2026届天津市八所重点学校高三毕业班联考英语

2026年天津市八所重点学校高三毕业班联考 英语试卷答案 听力：1-5 ABABC 6--10ACBBC 11--15ABABA 单选：16-20 BBCCB 21-25AADAB 26-30 DBCDA 完形：31-35 BBDAA 36-40DACDA 41-45ABDBA 46-50DCADB 阅读：51-55 DADBC 56-60BBDCA 61-65DBCDC 66-70 CDACB 阅读表达： 71.Endless scrolling on her phone. 72.To exercise her brain and regain her concentration. 73.It has made her thinking sharper. 74.Pause/Stop. 75.I suggest setting specific time limits for phone use daily. 作文： 76.Apossible version: Our school offers a rich variety of clubs,ranging from academic ones like the English Debating Club to creative ones such as the Drama and Music Clubs.These platforms are far more than just places to kill time;they are vibrant stages for personal growth.For me,the most transformative experience has been my journey with the Drama Club. I still vividly remember the time we were preparing for our annual play.I was cast as a lead role,which initially filled me with excitement but soon turned into anxiety.Memorizing lines was challenging,and I also struggled with stage nervousness.Thanks to my teammates'accompany and support,we rehearsed late into the evenings,encouraging each other and refining our performances together.On the night of the show,as I stood under the spotlight and delivered my final monologue,I felt a sense of accomplishment and confidence I had never expected before. This experience teaches me that joining a club is not just pursuing a hobby but a journey of self-discovery and skill-building. 2026年天津市八所重点学校高三毕业班联考 英 语 试 卷 第I卷 选择题（共115分) 注意事项： 1．答第Ⅰ卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。 2．选出答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应的题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再填涂其它答案。 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Which instrument does the woman play now? A. The guitar.  B. The violin. C. The drums. 2. How does the man feel about helping at home? A. Annoyed.  B. Excited. C. Embarrassed. 3. What did the speakers do together? A. They went boating.  B. They had a picnic. C.They climbed up mountains. 4. What will the man have for lunch? A. Sandwiches. B. Pasta. C. Fried chicken. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Which film to see. B. Where to have a party. C. How to celebrate the birthday. 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面几段材料，每段材料后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至8三个小题。 6. What take up most of the space in the box? A. University books.  B. Music albums. C. Children’s toys. 7. What kind of insurance does the woman choose? A. First rate.  B. Economy rate. C. Standard rate. 8. How will the woman get her delivery? A. Her colleague will help sign for it. B. It will be delivered to her house. C. She will collect it from the post office. 听下面一段对话，回答第9至11三个小题。 9. Why did the woman start her café? A. She had lost her job. B. She saw a business opportunity. C. She wanted to achieve her dream. 10. What did the woman consider most important when choosing the site for her café? A. It lacked cafés nearby. B. It was near schools. C. It had more space. 11. What is parents’ attitude toward the woman's café? A. Approving.  B. Ambiguous. C. Unhappy. 听下面一段独白，回答第12至15四个小题。 12. Which movie won Andrews the Academy Award for Best Actress? A. Darling Lily.  B. Mary Poppins. C. Victor Victoria. 13. Why was Andrews given a special award in 2020? A. She had many achievements in her life. B. She starred in a great movie that year. C. She won an important contest. 14. When was The Sound of Music pulled from theaters? A. In 1965.  B. In 1966. C. In 1967. 15. What did Walt Disney do for Andrews? A. He made her get the role of Maria. B. He introduced a director to her. C. He helped her publish a book. 第二部分：英语知识运用（共两节, 满分45分） 第1节 单项填空（共15小题; 每小题1分，满分15分） 16. — I’m thinking of throwing a surprise party for Lily next Friday. Can you help? — . Tell me what you have in mind. A. I’m tied up B. You bet C. That’s it D. Not really 17. During the visit to the botanical garden, the children were excited to see rare flowers in the greenhouse at that very moment. A. to plant B. being planted C. planting D. planted 18. In general, a public person of a high ____ should pay attention to his or her words and deeds all the time. A. contribution B. expectation C. status D. ambition 19. In the shop, after the little girl tried on the new dress, she refused to ____ it, so her father had to pay for it. A. adapt B. adopt C. remove D. regret 20. The national hero has devoted most of his life to fighting for equal rights of people. That’s ____ he is admired by the whole world. A. because B. why C. how D. when 21. ____ a decision without thinking carefully, Johnson found that there were too many difficulties preventing his progress. A. Having made B. Made C. To make D. Making 22. The Chinese Characters on the notice board were so carelessly written that they were difficult to ____, especially for those foreign students. A. make out B. point out C. give out D. take out 23. You should encourage your family, relatives and friends to join the support group ___ they can learn from each other. A. when B. that C. which D. where 24. —I can’t believe it! I just found out I won the first prize in the national English competition! — _____! You’ve been practicing day and night for months. All your hard work has finally paid off! A.You deserve it B.It serves you right C.Just my luck D.You are kidding 25. Winnicott believed that _______ perfection is not a virtue, tolerance of imperfection is. A.unless B.while C.as long as D.even if 26. I thought there would be plenty of snacks at the party, but when I got there, I found ______. A.nothing B. no one C. nobody D. none 27. Large quantities of waste water from the chemical factory ______ into the nearby river over the past three months, which ______ a serious threat to the local ecosystem. A.has been poured; poses B.have been poured; poses C. has been poured; pose D. have been poured; pose 28. The widespread use of mobile payment apps has ______ changed the way people shop and conduct financial trades in most Asian countries over the past decade. A. slightly B. formally C. dramatically D. randomly 29. — The washing machine ______ start even though I’ve pressed the button several times. — Let me check it. Maybe there’s a problem with the power supply. A. can’t B. mustn’t C. needn’t D. won’t 30. ______ professional skills and work ethic, the candidate stands out among all the applicants for the manager position. A. In terms of B. Instead of C. In favor of D. In spite of 第二节 完形填空（共20小题; 每小题1.5分，满分30分） In recent years, many Americans’ lives have changed 31 the pandemic. A significant number moved from cities to greener areas, enjoying the practical 32 of driving for shopping. A 2023 report shows that about 20 million people relocated between 2019 and 2021, many from urban to more vast locations. However, even in less crowded areas, walking remains an excellent way to 33 . Walking makes it easy to 34 exercise into daily life without needing 35 or memberships. According to U.S. health guidelines, adults should get at least 150 minutes of 36 or 75 minutes of dynamic aerobic (有氧的）activity per week. Aerobic activities are best spread throughout the week, 37 for at least 60 minutes of movement each day. I worked as a massage therapist for several years, often walking or biking to work, keeping me active both during my 38 and on the job. Now I write full-time from home in a semi-rural part of the Hudson Valley. While I can walk to a few small shops, I still rely heavily on my car for most daily tasks. 39 , I need it regularly to visit family and access essential services in farther towns. This week encouraged me to 40 what I already had, instead of driving to buy groceries on purpose, I first checked what was in my fridge and basement. I discovered more food than I’d realized and came up with new meal ideas. I walked ten minutes to a small local cooperative shop 41 driving miles to a big supermarket. Carrying a full backpack home added a bit of extra exercise. Psychologist Dr. Juli Fraga notes that even a short walk can lower stress hormone levels and create a sense of 42 , which helps the mind relax and reset. I stopped driving to yoga or fitness classes and followed online workouts at home. Although there are many beautiful 43 nearby, I explored those within walking distance instead of driving to farther ones. 44 the drive saved me time and gave me more freedom—a clear win-win. This experiment also showed me the advantage of 45 options. When my mom visited, we chose a restaurant within walking distance instead of driving 20 minutes to a busier town. This saved time, 46 us to connect more. The post-meal walk helped manage blood sugar. I used to run 47 , but now focus more on strength training. Walking to restaurants, stores, and trails helped me 48 steps I once got from running. This week of walking helped me rediscover walking’s multiple 49 in a car-dependent setting: it improves health, reduces waste, and helps us 50 and connect more closely with the world around us. 31.A.regardless of B. due to C. but for D. apart from 32.A.discomfort B. convenience C. difficulty D. efficiency 33.A.work off B. lie down C. get around D. work out  34.A.integrate B.transform C.combine D.change 35.A.equipment B. imagination C. motivation D. suggestion 36.A.particular B. optional C. extreme D. moderate 37.A.aiming B. acquiring C. struggling D. experiencing 38.A.mystery B. journey C. commute D. value 39.A.Otherwise B. Therefore C. However D. Furthermore 40.A.make use of B. get rid of C. get down to D. take care of 41.A.rather than B. because of C. as well as D. except for 42.A.curiosity B. fulfillment C. concern D. confusion 43.A.awards B. comments C. prospects D. trails 44.A.Keeping B. Skipping C. Advocating D. Tackling 45.A.limiting B. increasing C. enhancing D. avoiding 46.A.revealing B. exchanging C. engaging D. allowing 47.A.suddenly B. rarely C. regularly D. occasionally 48.A regain B. adjust C. maintain D. regret 49.A.appearances B. purposes  C. functions D. benefits 50.A.speed up B. slow down C.put out D.take off 第三部分：阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A West Tiger Mountain Difficulty: Super easy Length: 8.2 miles It is the easiest one for Seattleites, the kind you’re in the mood for if you wake up at 11 a.m. but still want to walk through some red cedars(西洋杉). On a clear day, you can even watch parapenting(高山跳伞) launch from the open spot Weyerhaeuser shaved into the shoulder of the mountain in the 1970s. Mount Si Difficulty: Easy Length: 6 miles Even in the middle of winter, even when covered in snow, you can always get up and down this one without fearing for your life. For this and other reasons, the mountain is popular among hikers. But you’d better protect your snacks. The top is full of gray jays. These birds will fly down and take a nut right out of your mouth. Humpback Mountain Difficulty: Hard but short Length: 4 miles If you want to cross a magical fairyland, this one is for you. And because the mountain is hard to find and difficult to climb, you’ll hardly see any people around you on your way. The thin trail winds its way through a thick forest of tall and skinny trees. You’ll need to catch hold of them when the going gets tough, which is almost the whole way. Granite Mountain Difficulty: Plenty hard Length: 8.6 miles In early autumn, the cool air keeps you from overheating on the tough upward path, and the colors of the leaves in the area are so unbeatable that they will impress you greatly. So many people choose to go there in autumn. The rock formations make the grassland look like the ruins of some ancient civilization, or just a cool-looking junkyard reserved for kitchen counters. Taking long walks in these mountains in Seattle is a perfect way to spend a day and it resets the mind and refreshes the soul. 51. What can we learn about the trip in West Tiger Mountain? A. It is tough but magical. B. It is short but adventurous. C. It is safe and economical. D. It is super easy and time-flexible. 52. What should you watch out for in Mount Si? A. Gray jays. B. Snakes. C.Slippery path. D.Steep stairs. 53. Which of the following is least visited by people? A.West Tiger Mountain B. Mount Si. C. Granite Mountain. D.Humpback Mountain. 54. What is special about exploring in Granite Mountain? A. Green grassland. B. Colorful leaves. C. Winding paths. D.Ancient civilization. 55. Who may be interested in this passage? A.Those who like watching parachuting. B.Those who enjoy exploring the world. C.Those who prefer taking daily hikes in Seattle. D.Those who like touring around the countryside. B The sound begins with a steady buzz echoing through the Alaskan wilderness. It is not a warning, but a signal. Stepping outside, you might see a small plane flying remarkably low. Its door opens, and a dark package with a yellow tail is thrown, landing with a soft thump on the ground. You have just been “turkey bombed.” This “bomb” is actually a frozen turkey in a bag, marked with bright tape for visibility. Since 2021, Alaskan pilot Esther Keim has been dropping these from her plane to remote residents who might lack a traditional holiday meal. Around Christmas, she delivers hams instead. Keim was inspired by childhood memories. Growing up in a remote area, she recalled a family friend who would annually airdrop a turkey to her family. Wanting to bring similar joy, she decided to start the project, initially for a neighbor and later expanding it to many isolated families. Thanksgiving in Alaska presents a unique challenge. During the “freeze-up” period, rivers are impassable, trapping residents. The only land travel option is a long snowmobile ride, making Keim’s aerial deliveries especially valuable. Armed with a list of locations, Keim and a co-pilot take off. Upon arrival, they fly low to alert residents. Once someone emerges, Keim calculates the drop. Accuracy is crucial, as a missed package could be lost in the vast landscape. The turkey tumbles out, sometimes rolling far on icy ground. Keim often includes extra treats like candy or coffee. She records the drop to help recipients find their gift, though occasionally, a package remains missing, becoming a surprise for a lucky street sweeper. For recipients, the gift means more than just food. It is a powerful reminder that they are not forgotten. One family, who received essential salt along with their holiday ham, kept the accompanying handwritten card taped to their door as a cherished symbol of connection. Funded by donations, the project has grown. Keim is working to establish it as a nonprofit. She finds deep fulfillment in giving back, particularly knowing the excitement she brings to children—the same joy she once felt as a little girl watching a turkey fall from the sky. 56. What is the purpose of the “steady buzz” sound mentioned in the first paragraph? A.To warn residents of potential danger in the wilderness. B.To signal the arrival of a plane delivering holiday packages. C.To help locate the dropped package in the vast landscape. D.To scare away wild animals that might approach the dropped food. 57. The most important concern for Keim during the package drop is_______. A.Flying low enough to alert residents. B.Ensuring the package lands accurately to avoid loss. C.Adding extra treats like candy or coffee. D.Recording the drop to assist in finding gifts. 58. What does the underlined word “impassable” in Paragraph 4 mean? A.Opened B.Entered. C.Crossed D.Blocked. 59. How does Keim ensure that the recipients can find the delivered package? A.By waiting for someone to come out before dropping. B.By communicating with recipients in advance.  C.By recording a video of the falling package. D.By marking the package with bright colors. 60. What conclusion can be drawn from Keim’s experience? A.Small acts build connection and joy. B.Technology solves delivery issues. C.Personal hobbies can grow into charitable projects D.Community donations sustain charitable work. C Many people fear losing their memory and clear thinking as they age, especially with rising dementia（痴呆）rates. However, research offers hope, showing that our food choices can powerfully protect our brain health. A key finding is the benefit of the MIND diet, developed in 2015. It combines the heart-healthy Mediterranean diet and the blood-pressure-lowering DASH diet into a plan specifically designed to protect the brain. The MIND diet is simple and flexible. It encourages eating more brain-boosting foods and cutting back on harmful ones. Important foods include leafy green vegetables like spinach, various berries, nuts, whole grains, beans, fish, poultry, and olive oil. It advises limiting red meat, butter, cheese, pastries, fast food, and fried foods. The goal is to reduce saturated（饱和的）fat and sugar, which cause inflammation（炎症）. This way of eating brings real benefits. Studies show that closely following the MIND diet can slow brain aging, making a person’s brain function up to 7.5 years younger. It is also linked to a lower risk of Alzheimer’s disease. Remarkably, even moderate followers see protective effects. The benefits are not just for older adults. Research finds it can improve memory and attention in middle-aged adults and may even lower the odds of ADHD in children. The secret to its success lies in fighting inflammation and oxidative(氧化的)stress, two processes that damage brain cells. Foods like berries and leafy greens are rich in flavonoids, which are antioxidants. Fish provides omega-3 fatty acids that protect neurons. By reducing harm, the diet helps preserve brain structure and function. Scientific evidence strongly supports this. A 2023 study found that people on the MIND diet had larger brain volumes in areas critical for memory and learning. They also had fewer signs of brain tissue damage. Another study showed that sticking to the diet over ten years could lower dementia risk by 25% . Ultimately, the MIND diet is more than a short-term plan; it’s a sustainable lifestyle for lifelong brain health. Experts stress that consistency is key—making good choices day after day. It’s never too early or too late to start. As one researcher says, we should always be eating this way, keeping our brain health in mind with every meal. In conclusion, what we eat directly impacts how well our brain works. The MIND diet provides a clear, flexible, and science-backed guide for nourishing our minds, helping us stay mentally sharp at any age. By choosing more whole, plant-based foods and fewer processed items, we can build a strong defense for our cognitive future. 61. According to the article, what is a key characteristic of the MIND diet? A.It is a strict and challenging eating plan to follow. B.It focuses almost entirely on increasing fruit intake. C.Its primary goal is to help people lose weight quickly. D.It combines principles from two other well-known diets. 62. What can be inferred from Paragraph 3 about following the MIND diet? A.Its positive effects are limited to preventing Alzheimer’s disease. B.It has the potential to benefit a wide range of age groups. C.Only strict followers can gain any health benefits from it. D.It is more effective for children than for middle-aged adults. 63. The MIND diet is considered successful mainly because it helps to . A.rapidly increase the brain’s processing speed B.remove saturated fats from the body completely C.fight against processes that harm brain cells D.replace medications for brain-related conditions 64. Scientific studies mentioned in the article support the MIND diet by showing it is linked to . A.immediate improvements in mood and overall well-being B.a significant decrease in the body’s daily need for sleep C.the ability to stop dementia development in most cases D.physical changes in brain structure and lowered risk factors 65. What is the main idea of the passage? A.To introduce a different and new diet for lowering blood pressure and keeping heart health. B.To describe the main causes and symptoms of age-related memory loss. C.To explain a flexible eating plan designed to keep the mind sharp. D.To compare the benefits of the Mediterranean and DASH diets in preventing disease. D We are often taught to live according to our values, but without deep reflection, this is easier said than done. Have you ever admired others’ achievements on social media? Or felt lost about your life direction after an important birthday? Changes in life, such as a new job or a breakup, can also leave us feeling uncertain. In these moments, we are often advised to focus on what we truly care about. However, the real challenge is that we don’t always know what matters most to us or why it matters. Values are not simply beliefs or feelings, but deep-seated goals that combine thought and emotion. Take friendship for example. Someone who truly values friendship not only believes it is important, but also feels happy for their friends’ joys, sad for their difficulties, and considers friends when making decisions. Therefore, values are stable, emotionally grounded, and thoughtfully affirmed goals that guide our choices and help us evaluate our lives. To discover our own values, rational thinking alone is not enough, because values also include emotional parts we may not be aware of. We can use imagination exercises, such as considering what we would choose if we had to move to another planet and could only take a few things. This can reveal what we cherish deep down. At the same time, paying attention to physical signs of stress and emotional states is also important. When we become fully immersed in an activity, that likely points to what we truly value. After understanding values, we need to put them into practice and reflect. This means not only thinking, but also observing our actions and emotional responses. Please note, however, that reflection should not become endless self-doubt — overthinking can actually hold us back. A better way is to develop a habit of regular reflection, such as during the New Year, on your birthday, or while on vacation. This helps us examine ourselves fully in calm moments, rather than rushing to reflect only during a crisis. Clarifying your values won’t remove all difficulties or negative emotions in life. External challenges and inner conflicts will still exist. However, the clearer I am about what truly matters to me, the less I worry about others’ achievements and the more confidently I can make choices that suit me in my limited time. Building your life around what truly matters not only brings deep satisfaction, but also gives you strength to overcome challenges. In the end, it helps us become more complete and resilient individuals. 66. According to the passage, what are values? A.They are core personal beliefs. B.They are deep emotional attachments. C.They are mental and emotional goals. D.They are traditionally taught principles. 67.What is a typical behavior of a person who values friendship? A.He makes an effort to have as many friends as possible. B.He believes friendship is important in theory. C.Sometimes he puts his friends before his career. D.His feelings and choices are affected by his friends. 68.Why does the author mention the exercise of choosing items for another planet? A.To reveal our cherished things. B.To prepare for space travel. C.To prove the limits of rational thinking. D.To show the value of possessions. 69.What can we infer about the relationship between clarifying values and facing life's challenges? A.Clarifying values removes both external difficulties and negative emotions. B.Values clarification requires avoiding reflection during crises to prevent overthinking. C.A clear sense of values reduces distractions from others’ successes and supports self-directed decisions. D.Building a life around values guarantees the complete absence of inner conflicts and worries. 70.What could be the best title for the passage? A.The Challenge of Defining Your Values. B.Values: The Compass for a Fulfilling Life. C.The Essential Components of Personal Values. D.How to Discover and Practice Your Values. 第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（共35分) 第四部分：写作（共两节，满分35分） 第1节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） As a little girl, I loved reading until my eyes grew blurry. When preparing for my high school entrance exams, I could focus for hours without pause, like a monk in deep meditation. But in recent years, I’ve felt my ability to concentrate fading away, replaced by endless scrolling on my phone. My attention span now shortens like a snail retracting its body at the slightest touch. Reading for pleasure no longer feels refreshing — it has become a test of endurance. For someone who writes for a living, this is not only sad but also a professional crisis. So, about a year ago, I made a simple promise to myself: every time I came across an unfamiliar word — whether in a book, an article, or a conversation — I would look it up and write it down. No fancy notebook or special pen was needed; I just kept a growing list on my phone. Every week, I spent a few minutes reviewing these words to help remember them. This list has now grown to nearly 20 pages, and this small habit has quietly changed me. The reward isn’t about showing off with difficult words — which can sound annoying—but about exercising my brain. Each time I look up and record a word, I feel a gentle stretch, as if a sleepy part of my mind is waking up again. Even if I never use a word like “eidolon,” the very act of noticing and remembering it helps me break away from lazy, shallow thinking. Of course, keeping this habit isn’t always easy. It can be very inconvenient. When reading on the subway, I often have to suspend my reading in the middle of a paragraph, take out my phone, and type a new word while trying not to bump into others. This slows my reading to a crawl. I also often forget to review my growing word list regularly. Still, this practice has made my thinking sharper. I find myself choosing more accurate and lively words when I write or speak. There’s a real satisfaction in finding exactly the right word for a thought. In a time when phones often distract us, using mine to learn slowly feels quietly powerful. This habit has given me back the joy of a waking, working mind — something I was afraid I had lost for good. 71. What has replaced the author’s ability to concentrate in recent years?(no more than 10 words) 72. Why did the author start keeping a list of new words? (no more than 10 words) 73. According to the author, what is the main benefit of this habit? (no more than 10 words) 74. What does the underlined word “suspend” mean in Paragraph 4? (1 word) 75. Besides the method in the passage, what is one other way to improve your concentration? Please explain. (no more than 20 words) 第二节 书面表达（满分25分） 76.假设你是晨光中学的李津，你校英语报正在举办题为 "Clubs: More Than Just Hobbies" 的征文活动。请你根据以下要点写一篇短文投稿： 1.简述你校社团活动的多样性。 2.描述你参加某个社团的一次具体经历。 3.谈谈社团活动对你的影响。 注意： 1. 词数不少于100； 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 英语试卷 第 11 页 (共 11 页) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年天津市八所重点学校高三毕业班联考 英语试卷答案 听力：1-5 ABABC 6--10 ACBBC 11--15 ABABA 单选：16-20 BBCCB 21-25A ADAB 26-30 DBCDA 完形：31-35 BBDAA 36-40DACDA 41-45ABDBA 46-50DCADB 阅读：51-55 DADBC 56-60BBDCA 61-65DBCDC 66-70 CDACB 阅读表达： 71. Endless scrolling on her phone. 72. To exercise her brain and regain her concentration. 73. It has made her thinking sharper. 74. Pause/Stop. 75. I suggest setting specific time limits for phone use daily. 作文： 76. A possible version: Our school offers a rich variety of clubs, ranging from academic ones like the English Debating Club to creative ones such as the Drama and Music Clubs. These platforms are far more than just places to kill time; they are vibrant stages for personal growth.For me, the most transformative experience has been my journey with the Drama Club. I still vividly remember the time we were preparing for our annual play. I was cast as a lead role, which initially filled me with excitement but soon turned into anxiety. Memorizing lines was challenging, and I also struggled with stage nervousness. Thanks to my teammates’ accompany and support,we rehearsed late into the evenings, encouraging each other and refining our performances together. On the night of the show, as I stood under the spotlight and delivered my final monologue, I felt a sense of accomplishment and confidence I had never expected before. This experience teaches me that joining a club is not just pursuing a hobby but a journey of self-discovery and skill-building.The Drama Club doesn't just show me how to act,enhance my public speaking skills, cultivate my creativity, but most importantly, make me gain a deeper understanding of the value of teamwork and perseverance. These are invaluable lessons that extend far beyond the classroom and will undoubtedly benefit me in my future academic and professional life. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2026年天津市八所重点学校高三毕业班联考 英语试卷 第I卷选择题（共115分） 注意事项： 1.答第I卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。 2.选出答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应的题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后， 再填涂其它答案。 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选 项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读 下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.Which instrument does the woman play now? A.The guitar. B.The violin. C.The drums. 2.How does the man feel about helping at home? A.Annoyed. B.Excited. C.Embarrassed. 3.What did the speakers do together? A.They went boating. B.They had a picnic. C.They climbed up mountains. 4.What will the man have for lunch? A.Sandwiches. B.Pasta C.Fried chicken. 5.What are the speakers mainly talking about? A.Which film to see. B.Where to have a party. C.How to celebrate the birthday. 第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面几段材料，每段材料后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选 项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听 完后，各个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至8三个小题。 6.What take up most of the space in the box? A.University books. B.Music albums. C.Children's toys. 7.What kind of insurance does the woman choose? 英语试卷第1页（共13页） A.First rate. B.Economy rate. C.Standard rate. 8.How will the woman get her delivery? A.Her colleague will help sign for it. B.It will be delivered to her house. C.She will collect it from the post office 听下面一段对话，回答第9至11三个小题。 9.Why did the woman start her cafe? A.She had lost her job. B.She saw a business opportunity. C.She wanted to achieve her dream. 10.What did the woman consider most important when choosing the site for her cafe? A.It lacked cafes nearby. B.It was near schools. C.It had more space. 11.What is parents'attitude toward the woman's cafe? A.Approving B.Ambiguous. C.Unhappy 听下面一段独白，回答第12至15四个小题。 12.Which movie won Andrews the Academy Award for Best Actress? A.Darling Lily. B.Mary Poppins C.Victor Victoria. 13.Why was Andrews given a special award in 2020? A.She had many achievements in her life B.She starred in a great movie that year. C.She won an important contest. 14.When was The Sound of Music pulled from theaters? A.In1965. B.In1966. C.In1967. 15.What did Walt Disney do for Andrews? A.He made her get the role of Maria. B.He introduced a director to her. C.He helped her publish a book. 第二部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分〉 第一节单项填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 16.-I'm thinking of throwing a surprise party for Lily next Friday.Can you help? Tell me what you have in mind. A.I'm tied up B.You bet C.That's it D.Not really 英语试卷第2页（共13页） 17.During the visit to the botanical garden,the children were excited to see rare flowers in the greenhouse at that very moment. A.to plant B.being planted C.planting D.planted 18.In general,a public person of a high should pay attention to his or her words and deeds all the time. A.contribution B.expectation C.status D.ambition 19.In the shop,after the little girl tried on the new dress,she refused to it,so her father had to pay for it. A.adapt B.adopt C.remove D.regret 20.The national hero has devoted most of his life to fighting for equal rights of people.That's he is admired by the whole world A.because B.why C.how D.when 21.a decision without thinking carefully,Johnson found that there were too many difficulties preventing his progress. A.Having made B.Made C.To make D.Making 22.The Chinese Characters on the notice board were so carelessly written that they were difficult to _especially for those foreign students. A.make out B.point out C.give out D.take out 23.You should encourage your family,relatives and friends to join the support group_they can learn from each other. A.when B.that C.which D.where 24.-I can't believe it!I just found out I won the first prize in the national English competition! You've been practicing day and night for months.All your hard work has finally paid off! A.You deserve it B.It serves you right C.Just my luck D.You are kidding 25.Winnicott believed that perfection is not a virtue,tolerance of imperfection is. A.unless B.while C.as long as D.even if 26.I thought there would be plenty of snacks at the party,but when I got there,I found A.nothing B.no one C.nobody D.none 27.Large quantities of waste water from the chemical factory into the nearby river over the past three months,which a serious threat to the local ecosystem. 英语试卷第3页（共13页） A.has been poured;poses B.have been poured;poses C.has been poured;pose D.have been poured;pose 28.The widespread use of mobile payment apps has changed the way people shop and conduct financial trades in most Asian countries over the past decade A.slightly B.formally C.dramatically D.randomly 29.-The washing machine start even though I've pressed the button several times. -Let me check it.Maybe there's a problem with the power supply. A.can't B.mustn't C.needn't D.won't 30. professional skills and work ethic,the candidate stands out among all the applicants for the manager position. A.In terms of B.Instead of C.In favor of D.In spite of 第二节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分) In recent years,many Americans'lives have changed 31 the pandemic.A significant number moved from cities to greener areas,enjoying the practical 32 of driving for shopping.A 2023 report shows that about 20 million people relocated between 2019 and 2021,many from urban to more vast locations.However,even in less crowded areas,walking remains an excellent way to 33- Walking makes it easy to 34exercise into daily life without needing 35 or memberships.According to U.S.health guidelines,adults should get at least 150 minutes of 36 or 75 minutes of dynamic aerobic (activity per week.Aerobic activities are best spread throughout the week,37 for at least 60 minutes of movement each day. I worked as a massage therapist for several years,often walking or biking to work,keeping me active both during my 38 and on the job.Now I write full-time from home in a semi-rural part of the Hudson Valley.While I can walk to a few small shops,I still rely heavily on my car for most daily tasks.39,I need it regularly to visit family and access essential services in farther towns. This week encouraged me to 40 what I already had,instead of driving to buy groceries on purpose,I first checked what was in my fridge and basement.I discovered more food than I'd realized and came up with new meal ideas.I walked ten minutes to a small local cooperative shop 41 driving miles to a big supermarket.Carrying a full backpack home added a bit of extra exercise. Psychologist Dr.Juli Fraga notes that even a short walk can lower stress hormone levels and create a sense of 42,which helps the mind relax and reset. I stopped driving to yoga or fitness classes and followed online workouts at home.Although 英语试卷第4页（共13页） there are many beautiful 43 nearby,I explored those within walking distance instead of driving to farther ones.44 the drive saved me time and gave me more freedom-a clear win-win. This experiment also showed me the advantage of 45 options.When my mom visited,we chose a restaurant within walking distance instead of driving 20 minutes to a busier town.This saved time,46 us to connect more.The post-meal walk helped manage blood sugar.I used to run 47,but now focus more on strength training.Walking to restaurants,stores,and trails helped me 48 steps I once got from running. This week of walking helped me rediscover walking's multiple 49 in a car-dependent setting:it improves health,reduces waste,and helps us 50 and connect more closely with the world around us. 31.A.regardless of B.due to C.but for D.apart from 32.A.discomfort B.convenience C.difficulty D.efficiency 33.A.work off B.lie down C.get around D.work out 34.A.integrate B.transform C.combine D.change 35.A.equipment B.imagination C.motivation D.suggestion 36.A.particular B.optional C.extreme D.moderate 37.A.aiming B.acquiring C.struggling D.experiencing 38.A.mystery B.journey C.commute D.value 39.A.Otherwise B.Therefore C.However D.Furthermore 40.A.make use of B.get rid of C.get down to D.take care of 41.A.rather than B.because of C.as well as D.except for 42.A.curiosity B.fulfillment C.concern D.confusion 43.A.awards B.comments C.prospects D.trails 44.A.Keeping B.Skipping C.Advocating D.Tackling 45.A.limiting B.increasing C.enhancing D.avoiding 46.A.revealing B.exchanging C.engaging D.allowing 47.A.suddenly B.rarely C.regularly D.occasionally 48.A regain B.adjust C.maintain D.regret 49.A.appearances B.purposes C.functions D.benefits 50.A.speed up B.slow down C.put out D.take off 第三部分：阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 英语试卷第5页（共13页） West Tiger Mountain Difficulty:Super easy Length:8.2 miles It is the easiest one for Seattleites,the kind you're in the mood for if you wake up at 11 a.m.but still want to walk through some red cedars().On a clear day,you can even watch parapenting(高山a跳伞)launch from the open spot Weyerhaeuser shaved into the shoulder of the mountain in the 1970s. Mount Si Difficulty:Easy Length:6 miles Even in the middle of winter,even when covered in snow,you can always get up and down this one without fearing for your life.For this and other reasons,the mountain is popular among hikers. But you'd better protect your snacks.The top is full of gray jays.These birds will fly down and take a nut right out of your mouth Humpback Mountain Difficulty:Hard but short Length:4 miles If you want to cross a magical fairyland,this one is for you.And because the mountain is hard to find and difficult to climb,you'll hardly see any people around you on your way.The thin trail winds its way through a thick forest of tall and skinny trees.You'll need to catch hold of them when the going gets tough,which is almost the whole way. Granite Mountain Difficulty:Plenty hard Length:8.6 miles In early autumn,the cool air keeps you from overheating on the tough upward path,and the colors of the leaves in the area are so unbeatable that they will impress you greatly.So many people choose to go there in autumn.The rock formations make the grassland look like the ruins of some ancient civilization,or just a cool-looking junkyard reserved for kitchen counters. Taking long walks in these mountains in Seattle is a perfect way to spend a day and it resets the mind and refreshes the soul. 51.What can we learn about the trip in West Tiger Mountain? 英语试卷第6页（共13页） A.It is tough but magical. B.It is short but adventurous. C.It is safe and economical. D.It is super easy and time-flexible. 52.What should you watch out for in Mount Si? A.Gray jays. B.Snakes. C.Slippery path. D.Steep stairs. 53.Which of the following is least visited by people? A.West Tiger Mountain B.Mount Si C.Granite Mountain. D.Humpback Mountain. 54.What is special about exploring in Granite Mountain? A.Green grassland. B.Colorful leaves.C.Winding paths. D.Ancient civilization. 55.Who may be interested in this passage? A.Those who like watching parachuting. B.Those who enjoy exploring the world. C.Those who prefer taking daily hikes in Seattle. D.Those who like touring around the countryside. B The sound begins with a steady buzz echoing through the Alaskan wilderness.It is not a warning,but a signal.Stepping outside,you might see a small plane flying remarkably low.Its door opens,and a dark package with a yellow tail is thrown,landing with a soft thump on the ground.You have just been"turkey bombed." This "bomb"is actually a frozen turkey in a bag,marked with bright tape for visibility.Since 2021,Alaskan pilot Esther Keim has been dropping these from her plane to remote residents who might lack a traditional holiday meal.Around Christmas,she delivers hams instead. Keim was inspired by childhood memories.Growing up in a remote area,she recalled a family friend who would annually airdrop a turkey to her family.Wanting to bring similar joy,she decided to start the project,initially for a neighbor and later expanding it to many isolated families. Thanksgiving in Alaska presents a unique challenge.During the "freeze-up"period,rivers are impassable,trapping residents.The only land travel option is a long snowmobile ride,making Keim's aerial deliveries especially valuable. Armed with a list of locations,Keim and a co-pilot take off.Upon arrival,they fly low to alert residents.Once someone emerges,Keim calculates the drop.Accuracy is crucial,as a missed package could be lost in the vast landscape. The turkey tumbles out,sometimes rolling far on icy ground.Keim often includes extra treats like candy or coffee.She records the drop to help recipients find their gift,though occasionally,a 英语试卷第7页（共13页） package remains missing,becoming a surprise for a lucky street sweeper. For recipients,the gift means more than just food.It is a powerful reminder that they are not forgotten.One family,who received essential salt along with their holiday ham,kept the accompanying handwritten card taped to their door as a cherished symbol of connection Funded by donations,the project has grown.Keim is working to establish it as a nonprofit.She finds deep fulfillment in giving back,particularly knowing the excitement she brings to children-the same joy she once felt as a little girl watching a turkey fall from the sky. 56.What is the purpose of the"steady buzz sound mentioned in the first paragraph? A.To warn residents of potential danger in the wilderness. B.To signal the arrival of a plane delivering holiday packages. C.To help locate the dropped package in the vast landscape. D.To scare away wild animals that might approach the dropped food. 57.The most important concern for Keim during the package drop is A.Flying low enough to alert residents B.Ensuring the package lands accurately to avoid loss. C.Adding extra treats like candy or coffee. D.Recording the drop to assist in finding gifts. 58.What does the underlined word"impassable"in Paragraph 4 mean? A.Opened B.Entered. C.Crossed D.Blocked. 59.How does Keim ensure that the recipients can find the delivered package? A.By waiting for someone to come out before dropping. B.By communicating with recipients in advance. C.By recording a video of the falling package. D.By marking the package with bright colors. 60.What conclusion can be drawn from Keim's experience? A.Small acts build connection and joy. B.Technology solves delivery issues. C.Personal hobbies can grow into charitable projects D.Community donations sustain charitable work. 0 Many people fear losing their memory and clear thinking as they age,especially with rising dementia (rates.However,research offers hope,showing that our food choices can powerfully 英语试卷第8页（共13页） protect our brain health.A key finding is the benefit of the MIND diet,developed in 2015.It combines the heart-healthy Mediterranean diet and the blood-pressure-lowering DASH diet into a plan specifically designed to protect the brain. The MIND diet is simple and flexible.It encourages eating more brain-boosting foods and cutting back on harmful ones.Important foods include leafy green vegetables like spinach,various berries,nuts,whole grains,beans,fish,poultry,and olive oil.It advises limiting red meat,butter, cheese,pastries,fast food,and fried foods.The goal is to reduce saturated (fat and sugar, which cause inflammation（炎症). This way of eating brings real benefits.Studies show that closely following the MIND diet can slow brain aging,making a person's brain function up to 7.5 years younger.It is also linked to a lower risk of Alzheimer's disease.Remarkably,even moderate followers see protective effects.The benefits are not just for older adults.Research finds it can improve memory and attention in middle-aged adults and may even lower the odds of ADHD in children. The secret to its success lies in fighting inflammation and oxidative()stress,two processes that damage brain cells.Foods like berries and leafy greens are rich in flavonoids,which are antioxidants.Fish provides omega-3 fatty acids that protect neurons.By reducing harm,the diet helps preserve brain structure and function. Scientific evidence strongly supports this.A 2023 study found that people on the MIND diet had larger brain volumes in areas critical for memory and learning.They also had fewer signs of brain tissue damage.Another study showed that sticking to the diet over ten years could lower dementia risk by 25%. Ultimately,the MIND diet is more than a short-term plan;it's a sustainable lifestyle for lifelong brain health.Experts stress that consistency is key-making good choices day after day.It's never too early or too late to start.As one researcher says,we should always be eating this way,keeping our brain health in mind with every meal. In conclusion,what we eat directly impacts how well our brain works.The MIND diet provides a clear,flexible,and science-backed guide for nourishing our minds,helping us stay mentally sharp at any age.By choosing more whole,plant-based foods and fewer processed items,we can build a strong defense for our cognitive future. 61.According to the article,what is a key characteristic of the MIND diet? A.It is a strict and challenging eating plan to follow. B.It focuses almost entirely on increasing fruit intake. 英语试卷第9页（共13页） C.Its primary goal is to help people lose weight quickly. D.It combines principles from two other well-known diets. 62.What can be inferred from Paragraph 3 about following the MIND diet? A.Its positive effects are limited to preventing Alzheimer's disease. B.It has the potential to benefit a wide range of age groups C.Only strict followers can gain any health benefits from it. D.It is more effective for children than for middle-aged adults 63.The MIND diet is considered successful mainly because it helps to_ A.rapidly increase the brain's processing speed B.remove saturated fats from the body completely C.fight against processes that harm brain cells D.replace medications for brain-related conditions 64.Scientific studies mentioned in the article support the MIND diet by showing it is linked to A.immediate improvements in mood and overall well-being B.a significant decrease in the body's daily need for sleep C.the ability to stop dementia development in most cases D.physical changes in brain structure and lowered risk factors 65.What is the main idea of the passage? A.To introduce a different and new diet for lowering blood pressure and keeping heart health. B.To describe the main causes and symptoms of age-related memory loss. C.To explain a flexible eating plan designed to keep the mind sharp D.To compare the benefits of the Mediterranean and DASH diets in preventing disease. D We are often taught to live according to our values,but without deep reflection,this is easier said than done.Have you ever admired others'achievements on social media?Or felt lost about your life direction after an important birthday?Changes in life,such as a new job or a breakup,can also leave us feeling uncertain.In these moments,we are often advised to focus on what we truly care about.However,the real challenge is that we don't always know what matters most to us or why it matters. Values are not simply beliefs or feelings,but deep-seated goals that combine thought and emotion.Take friendship for example.Someone who truly values friendship not only believes it is 英语试卷第10页（共13页）这里是2026年天津市8所重点学校高三毕业班联合考试听力部分。第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。Text one, I don't know how you find the time to practice three instruments. Why don't you give one of them up? I was going to give up the guitar, but I realize that I loved playing IT very much, and I gave up the drums and violin instead. Text to look, shall we go into town this morning? Sorry. mom wants to help her clear around the store room. We're going to look through all the old boxes. IT must be interesting to see what's there. I'm really looking forward to IT. Tex, three, i've never been in a little boat like that before. I'm used to doing IT on a laking the mountains. I'm glad we could practice together before we took part . in the race. It's a shame we forgot our picnic. Text for once for lunch. Can I have the fried chicken in the fridge? Oh, your brother will have those I could make you. Pastor, okay, i'd prefer that to sandwich es. I have sandwich es nearly every day. Text five, so have you decided what you're going to do for your birthday? What about going for lunch at that new italian place? Well, I wanted to see a film, but there's not really anything interesting on. Mom said I could have a party at home. 第一节到此结束。第二节听下面三段材料，每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读每个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段材料读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六至第八小题。Take six. Hello, what actually is in your box? H mostly old university books, some children's toys and a few music albums. Well, we recommend that you purchase insurance to cover yourself in the event of damage or loss. What are my options? We offer three insurance deals. First rate offers full cover in the event of loss damage. Theft is a little expensive, standard rate gives you today's value, a discount fifty percent, and economy rate just covers law's saw damage. I'll take the second choice. Will you be needing delivery to your office at your house? Or do you intend to pick up your package from the post office? Home delivery would suit me best, I think. Hello, what actually is in your box? Oh, mostly old university books, some children's toys and a few music albums. Well, we recommend that you purchase insurance to cover yourself in the event of damage or loss. What are my options? We offer three insurance deals. First rate offers full cover in the event of loss damage. Theft is a little expensive, standard rate gives you today's value, a discount fifty percent, and economy rate just covers law saw damage. I'll take the second choice. Will you be needing delivery to your office at your house? Or do you intend to pick up your package from the post office? Home delivery would suit me best, I think. 听下面一段对话，回答第九至第十一小题。Text 7，Cherry, why did you start your cafe? Well, IT was always . my ambition to be working with people. So I got a job in a supermarket after graduation. I noticed that there were lots of school kids coming in to buy snacks and soft drinks and just hanging around. Then I thought they've got too much free time, and they need somewhere they can hang out. So I came up with this idea of a cafe. great. So did you choose the site for your cafe? Because it's between the two schools? Well, that was one consideration, but I thought I was essential to have a place which was a bit bigger than the other cafe in the area. And I found this place with an extra room at the back where customers can go. What do parents think of your cafe? Actually, we haven't got any negative comments. What they really appreciate is that, you know, their kids are in a friendly place where they feel happy. Cherry, why did you start your cafe? Well, IT was . always my ambition to be working with people. So I got a job in a supermarket after graduation. I noticed that there were lots of school kids coming in to buy snacks and soft drinks and just hanging around. Then I thought they've got too much free time, and they need somewhere they can hang out. So I came up with this idea of a cafe. great. So did you choose this site for your cafe? Because it's between the two schools? Well, that was one consideration, but I thought I was essential to have a place which was a bit bigger than the other cafe in the area. And I found this place with an extra room at the back where customers can go. What do parents think of your cafe? Actually, we haven't got any negative comments. What they really appreciate is that, you know, their kids are in a friendly place where they feel happy. 听下面一段独白，回答第十二至第十五小题。Text date Julian rows has appeared in forty four films such as darling lily, victo, Victoria and the princess diaries and countless broadway shows, but IT was her first movie at age twenty one in mary poppins ins. That one her the academy award for best actress and her role as maria in the sound of music, that one, our hearts in twenty twenty SHE was given a special award. The famous AFI life achievement toward her singing, dancing and acting have earned her some awards such as grammies, emi's and osarge and the sound of music, which came out in nineteen and sixty five and remained in theory for a whole year, is still loved by many people worldwide today. You may not believe IT, but he almost didn't get the part of maria in the sound of music until what disney stein director Robert wise had heard of her, but not seen her own film world. Disney generously sent wise a small section of her in a movie, and IT helped Andrews get the role. Also, he is a best selling author. SHE has published over thirty children's books with her daughter. July Andrews has appeared in forty four films such as darling lily, vico, Victoria and the princess diaries and countless broadway shows, but IT was her first movie at age twenty one in mary poppins. Good one her the academy award for best actress and her role as maria in the sound of music, that one our hearts in twenty twenty SHE was given a special award. The famous AFI life achievement toward her singing, dancing and acting have earned her summer awards such as grammies, amies and Oscars. And the sound of music, which came out in nineteen sixty five and remained in theatres for a whole year, is still loved by many people worldwide today. You may not believe IT, but he almost didn't get the part of maria in the sound of music until what disney step in director Robert wise had heard of her, but not seen her own film world. Disney generously send wise a small section of her in a movie, and IT helped Andrews get the role. Also, he is a best selling author. SHE has published over thirty children's books with her daughter. 第二节到此结束。