福建厦门市同安区2025-2026学年八年级上学期期末英语试卷

2025-2026学年第一学期初二期末练习 英 语 参 考 答 案 1-5 BBBAA 6-10 ACBCC 11-15 CCAAB 16-20 CACBA 21-25 BABBC 26-27 CA 28-35 CABBAACB 36-39 BAAC 40-43 CCDA 44-47 BDBD * 下列主观题可能存在多种答案，应尽量减少不影响交际功能的非关键性错误的扣分。 48. Friday 49. popular 50. games 51. five/5 52. Sit 53. Point out 54. deeper learning 55. a further question / further questions 56. understand 57. Could you sweep the floor? 58. Where did you go on holiday? 59. There will be more people in cities. 60. How do you plan to do that? 61. The blue whale is the largest animal in the world. 62. Thanks!/ Thank you! 63. Good idea. / That sounds great. / Sounds great. / That’s great. / OK. / Good. / Sure. / Yes. / Great. 64. How much / How many spoons of 65. What do you want to be 66. How nice / What a nice hat 67. Its 68. powerful 69. used 70. of 71. an 72. faster 73. realizing 74. colors 75. and 76. happily 77. I went to the museum yesterday. / I visited the museum yesterday. 78. Ella is taller than Lily. 79. Tom does the dishes every day. / Tom washes the dishes every day. 80. If it is sunny, I will climb the mountains./ If it is sunny, I will go to the mountains./ If it is sunny, I will go hiking. 81. 书面表达 (参考范文) Hello everyone, I’m very glad to be here today to share my resolutions for 2026. My first resolution has to do with physical health. In order to become stronger, I’m going to exercise more. I will start jogging every morning. It will not only make me healthier but also keep me energetic. Besides, I will have a more balanced eating habit to keep fit. My second resolution is about study. I plan to worker harder. I’ll manage my time more wisely and go over each subject every day. I believe it’s the key to improving my grades. Last but not least, I will take up painting. It will help me express my feelings. By sticking to these resolutions, I believe I’ll become better and happier in the coming year. Thank you! 第一档(13-15分): 主题意义明确，词句表达准确、流畅，基本无语法错误； 第二档(9-12分)：主题意义相对合理，词句表达基本准确，顺畅，有少量语法错误； 第三档(5-8分)：主题意义不够完整、统一，词句表达有较多语法错误； 第四档(0-4分)：主题意义散乱，词句表达的语法错误很多。 2025-2026学年第一学期初二期末练习 英 语 听 力 材 料 第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。（每个句子读两遍） 1. The elephant is my favorite animal. 2. Cut the tomato into pieces. 3. Ella takes out the rubbish after dinner. 4. I want to be a fireman one day. 5. Jason often goes jogging at the weekend. 第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 M: Alice, how are you different from your twin sister Amy? W: Amy is very funny while I’m quiet and shy. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 M: Mom, will we drive the car or take the train to Shanghai? W: We will take the plane. The air tickets are cheap now. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 M: The floor is so clean! How often do you sweep it, Helen? W: I sweep the floor every Monday and Thursday. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 M: It’s half past five now. When shall we leave for Linda’s home? W: Let’s leave 30 minutes later. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 W: Hi, Jack. I heard you went to Yunnan last holiday. M: Yes. It was really fantastic.  W: Did you go with your parents or friends?  M: I went with my elder sisters.  W: Anything special? M: Yes. We visited old towns and tried local food. And what excited me most was climbing Yulong Mountain. W: What a nice holiday! 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 W: Look at these flying cars! I think everyone can drive flying cars someday. M: I agree. And human-like robots are over there! They are doing housework and cooking meals. W: Wow! I think every family will have their own robots. M: Robots might even look after people one day. W: Cool. Our life will be much easier. M: Yes. This science show makes me excited about the future. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 M: Susan, I don’t know which club to join. Do you have any advice? W: You can choose the cooking club with me. I learned to make fruit salad yesterday. M: Sounds interesting. What are you going to make next? W: We plan to make beef dumplings and chicken soup next Wednesday. M: Really? I’d like to try. W: OK. Let’s meet at the school kitchen at 4:00 p.m. M: See you then! 第三节 听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍） Good morning, boys and girls. Here is a notice about the School Talk Day. The event will take place at 9 a.m. this Friday at the school hall. We are excited to invite a popular professor to give the speech on teenagers’ communication skills. And we will play some group games to practice your communication skills. After that, we will ask five students to share their ideas about the topic. Here are some rules for you. Please sit quietly during the event. After it is over, you may leave class by class. We hope everyone can learn something useful in the event. 1 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $厦门市同安区 2025-2026学年第一学期八年级期宋阶段练习 英 语 注意： 本试卷考试时长120分钟，总分150分。分为两大部分，第一部分（1-47小题) 为选择题，答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上：第二部分为非选择题，答案用0.5毫米 的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上， 第一部分（选择题） I.听力（共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每 个句子读两遍) 2 A. B A B 稱 3. A B C. 4 A B 5. A. B 英语试题第1页（共10页) 第二节听下面7段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。 (每段对话读两遍) 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 6.What is Amy like? A.Funny. B.Quiet. C.Shy. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 7.How will the speakers go to Shanghai? A.By car. B.By train. C.By plane. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8.How often does Helen sweep the floor? A.Once a week. B.Twice a week C.Three times a week. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 9.When will the speakers leave? A.At5:00. B.At5:30. C.At6:00. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 10.Who did Jack go to Yunnan with? A.Parents. B.Friends. C.Sisters. 11.What excited Jack most? A.Visiting old towns.B.Trying local food. C.Climbing Yulong Mountain. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12.What does the boy predict robots will do in the future? A.Do housework. B.Cook meals C.Look after people. 13.Where are the speakers now? A.At a science show.B.At a robot shop C.At a car factory. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14.What did Susan make yesterday? A.Fruit salad. B.Beef dumplings C.Chicken soup. 15.What's the relationship between the two speakers? A.Father and daughter.B.Classmates. C.Teacher and student. 第三节根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空一词。（短文读三遍） School Talk Day Time&Place At 9 a.m.this 48 at the school hall A speech from a 49 professor. Activities Group 50 Idea sharing from 51 students. 米 52 Rules quietly. Leave class by class. 英语试题第2页（共10页） Ⅱ.语言知识应用（共两节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节单项选择从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最 佳答案。 16.The fantastic film Nobody came out August 2nd,2025. A.from B.at C.on 17.Believe in yourself. is impossible if you keep trying and never give up A.Nothing B.Anything C.Everything 18.一Mom, I hang out with Peter after dinner? -Sure,get home early. A.should B.must C.could 19.Teenagers should plan their time to balance studies,hobbies and rest. A.heavily B.wisely C.quickly 20.Chinese workers the Great Wall over two thousand years ago. A.built B.build C.will build 21.Saying sorry is the first step if you want to with a friend. A.cut up B.make up C.pack up 22.This little toy car always reminds me of my childhood. -Yes,some old things keep our lively. A.memories B.secrets C.tools 23.Are you feeling better today? -No,even than yesterday.I need to see a doctor now. A.bad B.worse C.worst 24.Zhang Zhanshuo his dream by winning the men's 400m swimming race in 2025. A.researched B.achieved C.described 25. my grandma is 70 years old,she still sticks to swimming every day. A.Because B.If C.Though 26.I lost my wallet but luckily I found it back. A.in person B.on time C.by accident 27.-I am so nervous about the English singing competition. You can make it. A.Don't worry B.With pleasure C.You're welcome 英语试题第3页（共10页) 第二节完形填空从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 By the door,Leo's old running shoes sat quietly.He was a 28 on the school team.His teammate once said,"Put on your left shoe first. People say it brings good luck."Leo tried it before a race,and he ran his best time.From then on,left shoe first wasn't just a habit but a way to keep the day 29 On a rainy morning,Leo put on his left shoe first,just as he always did.While the team was training,a car crashed into the field.Leo was badly hurt and later 30 one of his legs. Days and weeks passed in the hospital.Recovery (was not easy.People clapped when Leo could finally eat by31.When he stood on an artificial leg for the first time,the room clapped.From standing to moving straight 32 every step was hard.He still kept his old habit-the left shoe first.Even though the foot could no longer feel it. After practicing so much,Leo 33 running again.His artificial leg hit (the ground as he moved.It hurt a lot,34 he didn't stop.After Leo crossed the finish line,he smiled brightly and looked down at his shoes.The habit was still there,but it's different now.This time he didn't put on his left shoe first for luck but to35 again. For Leo,one round ended,but the next was just beginning. 28.A.teacher B.doctor C.runner 29.A.lucky B.busy C.challenging 30.A.touched B.lost C.showed 31.A.yourself B.himself C.herself 32.A.slowly B.easily C.seriously 33.A.took up B.depended on C.believed in 34.A.or B.until C.but 35.A.pull B.start C.rest Ⅲ.阅读理解（共两节，16小题，每小题2分，满分32分） 第一节阅读以下A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C三个 选项中，选出最佳答案。（每小题2分，满分24分） 英语试愿第4页（共10页) A Welcome to Green Land Zoo Opening Closing Hours Weekdays:9:00a.m.一6：00p.m. Weekends Holidays:8:30 a.m.-7:00 p.m. Zoo Map Special Activities Keeper Talks G (at Education Area) Elephant Learn great f facts about BIrds' Monkey animals from experienced House Horse zookeepers！Each day,we introduce a different star, from lions to giant pandas! Seal Glant 0222 Educatlon Panda Area Animal Feeding (at Kid's Farm) Get close to farm animals Bear Kld's Farm Uon &TIger like goats,rabbits and ducks! Our staff(员工)will guide you on how to safely feed A WARNING them 1.Don't feed animals with your own food. 2.Don't use flash(闪光灯)when taking photos of the animals.. 3.You can only touch animals with the help of zookeepers. 36.When can visitors get into the zoo on weekends? A.8:00a.m. B.830a.m. C.730p.m. D.8:30p.m, 37.Where is the Birds'House? A.Next to the Elephant Area. B.In the East of the zoo. C.Between the Monkey and Bear Area. D.In the South of the zoo. 38.What can visitors do in the zoo? A.Learn facts about pandas. B.Feed lions with their own food. C.Take photos using flash. D.Touch rabbits without keepers. 39.Where does the text most probably come from? A.A novel. B.A storybook. C.A guidebook. D.A science magazine. 英语试题第5页（共10页） B When I was a kid,I enjoyed rcading books of Harry Potter.When I got older,I stopped reading.I would only look up book summarics() onlinc for exams instcad of rcading the wholc books.Therc was always somcthing to be busy with. tT But one day I walked into BookPeople,a local bookstore.On the wall above the Classics Area,I saw a saying from Mark Twain:"A classic is a book which people praisc and don't read."Suddenly,I felt a sense of shame.I realized that I was one of thosc people who didn't really read the classics.I thought about all the books I'd never read in high school.What made them classics?Standing under Mark Twain's words,I decided to start reading again. I began exploring from Homer's old stories,Hemingway's novels to Shakespeare's plays.I'm not trying to show off how many books I've read.Instead,I'd like to share how these books have changed me.My vocabulary grows richer.My talks are more thoughtful. I can share better ideas on social and historical events.Most importantly,these books give me a clearer view of life and people.I benefit a lot from them. I may never read every book in that Classics Area.But the idea that there's always another book to read-and another part of my mind waiting to be inspired () excites me.It also gives me a bit more direction in life. 40.The writer stopped reading when he got older because he A.didn't have any books B.didn't like reading C.was busy with other things D.was too old to read 41.What does the underlined word"shame"mean in Paragraph 2? A.Feeling proud. B.Feeling bored. C.Feeling sorry. D.Feeling nervous. 42.What was the writer's most important change through reading classics? A.Richer vocabulary. B.More thoughtful talks. C.Better ideas on events. D.Clearer views of life and people. 43.What is the main purpose of this passage? A.To encourage us to read classic books. B.To help us know about local bookstores. C.To let us know the real meaning of life. D.To share interesting stories of famous writers. 英语试愿第6页（共10页） C In November 2025,astronauts on China's Tiangong space station did something new.They had a special reunion meal'”一space barbecue（烧烤).But space barbecuc is not easy to achieve.There are two challenges standing in the way. The first challenge is heat.On Earth,hot air is light and it can rise easily.This helps ovens bake food.But in space,there is zero gravity ()Hot air does not rise.It just stays near the heater.This makes it very,very slow to cook anything.The second challenge is smoke and oil.When you cook,small particles (of oil and smoke go into the air.In zero gravity,these particles don't fall.They spread everywhere.They can block the station's important air cleaning screens and are bad for the astronauts'health. This is very dangerous. So,Chinese engineers built a"magic oven".It has a fan inside.The fan drives the hot air to move around,just like on Earth.It also has a special"closed system"inside.It sucks up (all the dangerous smoke and oil right away.It cleans the air,so only clean air comes out.Thanks to this smart oven,the astronauts cooked their chicken wings in just 28 minutes.They could finally enjoy the smell of fresh-cooked food,a real taste of home,far away in space. Space barbecue is not just a delicious food but also a symbol of the progress in China's space technology.From "toothpaste-like food"to space barbecue,China's space food has developed a lot.We believe China's space station will bring more surprises in the future. 44.How many big challenges are there for having a space barbecue? A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four. 45.What does the underlined word"they'in Paragraph2 refer to(指代)？ A.Chicken wings. B.Air-cleaning screens. C.Chinese Astronauts. D.Oil and smoke particles. 46.What does the"magic oven"do with the dangerous smoke and oil? A.It mixes them with the hot air. B.It collects them and cleans the air. C.It blows them out of the station. D.It uses them to keep the oven warm. 47.What can be the best title for the text? A.The Importance of Space Food B.The Challenges of Space Barbecue C.A New Way to Bake Chicken Wings D.A New Step in China's Space Technology 英语试嗯邻7页（共10页） 第二部分（非选择题） 第二节阅读短文，完成表格内容，每空不超过三个词。（每小题2分，满分8分） D Asking qucstions is a superpower for leaming.If you want to learn bettcr and dceper, lcarning how to ask better questions is the key,Here arc some tips. Be Specific(确切的)and Clear Instead of asking"I don't get it.Can you cxplain again?",try to point out the part that confuscs(使.困惑)you.For cxamplc,,“I understand the first step,could you explain how to go from stcp two to step three?"This makes it easier for others to give you a useful answer. Show What You've Tried Before asking for help,share what you've already thought or done.Say "I tried to solve it by using the formula ()but it doesn't work.Did I use the wrong formula?" This shows your effort and helps the helper find your exact problem. Ask "Why'and“How”,Not Just“What" Don't just stop at simple fact-finding.For example,after asking "What's the capital of France?”,you can then ask“Why did Paris become the political(政治的)center of France?"Questions starting with "why"and "how"push you to understand reasons and processes,leading to deeper learning. Listen and Build on the Answer A good question starts a conversation,not ends it.After you get an answer,you can then ask a further question like"If that's true,does it mean that...?"It helps you pay close attention and connect new ideas to what you've already know. Keep practicing,and you'll turn qucstioning into a useful tool for deeper learning and understanding. Ways on Asking Better Questions ★ 53 the part that confuses you. Tips *Before asking,let the helper find your exact problem. ★Asking“Why'and“How'questions can lead to 54 *After you get an answer,you can ask 55 Benefit Asking good questions help you learn and 56 more deeply. V.书面表达 (共五节，满分58分) 第一节连词成句。（每小题2分，满分10分） 57.floor,the,sweep,you,could 58.did,go,where,you,holiday,on 59.more,will,there,people,be,cities,in 英语试咫第8页（共10页） 60.you,plan,do,that,how,to,do 61,blue,is,whale,largest,the,animal,the,in,world,the 第二节情景交际 根据情境提示，用得体的英语完成下列对话。（每小题2分，满 分10分) 62.A:Congratulations on winning the prizel B: 63.A:Let's go to the supermarket. B: I want to buy some food. 64.A: butter do we need? B:We need one tablespoon of butter. 65.A: when you grow up? B:I want to be a fashion designer 66.A:Look!This is my new hat. B: it is! 第三节短文填空根据语境或具体提示填空，完成短文。（每小题1.5分，满分15分） In December,2025,China Central Television introduced the logo (for the 2026 Spring Festival Gala!67(it)topic this year is“Galloping Steed,,Onward Unstoppable(骐骥驰骋，势不 之 2026 中广的电现B日 可挡)”. 春节联欢晚会 Look at the logo-can you see the four 68(power)horses running together? The artists studied traditional art and69(use)designs such as clouds to create the shapes then.When you put the horses side by side,it feels like thousands 70 horses running forward,full of power and movement! The idea comes from71 ancient Chinese poem.There is a Chinese term"Qi Ji"in the poem."Qi Ji"means a"thousand-mile horse"known for its 72 (fast) speed(速度)than common horses..interestingly,“QiJi”sounds very similar to the Chinese word for"miracle ()."This clever wordplay expresses a strong wish to make great achievements.It also shows confidence in 73(realize)national goals.The logo's 74(color)are also meaningful.Bright red is for good luck 75 shining gold is for a bright future.The design encourages people to live 76 (happy)and make their dreams come true. With such a lively logo,the 2026 Spring Festival Gala is ready to bring joy,courage and great wishes to Chinese families all over the world! 英语试题第9页（共10页） 第四节看图写话根据所给图片和提示词，写出正确的句式表达。 (每小题2分，满分8分) Tom Ella Lily ∠MUSEUM 77.yesterday 78.than 79.every day 80.if,sunny 77. 78. 79. 80 第五节书面表达（满分15分） 近日学校英文社正在举办以New Year,,New Me'”为主题的演讲活动。请你结合以下图 示写一篇演讲稿，介绍你的新年决心和具体行动，并说明理由，词数80左右。 Actions:exercise more Health Reasons:to be stronger Actlons:work harder Study Rca5005: Actlon5:… Hobby Reasons:.. 注意事项： 1.必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数： 2.意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范； 3.请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。 My Resolutions for 2026 Hello everyone!I am very glad to be here today to share my resolutions for 2026. Thank you. 试题结束，请认真检查！ 英语试题第10页（共10页) 2025-2026 学年第一学期初二期末练习 (英语评分参考） * 书写题部分，视学生答题情况，还有未能罗列之答案，评分标准统一即可 (48-52题要么得0分, 要么得1.5分) 48. Friday (F 小写不得分) 49. popular 50. games 51. five/5 52. Sit（小写不扣分） * 任务型阅读 D 篇 53. Point out /Try pointing out（P 没大写不扣分，单词拼写错误扣 1 分） 2 分 2 分 54. deeper learning 1 分 1 分 55. a further question / further questions 1 分 1 分 1 分 1 分 56. understand 2分 * 连词成句 多词少词每处扣 0.5 分 57. Could you sweep the floor? 1 分 1 分 58. Where did you go on holiday? 0.5 分 0.5 分 1 分 59. There will be more people in cities. 1分 0.5分 0.5分 60. How do you plan to do that? 1分 0.5分 0.5分 61. The blue whale is the largest animal in the world. 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 * 情景交际 62. Thanks! / Thank you!（写到 thank 给 1 分） 2 分 2 分 63. Good idea. / That sounds great. / That’s great. / OK. / Good. / Sure./ Sounds great. / Yes./ Great. 2 分 1 分 1 分 1 分 1 分 2 分 2 分 2 分 1 分 1 分 2 分 2 分 64. How much / How many spoons of （写 how many 给 1 分） 2 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 65. What do you want to be 0.5 分 0.5 分 1 分 66. How nice / What a nice hat （形容词言之有理即可） 1 分 1 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 * 短文填空 67. Its 68. powerful 69. used 70. of 71. an 72. faster 73. realizing 74. colors 75. and 76. happily (各题要么得0分, 要么得1.5分。) * 看图写话 没用提示词每处扣 0.5 分 ，写到提示词给 0.5 分（本次鼓励学生不放空） ( 77. I went to the museum yesterday / I visited the museum yesterday. 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 78. Ella is taller than Lily. 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 79. Tom does the dishes every day. / Tom washes the dishes every day. （没有三单 -0.5 ） 0.5 分 1 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 1 分 0.5 分 80. If it is sunny, I will climb the mountains. / go to the mountains./go hiking. 1 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 If the weather is sunny, I will climb the mountains. / go to the mountains. /go hiking. 1 分 0.5 分 0.5 分 ) 81. 书面表达 第一档(13- 15 分): 主题意义明确，词句表达准确、流畅，基本无语法错误； 第二档(9- 12 分)：主题意义相对合理，词句表达基本准确，顺畅，有少量语法错误； 第三档(5-8 分)：主题意义不够完整、统一，词句表达有较多语法错误； 第四档(0-4 分)：主题意义散乱，词句表达的语法错误很多。 * ①3 个要点每个 4 分，其中 resolution（health, study, hobby) 占 1 分，action 占 2 分，reason 占 1分。每个要点都有写到，并能成句成篇才能给到 12 分。 ②若仅简单抄写题目框内词汇（如：Health, exercise more, to be stronger），未能组织成连贯句子和篇章，则每个要点最多给 1 分，总分最高不超过 3 分。抄了能成句，不能成篇，最多6 分。 ③遗漏一个要点（学习，健康，爱好）扣 4 分。 *词数过多或过少应酌情减分。 参考范文 Hello everyone, I’m very glad to be here today to share my resolutions for 2026. My first resolution has to do with physical health. In order to become stronger, I’m going to exercise more. I will start jogging every morning. It will not only make me healthier but also keep me energetic. Besides, I will have a more balanced eating habit to keep fit. My second resolution is about study. I plan to worker harder. I’ll manage my time more wisely and go over each subject every day. I believe it’s the key to improving my grades. Last but not least, I will take up painting. It will help me express my feelings. By sticking to these resolutions, I believe I’ll become better and happier in the coming year. Thank you! 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $