安徽淮北市濉溪县2025-2026学年度第一学期期末素养评估八年级英语试卷

2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估 八年级英语试题卷 (满分：120分时间：120分钟) 注意事项： 1.本试卷分为选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考 证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号 装 涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3.回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应 位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分） I.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三 订 个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 )1.What plant are they talking about? B )2.What does Tom want to be in.the future? 童 线 ( )3.How does John communicate with Mr.Smith now? A.By making calls.B.By writing letters. C.By sending e-mails. ( )4.What did Andy forget to buy? A.Pepper. B.Butter. C.Cheese, )5.What's the possible relationship between the two speakers? 靠 A.Guide and tourist. B.Doctor and patient. C.Teacher and student. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第1页（共12页） Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三 个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。 ()6.Who is invited to attend the festival? A.Bob's father.B.Bob's teacher. C.Bob's friend. ()7.Where will the festival be held? A.In the library.B.In the school hall.C.In the student centre. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 ()8.When does Peter have his birthday party? A.On Tuesday.B.On Sunday. C.On Saturday. ()9.Why does Peter want to borrow some money? A.To buy a birthday cake. B.To buy drinks and snacks. C.To buy gifts for his friends. ()10.What can we learn from the conversation? A.Peter's mother will help to clean the room. B.Peter's friends will help to clean the room. C.Peter will take out the rubbish before doing homework. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 ()11.How old was Tom when his father died? A.Four. B.Five C.Six. ()12.What did Tom's mother work as in the evening? A.A taxi driver. B.A cleaner in a hotel. C.A waitress in a restaurant. ()13.Which of the following can best describe Tom's mother? A.Friendly. B.Patient. C.Hardworking. ()14.When did Tom start playing basketball? A.In university.B.In primary school.C.In middle school. )15.What can we learn from Tom's story? A.A strong wish can make dreams come true. B.Talented people don't need to practice a lot. C.Hard work and family support can help to achieve dreams. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第2页（共12页） IⅣ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅 填一词。短文读两遍。 Communication We can 16. our ideas and understand each other better. Importance We can get 17. information. 18. carefully,or you may not know what to say next. Think before speaking.Saying the 19 things can hurt a Skills person. Notice others'body language 20. a talk. 第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V.单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳 选项。 ( )21.Use your time and you will find it easy to finish your to-do list. A.easily B.slowly C.wisely D.widely ( )22.-What a great team!Taizhou Team won the big soccer game “Suchao'”. -Exactly!They always work as a team and no one can them. A.weigh B.separate C.achieve D.connect ( )23.Tom used to be afraid of speaking in public,but now he is much more A.shy B.lazy C.humorous D.confident ()24.Liu Chuanjian,a heroic Chinese safely landed the plane after its windshield(挡风玻璃)broke mid-flight. A.pilot B.doctor C.teacher D.scientist ( )25.The little boy didn't stop crying his mother came back home with his favorite toy car. A.until B.since C.while D.when 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第3页（共12页） ()26.-Sally is my best friend.She is always there I'm in trouble. -Yeah.A friend in need is a friend indeed. A.whoever B.wherever C.whatever D.whenever ()27.-If everyone starts to do something,our world nicer and nicer. -I can't agree more. A.becomes B.became C.will become D.is becoming ()28.-Who looked after your sick grandpa in the hospital? -My father did that He didn't want to trouble others. A.in time B.in person C.in public D.in surprise )29.-There a basketball game in our school tomorrow. -That's great! A.is B.is going to be C.is going to have D.will have ()30.-Could you give me a lift to the library? Get in,please. A.Never mind.B.Guess what?C.Go ahead D.With pleasure. Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A As the old saying goes,true friends are hard to find.Linda is a good friend of mine.We met at a 31 club.After introducing ourselves,we found that we had 32 hobbies.We loved helping others and singing,so we quickly became friends.However,there were also 33 and many fights between us sometimes. Once we had an argument 34 the tone()of a song.While I was singing,she would always stop me and correct me.I was very 35 and down.We didn't say a word for a week.During that week,I never found the right tone by 36 A week later,we started practising again.When we listened to the teacher carefully,we suddenly realized that both of us had the wrong tone.We felt very embarrassed.Linda smiled at me and said sorry to me 37 after class.What's more,we finally 38 the right tone of the song together. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第4页（共12页） Since then,we have shared our happiness and sadness with each other in our spare time.We are like family members,and Linda always 39 my heart. In fact,a good 40 needs people's sincere treatment.Only in this way can people overcome any difficulties in life and meet real friends. )31.A.swimming B.dancing C.singing D.reading )32.A.calm B.classic C.creative D.common )33.A.details B.disasters C.differences D.difficulties )34.A.to B.for C.with D.about )35.A.direct B.difficult C.different D.disappointed )36.A.myself B.herself C.himself D.yourself )37.A.surely B.silently C.sincerely D.surprisingly )38.A.came out B.worked out C.looked out D.hung out )39.A.treats B.trains C.teaches D.touches )40.A.singer B.member C.classmate D.friendship 夕 As young students,you have many dreams.These 41 can be very big, such as winning the Nobel Prize.They can also be small.Once you find a dream,what do you 42 it?Do you ever try to make your dream come true? Andrew Mathews,an Australian writer,tells us that making our dreams real is life's biggest challenge.You may think you're not very good at school subjects,or it is 43 for you to become a writer.These kinds of ideas stop you from realizing your dreams. In fact,44 can make his dream come true.Firstly,you must 45 what your dream is.Don't let it 46 your heart.Keep telling yourself what you want every day 47 your dream will come true faster.Secondly,you should know that a big dream is made up of many small dreams.48,you must never give up your dream.There will be barriers()on the way to your dreams. Don't be afraid of them.You need to 49 what is the most important. As you get closer to your dream,your life may change.This is good as you have the 50 to learn something more useful and find new hobbies. 2025-2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第5页（共12页） )41.A.dates B.dreams C.directions D.decisions ( )42.A.do with B.deal with C.dream of D.depend on )43.A.polite B.impolite C.possible D.impossible )44.A.nobody B.someone C.everyone D.something ( )45.A.reply B.remind C.research D.remember )46.A.stay B.leave C.pass D.miss )47.A.or B.but C.and D.because ( )48.A.Firstly B.Secondly C.Thirdly D.Fourthly )49.A.decide B.depend C.develop D.describe )50.A.choice B.change C.chance D.challenge I.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两 个为多余选项。 Lily:Hi,Tom!What do you want to be when you grow up? Tom:Hi,Lily！51 Lily:A botanist?What does a botanist do exactly? Tom:52 I love flowers and trees,and I want to find new ways to grow plants better. Lily:That sounds cool!Why do you choose this job? Tom:53 They provide oxygen()and food.Also,many plants are in danger now.I hope to protect them.What about you? Lily:I want to be a baker.I like making cakes and cookies. Tom:54 Lily:No,I'll open my own small bakery. Tom:Great!Our dreams are both meaningful.55 Lily:OK!I believe we can make it! A.Let's work hard together! B.Will you work in a big bakery? C.I want to be a botanist in the future. D.I want to be a film director in the future. E.Because plants are very important to us. F.How are you going to realize your dream? G.A botanist studies different kinds of plants. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第6页（共12页） 第三部分阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）》 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳 选项。 A Tanghulu was once a simple and classic street snack in Chinese culture. This winter,milk skin tanghulu has become a big hit.It mixes traditional tanghulu with milk skin,a diary product similar to thick cream,and covers them with crisp sugar.Here's how to make the milk skin tanghulu. Ingredients Your favorite fruit,white sugar,water,milk skin,dried yogurt Steps Step 1:Prepare Fruits Wash the fruits.If you use green grapes,cut them in half, carefully pick out the seeds,and put some dried yogurt inside.For fruits like strawberries,dry their surfaces with kitchen paper. Step2:String(串起)Fruits Put the prepared fruits onto skewers(竹签). Step3:Cook Syrup(糖浆) Mix sugar and water in a 2 1 ratio.Pour them into a pot.Bring to a boil over high heat,then turn to low heat.Cook until the syrup turns amber(). Step 4:Combine with Milk Skin Turn the fruit skewers quickly to coat them nicely with the syrup.Then stick them to the milk skin.Let them cool on oiled paper for about ten minutes. )56.How much sugar is needed for 200g water? A.100g. B.200g. C.300g. D.400g. )57.How long should the milk skin tanghulu cool on oiled paper? A.About 5 minutes. B.About 10 minutes. C.About 15 minutes, D.About 20 minutes. )58.Which part of a magazine is the text most probably from? A.Art. B.Life. C.Sports. D.Food. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第7页（共12页） B On December 6th,a 4-year-old boy accidentally fell into an icy lake in Ningxia.At that moment,Li Jiating,a 13-year-old student,was passing by. She noticed the emergency.Without thinking too much,she shouted loudly to the crowd,.“T'm light.Let me save him!” She stepped onto the thin ice and tried to give the boy a long pipe she found nearby.However,the thin ice couldn't bear their weight and broke suddenly, and she fell into the freezing water.Even in the cold water that made her teeth chatter,she still held the pipe with both hands to keep the boy from drifting away.Soon,adults on the bank pulled her out of the water together. When the firefighters arrived,they successfully saved the boy.Li Jiating in her wet clothes left quietly without waiting for thanks.It was not until the video of the rescue()spread online that her family knew the truth. Li Jiating's story moved many people after it was reported.Her act shows that love and courage have no age limit.Let's learn from the brave girl and make our world a warmer and more caring place. ()59.What did Li Jiating use to save the boy at first? A.A long pipe.B.A big stone.C.A long rope.D.A small stick. ()60.What does the underlined word "chatter"in Paragraph 2 mean A.受伤 B.打颤 C.紧闭 D.张开 ()61.Which of the following is TRUE? A.Li Jiating's family knew her act at once. B.Li Jiating waited for thanks after saving the boy. C.The thin ice broke because it couldn't bear their weight. D.The video of Li Jiating saving the boy's life didn't spread online. ()62.What is Li Jiating like according to the passage? A.Shy and quiet. B.Proud and selfish. C.Careless and lazy. D.Brave and helpful. Q In the future,farming will look very different.Thanks to new technology, farmers will use smart machines and data to grow food more easily and quickly. First,robots will help with daily work.These robots can plant seeds, water crops,and even pick fruits and vegetables.They work 24 hours a day without getting tired,so farmers can save time and energy.For example,small robots will check each plant to see if it needs water or fertilizer()If a plant is sick,the robot can tell the farmer right away. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第8页（共12页） Second,drones will fly over fields to take pictures.These pictures help farmers see if crops are healthy.By using technology,farmers can produce more food while protecting the environment. The future of agriculture is exciting.High-tech farming will make food production better,faster and friendlier to our planet. ()63.What will robots do to help the farmers with daily work? ①plant seeds②water crops③make food production pick fruits and vegetables 5fertilize the crops A.①③⑤ B.①②④ C.②③④ D.②④⑤ ()64.What does the underlined word "it"in Paragraph 2 refer to? A.Plant. B.Farmer. C.Robot. D.Seed. )65.What is the main idea of the passage? A.Robots are better than farmers at working. B.Traditional farms will disappear in the future. C.New technology will change farming in the future. D.Drones are the most important technology for farming. D Have you heard the saying "If you fail to plan,you are planning to fail"? Doing planning means creating a timeline and roadmap for reaching the goals. It's one of the most useful skills we should learn. In fact,we all do planning and enjoy the benefits of it in our daily lives, even if we don't realize it.A great example of this is when we plan our holidays. Planning helps us remember what to do and where to go before we leave.By planning ahead,we can enjoy a much better holiday experience. By making a spending plan,we can check.out and stop ourselves from wasting money on unnecessary things.This helps us save money and achieve both big dreams and small wishes. For some people,planning has become an important part of life.Whether it's for studying,working,or achieving personal dreams,a good plan helps us use time wisely and avoid mistakes. Now you see why planning is so important!To get started,you can write down your goals,break them into easier-to-achieve parts,and then start planning how to make them come true.Little by little,your plans will turn your big dreams into real-life achievements! 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第9页（共12页） ()66.How does the writer start the passage? A.By listing numbers. B.By telling a story. C.By asking a question. D.By giving an example. ()67.What is the main idea of the second paragraph? A.Planning is only useful for holidays. B.People never realize they do planning in life. C.Mistakes can't be avoided even with planning. D.People enjoy the benefits of planning in daily lives. ()68.Which of the following can be put in▲？ A.Planning is also widely used for dreams. B.Planning is also widely used for growth. C.Planning is also widely used for communication. D.Planning is also widely used for managing a personal budget(). ()69.Which is the best title for the passage? A.The Methods of Planning B.The Reasons for Planning C.The Examples of Planning D.The Importance of Planning E Do you know a special kind of grass in China?We call it "the pampas grass (蒲苇)”or“the silver grass”.Is the pampas grass silver?No,its leaves are green.They will turn silvery-white when mature(). Pampas grass grows in wetlands and along river banks in China.The suitable growing area for pampas grass in China is between 25-40N and 100-125E.Its long roots can go deep into the soil,which helps hold the soil together and prevent soil erosion(水土t流失).The tall stems and big leaves provide shelter for small birds and insects. Pampas grass can grow up to 3 meters high.It can take in a lot of dust and harmful gases from the air,just like a natural air purifier ()What's more,it has a high photosynthesis rate(光合作用率)一under sunlight,it takes in CO,much faster than many common grasses. But now,because of human activities,the places where pampas grass can grow are becoming smaller and smaller.We should take action to protect this kind of plant. ()70.What is the feature of pampas grass A.Its roots are very short. B.It only grows in dry lands. C.It has tall stems and big leaves. D.It can grow up to 10 meters high. 2025一2026学年度第一学期素养评估八年级英语试题卷第10页（共12页）濉溪县2025-2026学年度第一学期素养评估 八年级英语参考答案 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分) 1-5 CBABC 6-10ABCBA 11-15 BCCBC 16.share 17.useful 18.Listen 19.wrong 20.during 第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V.单项选择（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 21-25 CBDAA 26-30 DCBBD V1.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分) 31-35 CDCDD 36-40 ACBDD 41-45 BADCD 46-50 BCCAC VⅡ.补全对话（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 51-55 CGEBA 第三部分阅读（共两节，满分40分) VⅢ.阅读理解（共20小题：每小题2分，满分40分) 56-58 DBD 59-62 ABCD 63-65 BAC 66-69 CDDD 70-72CAC 73.Because of its courage and strength./Its courage and strength 74.If it can fly like the eagle,everyone will admire it too. 75.Being yourself is better than copying others..(言之有理即可。) 第四部分写（共两大题，满分25分) X.单词拼写（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 76.tool 77.mess 78.tasks 79.personal 80.accept X。书面表达（共1小题：满分20分） One possible version My New Year's Resolutions in 2026 At the beginning of 2026,I want to make my New Year's resolutions to realize my dreams. First,I want to improve my English.I'm going to study hard and make a weekly plan, like remembering ten new words every day.I will ask my teacher for help when I have problems.Second,I'm going to build better relationship with my classmates and family.I will be more patient and kind when communicating with others.What'more,I'm going to learn some life skills,such as cooking steamed fish and beef with black pepper.Besides,I will clean my room by myself. To make these goals come true,I will keep working hard and stick to my plans.I believe with my effort,I can make 2026 a meaningful year. --作文评分标准- 第五档（很好）：(17~20分) 涵盖所有内容要求，运用较多的语法结构和词汇，语言基本无误，有效地使用了语句间的连 接成分，使全文结构紧凑，内容充实，体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑，具备了较强的语言运用 能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（好）：(13~16分) 涵盖所有内容要求，运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，有少量错误，但不影响对所 写内容的理解，运用了简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯、完整，表达清楚，基本达到了 预期的写作目的。 第三档（一般）：(912分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务，运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求，有一些错误，但 不影响对所写内容的理解，内容不够连贯，信息基本可以传达。 第二档（较差）：(58分) 明显漏掉主要内容，语法结构简单，词汇贫乏，有较多的错误，影响对所写内容的理解，缺乏 语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯，信息未能清楚传达。 第一档（差）：(04分) 明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，有大量的错误，所写内容无法理解，信息未能传达。 --听力原文- I.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个 选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍 1.M:What is one of the fastest-growing plants? W:The bamboo.And it is the food for pandas. 2.W:Hi,Tom!Do you want to be a cook in the future? M:No,my father wants me to be a doctor.But I want to be a fireman 3.W:How do you communicate with Mr.Smith,John? M:In the past,I wrote letters to him.But now I call him every week. 4.M:Hi,Andy!What did you buy yesterday W:I bought some pepper and cheese,but I forgot to buy some butter for making bread 5.M:Sorry,Mrs Li.I can't work out this math problem.It's too difficult. W:Don't worry.I'll help you with it after class. Ⅱ长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个 选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。 W:Hello.Is that Bob's father? M:Yes.Who's that? W:This is Bob's teacher.I'd like to invite you to attend our School Festival. Do you have time this Monday morning M:Sure.Where will it be held? W:In the school hall M:OK.I'll be there on time. W:Looking forward to your coming. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 M:Mum,could I invite my friends to my birthday party on Saturday? W:Of course,Peter!That sounds great. M:Could I borrow some money? W:What for? M:Well,I'm going to buy some drinks and snacks W:Ok.Oh,could you clean your room for your party M:OK,but I need to do my homework first. W:Certainly!After finishing your homework,let's clean the room together. I can sweep the floor. M:OK.I can take out the rubbish Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 My name is Tom.I'm fifteen years old.I grew up in a poor family.My father died ten years ago.In order to support my family,my mother had to do two jobs.During the daytime,she worked as a cleaner in a hotel.In the evening,she worked as a waitress in a restaurant In order to provide better living environment for us,she hardly ever rested.Though my sister and I didn't get what we wanted,we always got the things we needed.While I growing up,I dreamed about what I would be.At first,I wanted to be a football player.But when I started playing basketball in my primary school,I fell in love with this sport.From then on,my mother often took me to the basketball training and I spent most of my time practicing it.Finally,I became a successful basketball player.While others were looking up to the popular stars,my mom was my hero.She taught me that hard work is the best way to get what you want. IV.信息转换（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一 词。短文读两遍。 Communication is very important for all of us.We can share our ideas with others, and understand each other better after a good talk.We can also get useful information.For example,when we want to buy something we need,we can ask our parents or friends for some information. So we need to leamn how to communicate.Here are some skills.First,listen carefully. You have to listen carefully,or you may not know what to say next.Second,take time to think before speaking.Saying the wrong things can hurt a person.Third,speaking is not the only way of communication.You should notice others'body language during a talk.