragraph 1?
①Creating useful AI ②Developing powerful AI
③Providing low-cost AI ④Naming “Architects of AI”
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ③④ D. ①③
57. Which sentence uses “black hole” with the same meaning as the underlined word?
A. The black hole in space is very far from the Earth.
B. The project became a black hole which cost much.
C. She fell into a study black hole and learned a lot.
D. The black hole on the road caused traffic problems.
58. What is the purpose of mentioning Huawei and DeepSeek together?
A. To compare their different business models in AI.
B. To suggest that large companies can succeed in AI.
C. To explain why making AI chips is important for us.
D. To show how China shares AI in the face of challenges.
59. What can be true “Architects of AI” according to the writer?
A. Those who focus on creating powerful human-like robots for the elders.
B. Those who build more AI models that someone can use for free online.
C. Those who build technology that everyone can use to make a better life.
D. Those who make their own AI chips that can deal with all difficulties.
V. 口语运用。(每小题2分,共10分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。A. I’m fine, thanks.
B. Yes, many young people like it.
C. Of course, I’ve seen it online.
D. Where did you buy it?
E. I think it’s the way of making it.
F. That sounds like a good idea.
G. No, I don’t like it.
A: Hey, Lucy. How are you doing?
B: 60
A: Have you heard about the milk skin candied Hawthorn?
B: 61 What makes it so special?
A: 62 It mixes milk skin from Inner Mongolia with hawthorn. It's a creative way to bring traditional food to modern life.
B: Does it still keep the original (原先的) taste of hawthorn?
A: 63 They say it respects tradition while adding something new. Do you want to try it this weekend?
B: 64 Let’s go and taste it together.
第Ⅱ卷 (共50分)
VI. 任务型阅读。(65-66小题,每小题2分,67-68小题,每小题3分,共10分)
阅读下文并回答问题。
Are you a photographer who loves all things wild? Jamie Smart, a ten-year-old girl, has won the “10 Years and Under” group in the 2025 Wildlife Photographer of the Year competition. People call her the “eagle-eyed girl”. Her winning photo is named The Weaver’s Lair. Another one of her pictures also got special praise.
Jamie’s love for wildlife photography started when she was six. She first liked dinosaurs, which grew into a love for all animals and nature. She feels happiest when she is outside, watching animals and learning about how they act. Her favorite animals to take pictures of are small beetles (甲虫) called weevils (象鼻虫). She thinks they look funny and full of character when you see them up close. She dreams of visiting rainforest in countries like Panama and Peru one day.
Jamie believes a great wildlife photo should make people feel something and create a connection between the animal and the viewer. This can happen through eye contact or interesting animal behavior.
Her advice for young photographers is to be patient, learn as much as you can about the animals, and understand how light works. She also says to choose something you really care about to photograph—your love for it will be shown in your picture.
65. Is Jamie Smart’s winning photo named The Weaver’s Lair?
_________________________________________________________________________
66. When did Jamie begin to take photos of the wildlife?
_________________________________________________________________________
67. What makes a great wildlife photo according to Jamie?
_________________________________________________________________________
68. Choose something you really care about, take a picture and describe it. (about 30 words)
_________________________________________________________________________
VII. 完成句子。(69-72小题,每空1分,73小题2分,共10分)
根据所给图片及提示,完成句子。69-72小题,每空1词,含缩略词,73小题请将 完整的句子写在答题卡上对应的位置。
70.
69. Cao Cao and people _______ ________ (not have) a way to weigh the elephant at first.
70. Cao Cao’s little son Cao Chong asked, “________ I _______ a try?”
71. Cao Chong ________ _________ (想出了) with a good idea.
72. They asked, “ _______ _______ you weigh the elephant?”
73. “_______________” They shouted happily.
VIII. 概要补全。(75和77小题,每小题2分;74和76小题,每小题3分; 共10分)
阅读文章,用恰当的短语或句子补全概要。补全部分总词数不超过30词,不能照抄原文连续超过3个词。
Dogs are not just pets; they can be good for our health, especially for teenagers. Recent research suggests that spending time with dogs can lower teens’ worry and improve how they act with others.
A Japanese study led by Dr. Kikusui looked into the reason behind this. Scientists found that teenagers who own dogs have a different group of community of microbes (微生物群落), often called “gut bacteria (肠道细菌)”, compared to those who don’t. These microbes are important because the gut and the brain work closely together. The bacteria produce chemical substances (化学物质) that can influence how their brains work and how they feel.
The study included over 300 teenagers in Tokyo. Results showed that teens with dogs had fewer difficulties in getting along with others and showed less anger and bad behavior. Besides, these teens had higher levels of certain helpful gut bacteria. On the other hand, teens who don’t have dogs showed more behavior problems. This shows a possible connection: microbes from dogs might lead to better mental (心理) health.
Next, scientists moved gut microbes from the teenagers to mice. The mice that received microbes from dog owners became more friendly and curious. This supports the idea that microbes related to dogs can positively influence behavior.
Therefore, scientists suggest that teenagers spend at least 30 minutes playing with dogs every day to relax and lowers their worries. Also, take dogs for walks regularly, which can not only exercise the body but also improve the ability to get along with others. And take part in feeding and caring for dogs, which helps develop a sense of responsibility and make the mind healthier.
Research shows that dogs can help teenagers feel less worried and behave better. This is because 74 . These microbes influence brain health by producing chemicals. Compared with teen dog owners, those 75 were less friendly and worse behaved. Next, 76 . To have a healthier mind, some 77 are suggested by scientists.
IX. 书面表达。(满分20分)
2025年是充满成长与感动的一年,在这一年里,互助温暖、校园新趣、个人成长等某些瞬间都可能成为激励我们前行的力量。某英语报社将举办“2025: Some Moments to Remember” 主题征文活动,请参考如下信息,选择其中1-2个方面,撰文投稿。
要求:
1. 80-120词,开头已给出,不计入总词数;
2. 文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。
参考信息:
topic
example
why to remember
helping others
volunteer work, charity sale at school ...
…
colorful school life
group projects, online communication with foreign students on cultural topics …
…
personal improvement
become better at subjects. build a new habit
…
…
…
…
2025: Some Moments to Remember
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2025—2026学年度上期九年级期末质量监测
英语试题参考答案与评分意见
I. 听力测试。(共35分)
第一节:(每小题1分,共6分)
1—6 CABCAC
第二节:(每小题1.5分,共9分)
7—12 ACCBCA
第三节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
13—16 BABC
第四节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
17—20 ABBC
第五节:(每小题2分,共8分)
21. proud (变词形) 22. confidence 23. drawing (语法变形) 24. Small Steps
(单词拼写、形式正确2分,意思对形式错1分,大小写不扣分。拼写错误、不填0分)
II.语法选择。(每小题1分,共10分)
25—29 BBCCA 30—34 CBCCA
III. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
35—39 ABADA 40—44 ACABD
IV. 阅读理解。(每小题2分,共30分)
45—47 BCA 48—51 CDBA 52—55 BDDA 56—59 DBDC
1. V. 口语应用。(每小2分,共10分)
60—64 ACEBF
VI.任务型阅读。(65-66小题,每小题2分,67-68小题,每小题3分,共10分)
65. Yes./ Yes, it is.
66. When she was six. / At the age of six.
67. Jamie believes a great wildlife photo not only makes people feel something, but also has its ability to create a connection between the wildlife and the people.
前后黑体词块各算一个关键信息,两个答对且语言正确得3分。
65-67:包含黑体关键信息,三个小题的语言错误,共扣1分。
68. I will take a photo of my cat. To make the photo amazing, I will wait for soft morning light and a moment that the cat is looking at something with curious eyes.
描写照片具体细节,体现对something care about内容理解,逻辑语言、正确3分。
VII.完成句子。(69-72小题,每空1分,73小题2分,共10分)
69. didn’t have 70. May/ Can, have 71. came up 72. How, did
73. What a clever boy!
(评分说明:形式、拼写错误不给分)
VIII.概要补全。(75和77小题,每小题2分;74和76小题,每小题3分;共10分)
74. ①teenagers with dogs ②have different microbes named gut bacteria that ③can influence their actions and feelings. /different microbes in dog owners’ guts cause the good influences. 三个关键因素各占1分,句子;定位2段,解释原因,需要概括狗如何影响青少年身心健康的内在机制。
75. without dogs;定位3段,陈述研究方法:对比研究发现的概括,概括没有狗狗的青少年在行为上的表现。
76. ①tests / studies on mice showed almost ②the same result. / tests were done on mice to make sure of the finding. (句子);两个信息各为1.5分;定位5段,陈述实验结论,需要转述小鼠实验证实的关键发现。
77. ①helpful ways to ②stay with a dog;两方面信息全,缺一,扣1分;基于研究结论,需要总结全文最后一段核心建议。
IX.书面表达。(满分20分)
2025: Some Moments to Remember
评分总则:
1. 本题总分为20分,按各档次打分。
2. 评分时,先根据作者是否围绕2025年最难忘的某一个或某些瞬间,这些瞬间是为什么让作者难忘的叙事,其中“思想是否健康、文章的逻辑和内容是否完整”初步确定所属档次,再根据语言在档内准确打分。鼓励创新思维和视角新颖。
给分范围和要求:
第五档(优秀)
(19—20分)
高水平完成了 试题规定的任务
☆思想健康、三观正确
☆结构完整、条理清晰、逻辑严密、过渡自然
☆符合题意、中心突出、内容充实、富有创意
☆语言流畅、表达贴切、感情真挚
第四档(良好)
(16—18分)
较好完成了
试题规定的任务
☆思想健康、三观正确
☆结构完整、条理分明、逻辑清晰、过渡自然
☆符合题意、中心明确、内容充实
☆语言流畅、表达较贴切、感情真实
第三档(中等)
(13—15分)
基本完成了
试题规定的任务
☆思想健康、三观正确
☆结构较完整、条理较分明、有一定逻辑性
☆符合题意、中心明确、内容较充实
☆较准确地使用语言、能清楚表达意思
第二档(较差)
(8—12分)
未恰当完成
试题规定的任务
☆思想健康、三观正确
☆结构不完整、条理不分明、逻辑不严密
☆中心较明确,内容不充实,不能完全满足写作任务 的要求
☆语言不够连贯,错误较多、影响对写作内容的理解
第一档(差)
(0—7分)
未完成
试题规定的任务
☆思想健康,但内容严重缺失
☆语言错漏太多,无法传达有效信息、不能满足写作 任务的要求。
(与规定内容无关的抄袭或思想不健康,均为0分。)
九年级英语参考答案及评分意见 第2页,共3页
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