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儋州黄冈实验学校
2025-2026学年第一学期高二英语期末考试题
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When is Grandpa's birthday?
A. On May 6. B. On May 7. C. On May 8.
2. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Attend classes. B. Hunt for a job. C. Stay at home.
3. Where will the man probably go for the holiday?
A. Toronto. B. London. C. His hometown.
4. Where are the speakers?
A. On an airplane. B. In a boat. C. On the ground.
5. What happened to Peter's bike?
A. A tree fell onto it. B. Someone stole it. C. It got broken.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Which bus goes to River Drive?
A. No.6. B. No.14. C. No.16.
7. What will the woman ask the bus driver about?
A. The ticket price.
B. Where to change buses.
C. How to get change.
听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Father and daughter.
9. What may the weather be like today?
A. Foggy and cold. B. Rainy and warm. C. Cloudy and windy.
听下面一段对话,回答第10至12三个小题。
10. When will the man return?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday.
11. What do we know about the man's journey?
A. He can enjoy a video program.
B. Drinks are not allowed.
C. A lunch will be served.
12. How much will the man pay for his tickets?
A. $425. B. $815. C. $850.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至16四个小题。
13. How long has the woman been in hospital?
A. For one week. B. For ten days. C. For two weeks.
14. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At home. B. In a hospital. C. In an office.
15. What's the doctor's suggestion for the woman?
A. Having medical checks regularly.
B. Coming to the hospital every day.
C. Avoiding any physical exercise.
16. How does the woman sound?
A. Grateful. B. Annoyed. C. Puzzled.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至20四个小题。
17. What did Clara do during the Civil War?
A. She joined the army.
B. She helped the wounded.
C. She urged people to stop the war.
18. Why did Clara lead a group after the Civil War?
A. To collect money.
B. To set up the Red Cross.
C. To search for missing soldiers.
19. When did Clara return from Switzerland?
A. In 1873. B. In 1881. C. In 1912.
20. How old was Clara when she started the American Red Cross?
A. 52 years old. B. 60 years old. C. 91 years old.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
A
Activities For Families with Children
There are plenty of things to do and see around Cusco, Peru that children will enjoy.
Horse riding
Many children will enjoy the opportunity to ride a horse. The Happy Ranch horse farm organizes horse rides through the countryside passing wheat fields and small towns, wooden huts, open air markets and cooking outside over a fire. Price for a horse ride is US $ 12 per person.
Cooking class
If you enjoy local food, taking a cooking class could be fun. Several restaurants offer classes, which start with a visit to a local market to buy fresh ingredients (原料). Wearing a cook’s hat, children can help washing and cutting. Prices for a 3 hours class start at US $ 13 per person.
Hot air balloon
A hot air balloon ride will give you great views of the city. The balloon goes up about 200 meters if weather conditions are OK, less if conditions are windy. The balloon will stay at that altitude for about 10 minutes. Prices are US $ 20 for an adult, half price for children.
Ceramics class
A fun activity for kids is taking a ceramics class at the Fine Arts Center. With the help of an experienced potter, kids can make their own creation on the potter’s wheel from clay. The basic clay class costs US $15 per person and takes 1.5 hours.
1. Which activity takes you to view Cusco’s village life?
A. Horse riding. B. Cooking class. C. Hot air balloon. D. Ceramics class.
2. What can we know about cooking classes?
A. It takes a family of three US $ 13 to take one. B. Visitors prepare ingredients by themselves.
C They are usually offered by cooking schools. D. Children take part in the whole cooking process.
3 How much does it take a couple with a kid to ride a hot air balloon?
A. US $ 20. B. US $ 40. C. US $ 50. D. US $ 60.
B
Have you ever been in a sports field when the crowd is so loud that it shakes the structure of the stands (看台)? Have you ever thought of using the loud noise? When watching an NBA game in the sports gym, Lily Min, a senior school student in Lake Charles, wondered if you could turn the noise into a power source.
Lily Min was inspired by Pixar’s film Monsters, Inc. Two monsters (怪兽) provide the electric power to a world of monsters by using children’s screams. She even designed a collection system that could possibly turn noise into usable energy.
To test her theory, she built a 22x12-inch size model of a typical sports field. She then played sounds at either 70 decibels (分贝) or 100 decibels like the noise in the sports field. The experiment’s equipment wasn’t good enough, unfortunately, and the amounts of electricity gathered were small. Lily found that with more advanced equipment and on a larger size, enough power could be produced.
Lily says, “Turning sound into electrical energy makes a great contribution to reducing the energy use of a typical sports field. In addition, in cities with heavy traffic, the loud noise from vehicles like cars and buses could be used to produce electricity, contributing to the energy needs of city development. Many factories, which often have continuous noise, could catch and change these sounds into electrical energy, thus reducing their total energy consumption (消耗).”
4. What really inspired Lily to turn sound into energy?
A. A science experiment.
B. A movie called Monsters, Inc.
C. A basketball match.
D. A visit to a sports field.
5. What was the purpose of Lily’s experiment?
A. To make noise in the sports field.
B. To test how loudly crowds can shout.
C. To find more advanced equipment.
D. To prove noises can be changed into electricity.
6. Where might Lily’s idea be applied?
A. Schools and libraries.
B. Factories and busy streets.
C. Gardens and hotels.
D. Cinemas and museums.
7. Which of the following best describes Lily?
A. Curious and creative.
B. Honest and confident.
C. Brave and responsible.
D. Careful and generous.
C
The future home is something that people have talked about for decades. Because the future home idea inspires our imagination. Scientists and engineers have been working hard to develop different systems to make houses “smarter”.
The video camera at the entrance recognizes visitors using facial recognition software. The facial recognition software of the future home will not only recognize friends, but strangers as well. And the software in your future home will run the strangers’ faces against a database of criminals.
The future home will also have smart appliances (家电) as well. There will be a vast networking system connecting them. Ovens, microwaves and refrigerators will be controlled automatically (自动地), so remote cooking will be a possibility and meals are prepared for your arrival.
There will also be green systems in place such as saving and reusing wash water and bath water Plants and people may receive pure or mineralized drinking water.
If you think this future home idea is pie in the sky or science fiction, then think again. Most of the systems described here are either in development or already out on the market. Future homes may not be standard yet for the middle class but this isn’t as far ahead as many people would think.
8. What can the facial recognition software be used for in future homes?
A. Greeting friends. B. Collecting visitors’ information.
C. Recognizing visitors. D. Following dangerous criminals.
9. Which of the following indicates the future house is environment-friendly?
A. Facial recognition software. B. Remote cooking.
C Smart refrigerators. D. Saving and reusing water.
10. What does the underlined word “standard” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Popular. B. Common. C. Special. D. Great
11. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Smart Future Home B. A Smart Networking System
C. Software in Future Home D. Various Household Appliances
D
Learning a new language is often seen as hard work. Students sit for hours trying to memorize long word lists and difficult grammar rules. It feels boring. Young children seem to pick up languages easily, but teenagers and adults often hit a wall. They study hard, yet new words still won’t come out, and anxiety grows.
New research suggests the answer may lie not just in the brain, but in the body — an idea called “embodied cognition (具身认知).” A recent study found that students who use gestures while learning make much more progress than those using passive (被动的) methods like silent reading or listening.
But the gesture must match the word’s meaning. For example, when learning “throw,” students moved their arms as if throwing a ball. Those who acted out words remembered nearly 30% more vocabulary over time. However, random (随机的) movements — like waving a hand with no meaning — didn’t help at all. Scientists explain that meaningful movement creates stronger memory paths in the brain, making comeback easier later.
This challenges many popular language-learning apps. Though convenient, they usually turn learning into quiet screen-tapping, missing the physical connection that helps memory. Just as a pianist remembers music through finger movements, language learners remember words better when they “feel” them with their bodies.
Still, scientists warn that movement isn’t a solution for all. “Gestures are powerful for vocabulary, but they can’t take the place of grammar practice,” says one researcher Donn Brown. “This research is a wake-up call: our classrooms are too quiet and too still. We need to get students out of their seats. To improve learning, we must let our bodies move.”
In short, connecting action with language learning helps the brain remember better — but it works best when the movement is meaningful and is used together with other study methods.
12. Why does the author mention teenagers and adults in Paragraph 1?
A. To blame them for being lazy. B. To compare them with young kids.
C. To suggest their poor learning ability. D. To show problems in traditional methods.
13. How do gestures help memory according to the text?
A. By making learning less boring. B. By improving blood flow to brains.
C. By connecting meaning with action. D. By using apps while making movement.
14. What is Donn Brown’s attitude towards using gestures in learning?
A. She thinks it the only way to learn well.
B. She supports it to make classrooms active.
C She worries it might be too tiring for students.
D. She believes it is useless for learning grammar.
15. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Gestures solve all language learning problems.
B. Language apps are doing more harm than good.
C. Traditional classrooms limit students’ creativity.
D. Physical movement improves vocabulary memory.
第二节(共5小题,每小题2.5分,共12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Nature comforts our stressed-out souls. We know that nature is the best prescription, and new research suggests we can gain benefits while visiting parks. ____16____ The study published in the International Journal of Environmental Health Research found that spending 20 minutes in a city park can make you happier, regardless of whether you use that time to exercise or not.
“In general, we found park visitors reported an improvement in emotional well-being after the park visit,” the study’s lead author, Professor Hon K. Yuen at the University of Alabama at Birmingham said in a statement. “____17____ Instead, we found time spent in the park is related to improved emotional well-being.”
For the study, 94 adults visited three city parks in Mountain Brook, Alabama. ____18____ They also completed a questionnaire about their subjective well-being before and after their visit. A visit of between 20 and 25 minutes showed the best results, with a roughly 64% increase in the participants’ self-reported well-being, even if they didn’t move a great deal in the park. ____19____
The study group was truly small, as the study’s co-author and another UAB professor, Gavin Jenkins, acknowledged. ____20____ The challenge facing cities is that there is increasing evidence about the value of city parks but we continue to see the decrease of these spaces.
A. The length of their physical activity was tracked.
B. You usually visit a small green space in your neighborhood.
C. However, its findings pointed out the importance of city parks.
D. If you want to feel happier, you just need to exercise for 20 minutes in a park.
E. The best part of it is that you needn’t visit a national park or go far out of your way.
F. This means people can benefit from visiting a nearby park, regardless of physical ability.
G. But we didn’t find levels of physical activity are linked to improved emotional well-being.
第三部分 语言运用(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,共15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Many years ago, there was a young boy named Daniel who lived in a small village. He was a gifted student with a passion ____21____ science, but he faced a significant ____22____: his family was too poor to afford the necessary equipment and resources for his ____23____.
____24____, Daniel’s determination to pursue his passion did not waver (动摇). He collected waste materials from the local factory and used them to create ____25____ lab equipment. His creativity and resourcefulness allowed him to conduct simple experiments, and he learned a great deal from them.
One day, Daniel heard about a national science ____26____ for students. The winner would receive an award to a well-known university. Daniel knew this was a(n) ____27____ to change his life, so he decided to enter the competition.
He spent countless hours designing and building a(n) ____28____ device that could turn waste materials into renewable energy. Despite numerous setbacks and ____29____, Daniel never gave up. He worked tirelessly, ____30____and improving his invention.
When the day of the competition arrived, Daniel ____31____ his invention to the judges. They were ____32____ by his talent and the potential impact of his invention on the environment. To Daniel’s delight, he was declared the ____33____ of the competition.
Daniel’s victory not only earned him a scholarship (奖学金) but also inspired others in his village to ____34____ their dreams, ____35____ their circumstances. His story serves as a powerful reminder that with determination, creativity, and a little bit of resourcefulness, one can overcome barriers and achieve great things.
21. A. in B. with C. on D. for
22. A. opportunity B. challenge C. change D. interview
23. A. experiments B. learning C. money D. equipment
24. A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. However D. Although
25. A. familiar B. remote C. expensive D. temporary
26. A. introduction B. competition C. lesson D. scholarship
27. A. chance B. expectation C. talent D. difficulties
28. A. limited B. talented C. unique D. countless
29. A. successes B. intelligence C. chances D. failures
30. A. bettering B. comparing C. watering D. filling
31. A. discussed B. admitted C. presented D. declared
32. A. persuaded B. included C. recommended D. impressed
33. A. holder B. winner C. keeper D. host
34. A. go after B. reach out C. come true D. long for
35. A. only if B. in search of C. in spite of D. even if
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chen Ning Yang, a famous Chinese physicist and Nobel Prize winner, passed away at the age of 103, according to Chinese media. He was known as one of the ____36____ (influential) scientists in the world.
In 1957, Yang and another physicist, Tsung-Dao Lee, ____37____ (win) the Nobel Prize in Physics for their research on the law of parity. Their discovery helped people better understand elementary particles, the tiny parts that make up all matter.
Born in 1922 in Anhui Province, Yang was the eldest of five children. Growing up on the campus of Tsinghua University, ____38____ his father taught mathematics, he developed ____39____ deep love for science. As a teenager, Yang once told his parents, “One day, I want to win the Nobel Prize.” ____40____ (remarkable), this dream came true at the age of 35. Having earned his bachelor’s degree in 1942 from the National Southwest Associated University in Kunming, Yang kept on ____41____ (complete) a master’s degree at Tsinghua. After the Sino-Japanese War, he went to the United States on a Tsinghua scholarship ____42____ studied at the University of Chicago under Enrico Fermi, who built the world’s first nuclear reactor.
Throughout his long career, Yang devoted ____43____ (he) to many fields of physics, focusing especially ____44____ statistical mechanics and symmetry principles. It was not only the Nobel Prize that honored him; in 1957, he received the Albert Einstein Commemorative Award, and a year later, an honorary doctorate from Princeton University — a clear ____45____ (recognize) of his lifelong devotion to science.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,中外周报英语专栏正在面向全体高中生征集以“My Favorite Park”为主题的投稿,请你写一篇短文,向该报英语专栏介绍你最喜欢的一座公园。内容包括:
1.公园的基本情况;
2.你喜欢这座公园的原因;
3.你对这座公园的评价。
注意:1.词数80左右;2.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I failed again. It was the day of the big marathon. I had decided three years ago to train for the half-marathon event and take home a medal. There I sat, in front of my TV, while I watched others cross the finish line. It was just another in a long string of failures. I had never met a single weight loss or fitness goal and I was majoring in the art of failing.
We are a family with the spirit of exploration. We often plan active vacations. It seemed that on every vacation I was the one who couldn’t go the distance. Each time I urged my family, “Go on without me. Bring me lots of pictures and videos. I’ll be fine just sitting here taking in the view.” I lied. Sick of being left behind, I decided that it would never happen again. As a teenager, surely, there was still hope for me. I always spent weeks walking to prepare for our active vacations. I had lost weight many times. I just always seemed to fail to get where I needed to be.
But this time I would do something different. I was going to walk a half marathon. Surely I would lose weight and get in shape if I could complete over 12 miles in four hours. Be-sides, this would be training. Training sounded cooler than diet and exercise. I was excited and ready to go. I bought the proper equipment and clothing, checked out what type of drinks would be handed out at the marathon and prepared a lot. I had a plan!
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The day I expected finally came.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
“Come on, boy! You can make it,” a man shouted.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
儋州黄冈实验学校
2025-2026学年第一学期高二英语期末考试题
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When is Grandpa's birthday?
A. On May 6. B. On May 7. C. On May 8.
2. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Attend classes. B. Hunt for a job. C. Stay at home.
3. Where will the man probably go for the holiday?
A. Toronto. B. London. C. His hometown.
4. Where are the speakers?
A. On an airplane. B. In a boat. C. On the ground.
5. What happened to Peter's bike?
A. A tree fell onto it. B. Someone stole it. C. It got broken.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Which bus goes to River Drive?
A. No.6. B. No.14. C. No.16.
7. What will the woman ask the bus driver about?
A. The ticket price.
B. Where to change buses.
C. How to get change.
听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Father and daughter.
9. What may the weather be like today?
A. Foggy and cold. B. Rainy and warm. C. Cloudy and windy.
听下面一段对话,回答第10至12三个小题。
10. When will the man return?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday.
11. What do we know about the man's journey?
A. He can enjoy a video program.
B. Drinks are not allowed.
C. A lunch will be served.
12. How much will the man pay for his tickets?
A. $425. B. $815. C. $850.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至16四个小题。
13. How long has the woman been in hospital?
A. For one week. B. For ten days. C. For two weeks.
14. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At home. B. In a hospital. C. In an office.
15. What's the doctor's suggestion for the woman?
A. Having medical checks regularly.
B. Coming to the hospital every day.
C. Avoiding any physical exercise.
16. How does the woman sound?
A. Grateful. B. Annoyed. C. Puzzled.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至20四个小题。
17. What did Clara do during the Civil War?
A. She joined the army.
B. She helped the wounded.
C. She urged people to stop the war.
18. Why did Clara lead a group after the Civil War?
A. To collect money.
B. To set up the Red Cross.
C. To search for missing soldiers.
19. When did Clara return from Switzerland?
A. In 1873. B. In 1881. C. In 1912.
20. How old was Clara when she started the American Red Cross?
A. 52 years old. B. 60 years old. C. 91 years old.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. B 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. B 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. C 14. B 15. D
第二节(共5小题,每小题2.5分,共12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. G 18. A 19. F 20. C
第三部分 语言运用(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,共15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. C
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. most influential
37. won 38. where
39. a 40. Remarkably
41. completing
42. and 43. himself
44. on 45. recognition
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】 My Favorite Park
Located in the center of my city, Green Lake Park covers about 10 hectares with a small lake, lush trees, and colorful flower beds.
I love this park because it’s a perfect mix of nature and peace. Every morning, I jog along the lake while listening to birds singing. The clean air and friendly atmosphere always make me feel relaxed.
In my opinion, Green Lake Park is more than just a park — it not only beautifies the city but also provides a wonderful place for people to connect with nature and enjoy simple happiness.
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】参考范文:
The day I expected finally came. When I stood at the starting line, I felt excited but a little nervous. I tried my best to follow others. After running about two kilometers, I felt tired, but I thought I could overcome it. To my disappointment, about five kilometers, I found I couldn’t stick to it any more. “ Do I give up the game? ” I asked myself. The answer was definitely a no. I slowed down so that I could feel better.
“Come on, boy! You can make it,” a man shouted. I was grateful to him for his words. I went on running. However, I had to give up after ten kilometers because I was really out of breath. What’s more, I felt sharp pain in my feet and legs. I was so upset when I got home. My dad gave me a hug and said, “My boy, don’t lose heart! You’ve done better than the last time. Keep training, and you’ll succeed next time.” Since then, I have kept the words in mind, and done everything with such an attitude.
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