精品解析：山东省济南市市中区2025-2026学年八年级上学期期末英语试题

样题由济南市市中区教研室提供 2026年八年级期末学情调研 英语试题 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5 mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五个句子，从每小题A、B、C中选出适当的应答语。每个句子听两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Sure, no problem. B. Thanks for your help. C. No, you can’t. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】Could you give me a lift? 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. No, I’m not. B. No. She’s as slim as me. C. Yes. She swims faster. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】Is Julia slimmer than you? 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. What a great idea! B. How time flies! C. How clever you are! 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】Let’s go boating on the lake. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I’m going to work hard. B. I’m good at writing. C. I want to be a writer. 【答案】C 【解析】 【原文】What do you want to be when you are older? 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I did something interesting. B. I went to Hangzhou. C. I celebrated it alone. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】Where did you go for the New Year holiday? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How often does Bill clean his bedroom? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】A: Your bedroom is tidy, Bill. Do you clean it every day? B: Thanks, Linda. I usually clean it every Thursday and Saturday. 7. What did the girl do last Sunday afternoon? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. She went climbing. B. She played chess. C. She went to the cinema. 【答案】C 【解析】 【原文】A: What did you do last Sunday, Sam? B: I went climbing with my father. After that we played chess with his friends. A: Sounds good. I went to the cinema with my cousin that afternoon. 8. Who will make the apple pie? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Lisa and Frank. B. Lisa and Jim. C. Frank and Jim. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】A: Hi Frank. I want to make an apple pie, but I don’t know how to do it. B: Don’t worry, Lisa. I will help you after I go shopping with Jim. 9. What is Jim’s plan about? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Travel. B. Jobs. C. Sports. 【答案】C 【解析】 【原文】A: Jim, are you going to travel this winter holiday? B: No. I’m going to take swimming lessons to make me strong and healthy. 10. What is the relationship between the two speakers? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Saleswoman and customer. B. Teacher and student. C. Tour guide and tourist. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】A: Excuse me, could you please tell me where I can find the grapes? B: Yes. They are in the fruit area, please follow me. A: Thank you. B: You are welcome. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. Whose birthday is on Saturday? A. Helen’s. B. Mike’s. C. Bob’s. 12. Why is Helen worried at first? A. She doesn’t like going camping. B. She forgot to invite Mike and Bob. C. Alex might miss her birthday party. 13. When will Alex’s camping trip finally happen? A. This Saturday. B. Next weekend. C. Never. 14. What will Helen’s mum prepare for the party? A. Beef and cheese pizzas. B. A strawberry cake. C. Some soft drinks. 15. What can we know about Helen? A. She is Alex’s sister. B. She is turning twelve. C. She is as tall as Alex. 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. B 【解析】 【原文】A: Hi Alex, are you all right? B: Yeah Helen. I’m really excited. Mike, Bob and I are going to camp this Saturday. We will make a campfire. It all sounds fantastic. A: Uh, did Mike and Bob actually seem they are excited? B: Not yet, but we love it. Wait, you don’t like the plan, do you? A: Well. To be honest I’m not sure. But my birthday party is on Saturday, remember? B: Oh. I totally forgot. No worries, we’ll camp next weekend. I’ll text Mike and Bob now? A: Really? You don’t mind. B: Of course not, there’s no way we are missing your party. A: Thanks, Alex. Party starts at four, my mom says she’s going to make beef and cheese pizza. B: Sounds great. And I’ll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. A: Cool. I’ll prepare some soft drinks. B: Wonderful. See you on Saturday. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 16. Which class won the football match last week? A. Class 4, Grade 7. B. Class 7, Grade 8. C. Class 4, Grade 8. 17. Where will Mr. Wang give a speech? A. In the school hall. B. In the garden. C. In the school library. 18. When is the English play? A. On Tuesday afternoon. B. On Wednesday afternoon. C. On Thursday afternoon. 19. How many news topics does the speaker mention? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 20. What is the talk mainly about? A. The English students’ visit. B. How to hold an art show. C. The week’s school news. 【答案】16. C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C 【解析】 【原文】Good morning, boys and girls, it’s Monday today, and it’s sunny. Here’s today’s school news. First, the sports news. Last week our school held an exciting football match. Class Four Grade Eight took first place. Next comes the health news. Mr. Wang will give us a speech on how to stay safe while doing exercise. The speech will begin at four p.m. this Tuesday in the school hall. Please arrive on time. Third, there’s the news about after class activities. There will be an English play in the garden at our school on Wednesday afternoon. And the school library will hold a show of modern art paintings on Thursday. Feel free to join either event. And finally, a group of students from England will visit our school this Friday. Let’s give them a warm welcome. That’s all for now, thank you. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Friends are important. With the Internet, we can even make friends with people from around the world easily. Would you like to make some foreign friends? Read these posts. Forum Hello! My name is Paul and I’m thirteen years old. I live in Australia. My father is a lawyer. My mother works in a hospital. She takes care of the old people. I love reading. There are about 200 books in my room. Do you want to be my friend? I’m Tom. I’m fourteen and I’m from Singapore. I have a big family. My grandparents, my parents, my brother and I live together in a very big house. I like playing ping-pong and going bike riding. Hello, I’m Emma. I’m fifteen years old. I live in the UK, but I’m on a study tour in China with three of my classmates these days. Chinese people are friendly. I really like the noodles here. They are so delicious. I’d like to have a Chinese friend. My name is Li Yue. I live in Shenzhen with my family. It is a big city in China. My mother is an English teacher. With her help, I can speak English well. If you are interested in China, I’d like to tell you a lot about my country. 21. What is Paul’s mother? A. A lawyer. B. A nurse. C. A writer. D. A teacher. 22. How many people are there in Tom’s family? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six. 23. Who is with Emma in China? A. Her parents. B. Her Chinese friend. C. Her classmates. D. Her brother. 24. If Helen is interested in Chinese culture, who could she make friends with according to the text? A. Paul. B. Tom. C. Emma. D. Li Yue. 25. What can we learn from the text? A. Tom likes doing sports. B. Paul has a collection of 20 books. C. Emma enjoys Mapo Tofu. D. Li Yue’s mother works in the UK. 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. A 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了保罗、汤姆、艾玛和李悦四位同学在论坛上发布的自我介绍，包括各自的年龄、居住地、家庭情况和兴趣爱好等，希望结交朋友。 【21题详解】 细节理解题。根据保罗的帖子“My mother works in a hospital. She takes care of the old people.”可知，保罗的妈妈在医院工作，照顾老人，由此可推测她是一名护士。故选B。 【22题详解】 细节理解题。根据汤姆的帖子“My grandparents, my parents, my brother and I live together in a very big house.”可知，汤姆的家庭中有祖父母、父母、哥哥和他自己，一共6口人。故选D。 【23题详解】 细节理解题。根据艾玛的帖子“I’m on a study tour in China with three of my classmates these days.”可知，艾玛和她的三位同学一起在中国游学。故选C。 【24题详解】 细节理解题。根据李悦的帖子“If you are interested in China, I’d like to tell you a lot about my country.”可知，李悦愿意给对中国感兴趣的人讲述中国的事情，所以海伦如果对中国文化感兴趣，可以和李悦交朋友。故选D。 【25题详解】 细节理解题。根据汤姆的帖子“I like playing ping-pong and going bike riding.”可知，汤姆喜欢打乒乓球和骑自行车，这两项都属于体育运动，即汤姆喜欢做运动。故选A。 B Some of my family members, like my grandparents, don’t live near me. During the winter holidays and some other vacations, my little sister and I will visit them with our parents. On other days, we often write letters to them. One time, we decided to make a special letter to send to our grandparents. First, we took out lots of markers. We used paper and folded it in half. Then, we drew a picture on the front. In the picture, we were making cookies with our grandparents. We colored it all in. On the inside, we wrote down our wish list for the next holiday, including making cookies for them. Another time, we wrote a letter to our cousin Peter and cut it up into large pieces. We included a note in the envelope (信封). The note explained that he should put the puzzle (拼图) pieces together to read the letter. It was a lot of fun! Writing a letter is a special way to stay in touch with your family. The letter doesn’t have to be perfect. Just write something and put it in the mailbox. It will make your family members really happy! 26. Why do the writer and his sister often write letters to their grandparents? A. Their grandparents live far away. B. They enjoy writing very much. C. Their parents ask them to do so. D. Their grandparents can’t use phones. 27. How did they make a special letter for their grandparents? A. They made real cookies and put them in. B. They wrote a story about their holiday. C. They drew a picture and wrote a wish list. D. They put their favorite markers inside. 28. What does the underlined phrase “stay in touch” in Paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Meet often. B. Communicate. C. Talk happily. D. Help each other. 29. What made the letter to Peter different? A. Peter received it when it was his birthday. B. The writer included some family photos in it. C. Peter couldn’t read it until he finished a puzzle. D. The writer and his sister wrote it on a computer. 30. What does the writer want to tell us in the last paragraph? A. Emails are better than paper letters. B. Only handwritten letters can show love. C. Letters must be perfect to make people happy. D. A simple letter can bring joy to family members. 【答案】26. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者和妹妹通过写信与远方的祖父母和表弟保持联系的故事，并分享了制作特殊信件的过程和意义。 【26题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Some of my family members, like my grandparents, don’t live near me.”可知，作者写信的原因是祖父母住得远。故选A。 【27题详解】 细节理解题。根据“We drew a picture on the front ... On the inside, we wrote down our wish list for the next holiday, including making cookies for them.”可知，他们通过画图和写愿望清单制作特殊信件。故选C。 【28题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“Writing a letter is a special way to stay in touch with your family.”可知，写信是与家人保持联系的特殊方式，stay in touch表示“保持联系、沟通”。故选B。 【29题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The note explained that he should put the puzzle (拼图) pieces together to read the letter. It was a lot of fun!”可知，这封信的特殊之处在于需要完成拼图才能阅读。故选C。 【30题详解】 主旨大意题。根据“The letter doesn’t have to be perfect. Just write something and put it in the mailbox. It will make your family members really happy!”可知，作者想表达简单的信件也能给家人带来快乐。故选D。 C You may think science is serious, but not at the Pineapple Science Award (菠萝科学奖)! It honors interesting findings in science. Zhejiang Science and Technology Museum started this award in 2012. This year, the winners came out on November 22. We chose three to share with you. ·Biology award When ants have others around, they work harder! Scientists in Australia watched ants that make homes with leaves. They used fake (假的) leaves with force sensors (传感器) to see how strong the ants are when pulling leaves. After checking over 30,000 ants, they found that ants pulled really hard—103 times their body weight—when other ants were around. But when alone, they only pulled 60 times their weight. ·Medical award Do you know what intermittent fasting (轻断食) is? It’s when you eat for only eight hours a day and don’t eat for the other 16 hours. Many people do it to lose weight. But scientists at Westlake University in China found that in mice, this kind of fasting can make special cells (细胞) in hair roots die. In other words, it will cause hair loss. ·Psychology (心理学) award Guessing which hand is hiding a coin (硬币) is a very popular magical trick. If you can’t guess right, the problem might be your hands. Scientists in Singapore asked magicians to do this trick for jays (松鸦). The jays only guessed wrong 30 percent of the time, while humans guessed wrong 75 percent. Why? Magicians use hand movements to trick people, but jays don’t have hands, so they can’t be tricked, said the scientists. 31. What is the main purpose of the Pineapple Science Award? A. To award scientists for their serious research. B. To honor interesting and fun scientific discoveries. C. To encourage people to lose weight in a healthy way. D. To teach students about biology and psychology. 32. What did scientists in Australia learn about ants? A. Ants can move big leaves. B. Ants try less when they work alone. C. Ants prefer to work in groups. D. Ants can tell if a leaf is real or fake. 33. According to the study, what might happen if someone does intermittent fasting? A. It might help the brain grow faster. B. It might make brain cells die. C. It might cause hair loss problems. D. It might help people live longer. 34. Why can jays do better than humans in the coin trick? A. Hand moves don’t trick them. B. They have better problem-solving skills. C. They can see things more clearly. D. The magicians gave them a lot of training. 35. Which section of a magazine is the text probably from? A. Nature. B. Health. C. Culture. D. Science. 【答案】31. B 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了菠萝科学奖，该奖项旨在表彰有趣的科学发现，并分享了今年该奖项中生物学、医学和心理学三个领域的获奖成果。 【31题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章第一段“It honors interesting findings in science.”可知，菠萝科学奖的主要目的是表彰有趣的科学发现。故选B。 【32题详解】 细节理解题。根据生物学奖部分“they found that ants pulled really hard—103 times their body weight—when other ants were around. But when alone, they only pulled 60 times their weight.”可知，澳大利亚的科学家发现蚂蚁独处时用力更小、表现更差。故选B。 【33题详解】 细节理解题。根据医学奖部分“this kind of fasting can make special cells in hair roots die. In other words, it will cause hair loss.”可知，轻断食可能会导致脱发问题。故选C。 【34题详解】 细节理解题。根据心理学奖部分“Magicians use hand movements to trick people, but jays don’t have hands, so they can’t be tricked”可知，松鸦比人类表现好是因为手部动作无法欺骗它们。故选A。 【35题详解】 推理判断题。文章围绕菠萝科学奖及三项科学领域的获奖成果展开，内容均与科学相关，因此可能来自杂志的科学版块。故选D。 D Imagine ordering your favourite burger and having it fly to your door. Well, that’s exactly what’s happening on an island in Sweden A company from Norway, Aviant, is testing a new service: sending food by drone (无人机). The drones bring hot, fresh hamburgers from a fast-food restaurant to people’s homes on Värmdö island. This island is near Stockholm, the capital of Sweden, but it is not easy to get to quickly. Especially in the long winter months, when it gets very cold and the sea freezes, the journey becomes even more challenging. You can drive or take a boat, but you can’t cycle or walk there. And tens of thousands of people live there, with tens of thousands more coming to stay for the summer. “As you can see on the map, there are 87,000 people who cannot get a home delivery (投递) service,” said an Aviant official. “They live in areas far from the city centre and would like to order takeaway (外卖) food, but they have no choice.” Right now, this drone service is being tested. They deliver only about 10 meals a week. They can fly for 10 minutes and travel about 10 kilometers. People are excited to see drones bringing their food. It’s like a flying robot delivering dinner! The testing took three years. At first, the food arrived cold or wet! But now, even in the cold weather of Sweden and Norway, the food stays warm when it arrives. Aviant plans to expand the service next to an area in Norway. If everything goes well, they hope to use drones to deliver food in more places across Northern Europe, and maybe even in North America one day. So, could your next meal come from the sky? For some people, that future is already here! 36. Why did Aviant test its drones on Värmdö island? A. There are no fast-food restaurants nearby. B. The people there like to order food online. C. Many homes there can’t get food delivery. D. It is far from the city and has very few people. 37. What problem did the drones have at first? A. They flew too high. B. The food arrived cold or wet. C. They cost too much money. D. Heat stopped them from flying. 38. How many meals do the drones deliver each week now? A. About 10. B. About 87. C. About 1,000. D. About 10,000. 39. What is Aviant’s next plan if the test keeps going well? A. Sell drones to American schools. B. Build new restaurants on Värmdö. C. Stop using drones in delivering food. D. Bring the service to a place in Norway. 40. What may be the best title for the text? A. Burgers by Drone B. Driving in Winter C. Summer on an Island D. Making Fast Food 【答案】36. C 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A 【解析】 【导语】本文介绍了挪威公司Aviant在瑞典Värmdö岛测试无人机配送汉堡的新服务，解决当地难以获得外卖的问题，并计划未来在更多地区推广。 【36题详解】 细节理解题。根据“As you can see on the map, there are 87,000 people who cannot get a home delivery service”可知，该岛有很多家庭无法获得外卖配送服务。故选C。 【37题详解】 细节理解题。根据“At first, the food arrived cold or wet!”可知，无人机最初的问题是食物送到时会变冷或变湿。故选B。 【38题详解】 细节理解题。根据“They deliver only about 10 meals a week.”可知，无人机现在每周大约配送10份餐食。故选A。 【39题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Aviant plans to expand the service next to an area in Norway.”可知，如果测试顺利，Aviant下一步计划将服务扩展到挪威的一个地区。故选D。 【40题详解】 最佳标题题。根据“Imagine ordering your favourite burger and having it fly to your door. Well, that’s exactly what’s happening on an island in Sweden”以及全文内容可知，文章主要介绍瑞典一个岛屿上用无人机配送汉堡的新服务。故选A。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 It’s easy to get worried when you have a lot on your plate. By creating an organized to-do list, you can feel ready for anything in your life. ____41____ List all of your tasks. These tasks include simple things like taking a shower and difficult ones like preparing a presentation for English class. ____42____ It will make sure you don’t forget anything, and it will also help you clear your mind. ____43____ For example, you may have a to-do list for school and a to-do list for home. By creating separate lists, you can focus your attention and energy on one set of tasks at a time. Make your list look nice. This might seem unimportant, but it can change the way you look at your to-do list. ____44____ Just create a list that encourages you to stay positive and get things done. Place it where you can see it. There is no point in creating a list if you put it in a drawer and forget about it. ____45____ Physically seeing a list of tasks you need to complete can light the motivational (激发性的) fire within you. A. Everyone needs a to-do list. B. Just write everything down. C. Sort your tasks into different types. D. Make sure you can see it very easily! E. For example, you can write it in your favorite color. F. This makes it easier to do your tasks one by one. G. Here are some tips for how to make a good to-do list. 【答案】41. G 42. B 43. C 44. E 45. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了制作一份高效待办清单的实用技巧，包括列出所有任务、分类任务、美化清单以及放置在显眼位置等方法。 【41题详解】 根据下文“List all of your tasks.”“Make your list look nice.”等小标题可知，此处是总起句，引出下文的具体建议。G选项“这里有一些制作一份优质待办清单的技巧”符合语境。故选G。 【42题详解】 根据前文“These tasks include simple things like taking a shower and difficult ones like preparing a presentation for English class.”可知，这里是说要把所有任务都写下来。B选项“把所有事情都写下来”与前文呼应，符合语境。故选B。 【43题详解】 根据下文“For example, you may have a to-do list for school and a to-do list for home.”可知，这里是建议把任务按不同类型分类。C选项“把你的任务按不同类型分类”符合语境。故选C。 【44题详解】 根据前文“Make your list look nice.”和后文“Just create a list that encourages you to stay positive and get things done.”可知，这里是举例说明如何让待办清单看起来更美观。E选项“例如，你可以用你最喜欢的颜色来写”符合语境。故选E。 【45题详解】 根据前文“Place it where you can see it.”和后文“Physically seeing a list of tasks you need to complete can light the motivational fire within you.”可知，这里是强调要把清单放在容易看到的地方。D选项“确保你能很容易看到它！”符合语境。故选D。 第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Amy: Hi, Ken. Our community will hold an activity to clean up the park this Saturday. ____46____ Ken: Yes, I did. How about you? Amy: Me too. I’m just thinking about what to prepare. Do you have any advice? Ken: Well, we might need gloves and rubbish bags. ____47____ Amy: Good idea. Let’s take some from home. Ken: OK. ____48____ Amy: Oh, I’d love to. Ken: Great! It’s green and healthy Amy: Right. By the way, I also plan to plant a tree there if possible. Ken: ____49____ It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener. Amy: Will you bring your younger sister with you? Ken: Yeah, she wants to come. ____50____ Amy: Great! Let’s meet at the park gate at 9 a.m. 46. A. Did you hear about it? B. What time will it start? C. Are you going to join? D. Can you help organize it? 47. A. Where did you buy them? B. How many do we need? C. Why don’t we bring them? D. Who can help us get some? 48. A. How will you go there? B. Can you give me a lift? C. What would you like to be? D. Shall we go there by bike? 49. A. Good for you! B. Nothing serious. C. I don’t agree. D. Sounds tiring. 50. A. She’s too young to join us. B. She likes nature a lot. C. She is busy this weekend. D. She dislikes getting dirty. 【答案】46. A 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B 【解析】 【导语】本文主要是艾米和肯关于周六社区公园清扫活动的对话，内容围绕活动通知、准备物品、出行方式及同行人员展开。 【46题详解】 根据下文肯的回答“Yes, I did.”可知，上文艾米的问句应为一般过去时，选项A“你听说这件事了吗？”符合语境。故选A。 【47题详解】 根据下文艾米的回答“Good idea. Let’s take some from home.”可知，上文肯应是提出了带物品的建议，选项C“我们为什么不带上它们呢？”符合语境。故选C。 【48题详解】 根据下文艾米回答“Oh, I’d love to.”及“ It’s green and healthy.”可知，上文肯提出的建议应是健康环保的出行方式，选项D“我们骑自行车去那里好吗？”符合语境。故选D。 【49题详解】 根据上文艾米说计划种树及下文“ It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener.”可知，肯应是对艾米的想法表示认可，选项A“你真棒！”符合语境。故选A。 【50题详解】 根据上文肯说妹妹想来及下文艾米的回应“Great!”可知，此处应补充妹妹想来的原因，选项B“她非常喜欢大自然。”符合语境。故选B。 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last Saturday, Lily, sixteen, helped at her aunt’s small milk-tea shop. It was close to the city hospital, ____51____ many nurses and doctors came in for a quick drink. At five o’clock a young nurse named Kate walked in, looking very tired. She ordered a warm brown-sugar milk tea and sat at the corner table. Lily saw Kate’s eyes were ____52____, as if she had been crying. “Kind words give people a ____53____ of hope.” Lily remembered what her aunt said ____54____ making the drink. She took a blank paper cup, wrote a short message with a red marker, and stuck it on the side: “Thank you for keeping our city ____55____. Tomorrow will be kinder.” She ____56____ a tiny smiling sun beside the words. Kate took the drink ____57____ noticing the note. After the first sip (一小口) she saw the message. Lily watched from behind the counter. Kate’s face changed ____58____—surprise first, then a soft smile. She took a photo of the cup, finished the tea, and walked back to the counter. “Can I speak to the girl who ____59____ this drink?” she asked. Lily stepped forward, a little ____60____. Kate placed a hospital badge (徽章) on the table. “I just finished a twelve-hour shift (轮班). Three patients died today. Your note felt like a warm hand pulling me ____61____ cold water. I will keep the cup on my desk to remember that strangers care.” Before leaving, Kate ____62____ two more drinks and told Lily to give them to the next healthcare workers who came in. She wrote on a piece of paper, “Kindness is like bubble tea (珍珠奶茶)—____63____ spreads (扩散) when you shake it. Trust the good you send out; it ____64____ comes back.” For the rest of the evening Lily kept thinking about the note that went from her hand to a stranger’s ____65____. That night she wrote in her diary: “If you want to help others, you don’t need big plans. A tiny note can make a big smile.” 51. A. but B. so C. because D. or 52. A. blue B. black C. red D. brown 53. A. block B. sense C. chance D. date 54. A. where B. how C. who D. when 55. A. safe B. popular C. easy D. rich 56. A. talked B. wrote C. drew D. smiled 57. A. until B. except C. against D. without 58. A. slowly B. surely C. easily D. carefully 59. A. drank B. made C. bought D. signed 60. A. serious B. warm C. afraid D. humour 61. A. out of B. up to C. across from D. along with 62. A. depended on B. packed up C. worried about D. paid for 63. A. friendship B. confidence C. sweetness D. mixture 64. A. often B. never C. sometimes D. always 65. A. mouth B. heart C. ears D. eyes 【答案】51 B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. C 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. A 62. D 63. C 64. D 65. B 【解析】 【导语】本文叙述了十六岁的莉莉在阿姨的奶茶店帮忙时，给疲惫的护士凯特写暖心便签的故事，传递了善意虽小却能温暖人心的道理。 【51题详解】 句意：它离市医院很近，所以很多护士和医生进来快速喝一杯。 but但是，表转折；so所以，表结果；because因为，表原因；or或者，表选择。根据“It was close to the city hospital,…many nurses and doctors came in for a quick drink.”可知，“离医院近”是“医护人员来喝饮品”的原因，此处需用表结果的连词衔接。故选B。 【52题详解】 句意：莉莉看到凯特的眼睛红红的，好像哭过一样。 blue蓝色的；black黑色的；red红色的；brown棕色的。根据“as if she had been crying”可知，哭过之后眼睛会发红，此处需填表示“红色的”形容词。故选C。 【53题详解】 句意：善意的话语能给人一种希望感。 block街区；sense感觉；chance机会；date日期。根据“Kind words give people a…of hope.”可知，此处考查固定搭配a sense of，意为“一种……的感觉”，指善意话语带来的希望感。故选B。 【54题详解】 句意：莉莉在做饮品的时候想起了阿姨说的话。 where哪里，表地点；how怎样，表方式；who谁，表人；when当……的时候，表时间。根据“Lily remembered what her aunt said…making the drink.”可知，此处是指在做饮品的这个时间点想起了话，需用表时间的连词。故选D。 【55题详解】 句意：感谢你守护我们城市的安全。 safe安全的；popular受欢迎的；easy容易的；rich富有的。根据凯特是护士的身份，以及“Thank you for keeping our city…”的语境可知，医护人员的职责是守护人们健康、保障城市安全，此处需填表示“安全的”形容词。故选A。 【56题详解】 句意：她在字的旁边画了一个小小的微笑太阳。 talked谈论；wrote写；drew画；smiled微笑。根据“a tiny smiling sun beside the words”可知，太阳是画出来的，此处需填表示“画”的动词。故选C。 【57题详解】 句意：凯特接过饮品，没有注意到那张便签。 until直到；except除了；against反对；without没有。根据“After the first sip she saw the message.”可知，一开始凯特没注意到便签，此处需填表示“没有”的介词。故选D。 【58题详解】 句意：凯特的表情慢慢变化——先是惊讶，然后露出温柔的微笑。 slowly慢慢地；surely当然；easily容易地；carefully仔细地。根据“surprise first, then a soft smile”可知，表情是逐步变化的，此处需填表示“慢慢地”副词。故选A。 【59题详解】 句意：我能和做这杯饮品的女孩说句话吗？ drank喝；made制作；bought买；signed签名。根据“Lily, sixteen, helped at her aunt’s small milk-tea shop”及前文“making the drink”可知，这杯饮品是莉莉制作的，此处需填表示“制作”的动词。故选B。 【60题详解】 句意：莉莉走上前，有点害怕。 serious严肃的；warm温暖的；afraid害怕的；humour幽默 (名词，语法不符)。根据“Kate placed a hospital badge on the table. ‘I just finished a twelve-hour shift’”可知，面对刚结束长时间工作的陌生护士询问，莉莉会有点紧张害怕，此处需填表示“害怕的”形容词。故选C。 【61题详解】 句意：你的便签就像一双手把我从冷水里拉出来。 out of从……出来；up to直到；across from在……对面；along with和……一起。根据凯特所说“I just finished a twelve-hour shift. Three patients died today”，可知她心情低落，便签带来了温暖，此处考查pull out of，意为“把……从……拉出来”，贴合她从糟糕情绪中被救赎的语境。故选A。 【62题详解】 句意：离开前，凯特又付了两杯饮品的钱，让莉莉把它们送给接下来进来的医护人员。 depended on依靠；packed up打包；worried about担心；paid for支付。根据“told Lily to give them to the next healthcare workers”可知，凯特要赠送饮品，需先付钱，此处需填表示“支付”的短语。故选D。 【63题详解】 句意：善意就像珍珠奶茶——摇晃的时候，甜蜜会扩散开来。 friendship友谊；confidence自信；sweetness甜蜜；mixture混合物。根据“Kindness is like bubble tea”，结合珍珠奶茶自带甜味的特质，以及善意带来的温暖感受，此处需填表示“甜蜜”的名词。故选C。 【64题详解】 句意：相信你传递出去的善意，它总会回来的。 often经常；never从不；sometimes有时；always总是。根据“Kate paid for two more drinks and told Lily to give them to the next healthcare workers”可知，莉莉的善意便签打动了凯特，凯特又以赠送饮品的方式传递善意，形成善意的循环，此处需填表示“总是”的副词，体现善意终将回馈的道理。故选D。 【65题详解】 句意：那天晚上剩下的时间里，莉莉一直在想那张从她手中传到陌生人心里的便签。 mouth嘴；heart心；ears耳朵；eyes眼睛。根据凯特所说“Your note felt like a warm hand pulling me out of cold water”，可知便签带来的是心灵上的温暖，此处需填表示“心”的名词。故选B。 第三节 语法填空（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 阅读下面句子，用括号内所给单词的正确形式完成句子。 66. Will AI make our life better or ________ (bad)? 【答案】worse 【解析】 【详解】句意：人工智能会让我们的生活变得更好还是更糟？bad“糟糕的”，此处与better形成选择对比，表示“更好还是更糟”，应使用bad的比较级worse。故填worse。 67. We will go for a picnic if it ________ (rain) tomorrow. 【答案】doesn’t rain 【解析】 【详解】句意：如果明天不下雨，我们就去野餐。根据“We will go for a picnic”可知，是指不下雨，就去野餐，空处用否定形式，且句子是if引导的条件状语从句，主句用将来时，从句用一般现在时，it是第三人称单数，助动词用doesn’t表否定，后跟动词原形rain。故填doesn’t rain。 68. My dream job is to be a fashion ________ (design). 【答案】designer 【解析】 【详解】句意：我的梦想工作是成为一名时尚设计师。根据“My dream job is to be a fashion….”可知，这里需要一个表示职业的名词，designer符合语境，指从事时尚设计工作的人。故填designer。 69. Parents make rules to help children grow up ________ (health). 【答案】healthily 【解析】 【详解】句意：父母制定规则来帮助孩子健康成长。根据“Parents make rules to help children grow up….”可知，这里需要一个副词修饰动词短语grow up，healthily符合语境，说明孩子成长的状态。故填healthily。 70. Kindness is one of the most important ________ (quality) for us. 【答案】qualities 【解析】 【详解】句意：善良是我们身上最重要的品质之一。根据提示可知，“one of the+形容词最高级+可数名词复数”为固定结构，意为“最…… 之一”，quality为可数名词，需变复数。故填qualities。 71. My grandma ________ (teach) me to make pumpkin pie. 【答案】taught 【解析】 【详解】句意：我的奶奶教我制作南瓜派。根据“My grandma…me to make pumpkin pie”可判断，描述过去发生的动作用一般过去时，teach的过去式为taught。故填taught。 72. It’s ________ (possible) for me to be there on time because of the heavy traffic. 【答案】impossible 【解析】 【详解】句意：因为交通拥堵，我准时到达那里是不可能的。根据“It’s…for me to be there on time because of the heavy traffic.”可知，这里需要一个表示“不可能的”的词，结合括号内possible及语境，impossible符合语境，说明交通拥堵导致无法准时到达。故填impossible。 第四节 阅读填空（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In 2016, Disney’s Zootopia 《疯狂动物城》 was a huge success. The movie ____73____ (show) a city full of talking animals and had a good message about teamwork. Now, Zootopia 2 is coming with another ____74____ (excite) adventure! This time, Judy Hopps and Nick Wilde have a new challenge. The police ____75____ (partner) find that their friendship isn’t strong enough. Their boss, Chief Bogo, makes them join a special program ____76____ (fix) their teamwork. But then, something big happens. A snake comes to Zootopia and brings new danger. Judy and Nick try to solve the problem. Together, they go undercover (卧底) to a new place. There they meet new characters and face their biggest challenge. Zootopia 2 is as fun and moving as the ____77____ (one) movie. It shows how friends can learn to work together again. Many people plan to watch this new movie. A viewer ____78____ Guangzhou mentioned that the story let people feel warm and real. “I believe more young people ____79____ (fall) in love with it since it mixes laughter with thoughtful messages.” So don’t ____80____ (miss) the wild ride 【答案】73. showed 74. exciting 75. partners 76. to fix 77. first 78. from 79. will fall 80. miss 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲了迪士尼《疯狂动物城》系列电影的内容与影响，第一部电影大获成功，续作《疯狂动物城2》也即将推出，讲述朱迪和尼克面临新挑战、修复团队合作的冒险故事。 【73题详解】 句意：这部电影展示了一座满是会说话的动物的城市，并且传递了关于团队合作的积极信息。根据“In 2016”和后文“had”可知，句子用一般过去时，“show”的过去式是“showed”。故填showed。 【74题详解】 句意：现在，《疯狂动物城2》带着另一场令人兴奋的冒险即将上映！“adventure”是名词，需要形容词修饰，“excite”的形容词形式“exciting”表示“令人兴奋的”，用来描述事物的性质，符合语境。故填exciting。 【75题详解】 句意：这对搭档发现他们的友谊还不够牢固。结合前文“Judy Hopps and Nick Wilde”可知，这里指的是朱迪和尼克这两位搭档，“partner”用复数形式“partners”。故填partners。 【76题详解】 句意：他们的上司博戈局长让他们参加一个特别项目来改善他们的团队合作。此处用不定式“to fix”作目的状语，表示参加项目的目的是修复团队合作。故填to fix。 【77题详解】 句意：《疯狂动物城2》和第一部电影一样有趣且感人。“the first movie”表示“第一部电影”，用“one”的序数词形式“first”，符合语境。故填first。 【78题详解】 句意：一位来自广州的观众提到这个故事让人感觉温暖又真实。“from Guangzhou” 表示 “来自广州的”，作后置定语修饰 “viewer”，符合语境。故填from。 【79题详解】 句意：我相信更多年轻人会爱上它，因为它融合了欢笑与引人深思的信息。结合语境，这里表达的是将来会发生的动作，用一般将来时“will fall”。故填will fall。 【80题详解】 句意：所以不要错过这场刺激的旅程。“don't”后接动词原形，“miss”用原形即可。故填miss。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 81. A: ________________________ B: Yes. Emma is good at running. 82 A: What does Li Wei want to be when he grows up? B: ________________________. 83. A: ________________________ B: We need half a cup of it. 84. A: ________________________ B: Yes, there will. People will live longer. 85. A: What are you going to do this weekend, John? B: ________________________ 【答案】81. Is Emma good at running? 82. He wants to be an athlete. 83. How much milk do we need? 84. Will there be more people in 50 years? 85. I’m going to play badminton. 【解析】 【81题详解】 根据图片（两人跑步）和答句“Yes. Emma is good at running.”可知，问句是询问Emma是否擅长跑步。本句为一般现在时的一般疑问句，主语是Emma，用“Is”引导。故填Is Emma good at running? 【82题详解】 根据图片（举重运动员）和问句“What does Li Wei want to be when he grows up?”可知，答句是说李伟想成为一名运动员。本句为一般现在时，主语是He，谓语用“wants to be”，“运动员”译为“an athlete”。故填He wants to be an athlete. 【83题详解】 根据图片（牛奶）和答句“We need half a cup of it.”可知，问句是询问需要多少牛奶。本句为特殊疑问句，用“How much”引导，询问不可数名词的数量。故填How much milk do we need? 【84题详解】 根据图片（人口增长）和答句“Yes, there will. People will live longer.”可知，问句是询问未来人口是否会增长。本句为一般将来时的一般疑问句，用“Will there”引导。故填Will there be more people in 50 years? 【85题详解】 根据图片（羽毛球拍）和问句“What are you going to do this weekend, John?”可知，答句是说打算去打羽毛球。本句为一般将来时（be going to 结构），主语是I，“打羽毛球”译为“play badminton”。故填I’m going to play badminton. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 86. 假如你是李华，学校要举办“国际学生美食文化节”，来自不同国家的交换生们将分享他们的传统美食和背后的故事。作为活动组织者之一，请你以“My Memory Dish”为题，用英语写一篇短文，向外国小伙伴们介绍一道对你有特殊意义的菜肴（食物），用于学校活动的英文宣传册。 内容包括： 1. 描述一道你家的特色菜（食物）； 2. 解释这道菜（食物）带给你什么样的回忆或感受； 3. 说明这道菜（食物）对你的重要意义。 写作要求： 1. 文中应包括所给内容要点，可适当发挥，使文章连贯； 2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息； 3. 词数100左右，题目已给出，不计入总词数。 My Memory Dish __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】 例文 My Memory Dish My favorite dish is my grandma’s dumplings. They are filled with fresh vegetables and meat, and taste delicious. Every Spring Festival, my family gathers to make dumplings together. I still remember helping my grandma when I was little. She taught me how to wrap them, and we laughed and talked happily. These dumplings bring me warm memories of family love and tradition. They make me feel connected to my home and culture. To me, they are not just food, but a symbol of happiness and unity. I hope everyone can enjoy such special dishes with their loved ones. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：材料作文； ②时态：一般现在时为主，描述回忆时使用一般过去时； ③提示：围绕一道有特殊意义的家庭菜肴展开，需描述菜肴、回忆感受及重要意义。 [写作步骤] 第一步：介绍菜肴名称及基本特点； 第二步：描述与菜肴相关的具体回忆或场景，表达感受； 第三步：阐明菜肴的深层意义，如象征家庭、文化或情感。 [亮点词汇] ①be filled with充满 ②make dumplings包饺子 ③a symbol of……的象征 [高分句型] ①I still remember helping my grandma when I was little. (when引导的时间状语从句) ②I hope everyone can enjoy such special dishes with their loved ones. (宾语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 样题由济南市市中区教研室提供 2026年八年级期末学情调研 英语试题 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5 mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五个句子，从每小题A、B、C中选出适当的应答语。每个句子听两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Sure, no problem. B. Thanks for your help. C. No, you can’t. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. No, I’m not. B. No. She’s as slim as me. C. Yes. She swims faster. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. What a great idea! B. How time flies! C. How clever you are! 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I’m going to work hard. B. I’m good at writing. C. I want to be a writer. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I did something interesting. B. I went to Hangzhou. C. I celebrated it alone. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How often does Bill clean his bedroom? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 7. What did the girl do last Sunday afternoon? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. She went climbing. B. She played chess. C. She went to the cinema. 8. Who will make the apple pie? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Lisa and Frank. B. Lisa and Jim. C. Frank and Jim. 9. What is Jim’s plan about? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Travel. B. Jobs. C. Sports. 10. What is the relationship between the two speakers? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Saleswoman and customer. B. Teacher and student. C. Tour guide and tourist. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. Whose birthday is on Saturday? A. Helen’s. B. Mike’s. C. Bob’s. 12. Why is Helen worried at first? A. She doesn’t like going camping. B. She forgot to invite Mike and Bob. C. Alex might miss her birthday party. 13. When will Alex’s camping trip finally happen? A. This Saturday. B. Next weekend. C. Never. 14. What will Helen’s mum prepare for the party? A. Beef and cheese pizzas. B. A strawberry cake. C. Some soft drinks. 15. What can we know about Helen? A. She is Alex’s sister. B. She is turning twelve. C. She is as tall as Alex. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 16. Which class won the football match last week? A. Class 4, Grade 7. B. Class 7, Grade 8. C. Class 4, Grade 8. 17. Where will Mr. Wang give a speech? A. In the school hall. B. In the garden. C. In the school library. 18. When is the English play? A. On Tuesday afternoon. B. On Wednesday afternoon. C. On Thursday afternoon. 19. How many news topics does the speaker mention? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 20. What is the talk mainly about? A. The English students’ visit. B. How to hold an art show. C. The week’s school news. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Friends are important. With the Internet, we can even make friends with people from around the world easily. Would you like to make some foreign friends? Read these posts. Forum Hello! My name is Paul and I’m thirteen years old. I live in Australia. My father is a lawyer. My mother works in a hospital. She takes care of the old people. I love reading. There are about 200 books in my room. Do you want to be my friend? I’m Tom. I’m fourteen and I’m from Singapore. I have a big family. My grandparents, my parents, my brother and I live together in a very big house. I like playing ping-pong and going bike riding. Hello, I’m Emma. I’m fifteen years old. I live in the UK, but I’m on a study tour in China with three of my classmates these days. Chinese people are friendly. I really like the noodles here. They are so delicious. I’d like to have a Chinese friend. My name is Li Yue. I live in Shenzhen with my family. It is a big city in China. My mother is an English teacher. With her help, I can speak English well. If you are interested in China, I’d like to tell you a lot about my country. 21. What is Paul’s mother? A. A lawyer. B. A nurse. C. A writer. D. A teacher. 22. How many people are there in Tom’s family? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six. 23. Who is with Emma in China? A. Her parents. B. Her Chinese friend. C. Her classmates. D. Her brother. 24. If Helen is interested in Chinese culture, who could she make friends with according to the text? A. Paul. B. Tom. C. Emma. D. Li Yue. 25. What can we learn from the text? A. Tom likes doing sports. B. Paul has a collection of 20 books. C. Emma enjoys Mapo Tofu. D. Li Yue’s mother works in the UK. B Some of my family members, like my grandparents, don’t live near me. During the winter holidays and some other vacations, my little sister and I will visit them with our parents. On other days, we often write letters to them. One time, we decided to make a special letter to send to our grandparents. First, we took out lots of markers. We used paper and folded it in half. Then, we drew a picture on the front. In the picture, we were making cookies with our grandparents. We colored it all in. On the inside, we wrote down our wish list for the next holiday, including making cookies for them. Another time, we wrote a letter to our cousin Peter and cut it up into large pieces. We included a note in the envelope (信封). The note explained that he should put the puzzle (拼图) pieces together to read the letter. It was a lot of fun! Writing a letter is a special way to stay in touch with your family. The letter doesn’t have to be perfect. Just write something and put it in the mailbox. It will make your family members really happy! 26. Why do the writer and his sister often write letters to their grandparents? A. Their grandparents live far away. B. They enjoy writing very much. C. Their parents ask them to do so. D. Their grandparents can’t use phones. 27. How did they make a special letter for their grandparents? A They made real cookies and put them in. B. They wrote a story about their holiday. C They drew a picture and wrote a wish list. D. They put their favorite markers inside. 28. What does the underlined phrase “stay in touch” in Paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Meet often. B. Communicate. C. Talk happily. D. Help each other. 29. What made the letter to Peter different? A. Peter received it when it was his birthday. B. The writer included some family photos in it. C. Peter couldn’t read it until he finished a puzzle. D. The writer and his sister wrote it on a computer. 30. What does the writer want to tell us in the last paragraph? A. Emails are better than paper letters. B. Only handwritten letters can show love. C. Letters must be perfect to make people happy. D. A simple letter can bring joy to family members. C You may think science is serious, but not at the Pineapple Science Award (菠萝科学奖)! It honors interesting findings in science. Zhejiang Science and Technology Museum started this award in 2012. This year, the winners came out on November 22. We chose three to share with you. ·Biology award When ants have others around, they work harder! Scientists in Australia watched ants that make homes with leaves. They used fake (假的) leaves with force sensors (传感器) to see how strong the ants are when pulling leaves. After checking over 30,000 ants, they found that ants pulled really hard—103 times their body weight—when other ants were around. But when alone, they only pulled 60 times their weight. ·Medical award Do you know what intermittent fasting (轻断食) is? It’s when you eat for only eight hours a day and don’t eat for the other 16 hours. Many people do it to lose weight. But scientists at Westlake University in China found that in mice, this kind of fasting can make special cells (细胞) in hair roots die. In other words, it will cause hair loss. ·Psychology (心理学) award Guessing which hand is hiding a coin (硬币) is a very popular magical trick. If you can’t guess right, the problem might be your hands. Scientists in Singapore asked magicians to do this trick for jays (松鸦). The jays only guessed wrong 30 percent of the time, while humans guessed wrong 75 percent. Why? Magicians use hand movements to trick people, but jays don’t have hands, so they can’t be tricked, said the scientists. 31. What is the main purpose of the Pineapple Science Award? A. To award scientists for their serious research. B. To honor interesting and fun scientific discoveries. C. To encourage people to lose weight in a healthy way. D. To teach students about biology and psychology. 32. What did scientists in Australia learn about ants? A. Ants can move big leaves. B. Ants try less when they work alone. C. Ants prefer to work in groups. D. Ants can tell if a leaf is real or fake. 33. According to the study, what might happen if someone does intermittent fasting? A. It might help the brain grow faster. B. It might make brain cells die. C. It might cause hair loss problems. D. It might help people live longer. 34. Why can jays do better than humans in the coin trick? A. Hand moves don’t trick them. B. They have better problem-solving skills. C. They can see things more clearly. D. The magicians gave them a lot of training. 35. Which section of a magazine is the text probably from? A. Nature. B. Health. C. Culture. D. Science. D Imagine ordering your favourite burger and having it fly to your door. Well, that’s exactly what’s happening on an island in Sweden A company from Norway, Aviant, is testing a new service: sending food by drone (无人机). The drones bring hot, fresh hamburgers from a fast-food restaurant to people’s homes on Värmdö island. This island is near Stockholm, the capital of Sweden, but it is not easy to get to quickly. Especially in the long winter months, when it gets very cold and the sea freezes, the journey becomes even more challenging. You can drive or take a boat, but you can’t cycle or walk there. And tens of thousands of people live there, with tens of thousands more coming to stay for the summer. “As you can see on the map, there are 87,000 people who cannot get a home delivery (投递) service,” said an Aviant official. “They live in areas far from the city centre and would like to order takeaway (外卖) food, but they have no choice.” Right now, this drone service is being tested. They deliver only about 10 meals a week. They can fly for 10 minutes and travel about 10 kilometers. People are excited to see drones bringing their food. It’s like a flying robot delivering dinner! The testing took three years. At first, the food arrived cold or wet! But now, even in the cold weather of Sweden and Norway, the food stays warm when it arrives. Aviant plans to expand the service next to an area in Norway. If everything goes well, they hope to use drones to deliver food in more places across Northern Europe, and maybe even in North America one day. So, could your next meal come from the sky? For some people, that future is already here! 36. Why did Aviant test its drones on Värmdö island? A. There are no fast-food restaurants nearby. B. The people there like to order food online. C Many homes there can’t get food delivery. D. It is far from the city and has very few people. 37. What problem did the drones have at first? A. They flew too high. B. The food arrived cold or wet. C. They cost too much money. D. Heat stopped them from flying. 38. How many meals do the drones deliver each week now? A. About 10. B. About 87. C. About 1,000. D. About 10,000. 39. What is Aviant’s next plan if the test keeps going well? A. Sell drones to American schools. B. Build new restaurants on Värmdö. C. Stop using drones in delivering food. D. Bring the service to a place in Norway. 40. What may be the best title for the text? A. Burgers by Drone B. Driving in Winter C. Summer on an Island D. Making Fast Food 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 It’s easy to get worried when you have a lot on your plate. By creating an organized to-do list, you can feel ready for anything in your life. ____41____ List all of your tasks. These tasks include simple things like taking a shower and difficult ones like preparing a presentation for English class. ____42____ It will make sure you don’t forget anything, and it will also help you clear your mind. ____43____ For example, you may have a to-do list for school and a to-do list for home. By creating separate lists, you can focus your attention and energy on one set of tasks at a time. Make your list look nice. This might seem unimportant, but it can change the way you look at your to-do list. ____44____ Just create a list that encourages you to stay positive and get things done. Place it where you can see it. There is no point in creating a list if you put it in a drawer and forget about it. ____45____ Physically seeing a list of tasks you need to complete can light the motivational (激发性的) fire within you. A. Everyone needs a to-do list. B. Just write everything down. C. Sort your tasks into different types. D. Make sure you can see it very easily! E. For example, you can write it in your favorite color. F. This makes it easier to do your tasks one by one. G. Here are some tips for how to make a good to-do list. 第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Amy: Hi, Ken. Our community will hold an activity to clean up the park this Saturday. ____46____ Ken: Yes, I did. How about you? Amy: Me too. I’m just thinking about what to prepare. Do you have any advice? Ken: Well, we might need gloves and rubbish bags. ____47____ Amy: Good idea. Let’s take some from home. Ken: OK. ____48____ Amy: Oh, I’d love to. Ken: Great! It’s green and healthy. Amy: Right. By the way, I also plan to plant a tree there if possible. Ken: ____49____ It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener. Amy: Will you bring your younger sister with you? Ken: Yeah, she wants to come. ____50____ Amy: Great! Let’s meet at the park gate at 9 a.m. 46. A. Did you hear about it? B. What time will it start? C. Are you going to join? D. Can you help organize it? 47. A. Where did you buy them? B. How many do we need? C. Why don’t we bring them? D. Who can help us get some? 48. A. How will you go there? B. Can you give me a lift? C. What would you like to be? D. Shall we go there by bike? 49. A. Good for you! B. Nothing serious. C I don’t agree. D. Sounds tiring. 50. A. She’s too young to join us. B. She likes nature a lot. C. She is busy this weekend. D. She dislikes getting dirty. 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last Saturday, Lily, sixteen, helped at her aunt’s small milk-tea shop. It was close to the city hospital, ____51____ many nurses and doctors came in for a quick drink. At five o’clock a young nurse named Kate walked in, looking very tired. She ordered a warm brown-sugar milk tea and sat at the corner table. Lily saw Kate’s eyes were ____52____, as if she had been crying. “Kind words give people a ____53____ of hope.” Lily remembered what her aunt said ____54____ making the drink. She took a blank paper cup, wrote a short message with a red marker, and stuck it on the side: “Thank you for keeping our city ____55____. Tomorrow will be kinder.” She ____56____ a tiny smiling sun beside the words. Kate took the drink ____57____ noticing the note. After the first sip (一小口) she saw the message. Lily watched from behind the counter. Kate’s face changed ____58____—surprise first, then a soft smile. She took a photo of the cup, finished the tea, and walked back to the counter. “Can I speak to the girl who ____59____ this drink?” she asked. Lily stepped forward, a little ____60____. Kate placed a hospital badge (徽章) on the table. “I just finished a twelve-hour shift (轮班). Three patients died today. Your note felt like a warm hand pulling me ____61____ cold water. I will keep the cup on my desk to remember that strangers care.” Before leaving, Kate ____62____ two more drinks and told Lily to give them to the next healthcare workers who came in. She wrote on a piece of paper, “Kindness is like bubble tea (珍珠奶茶)—____63____ spreads (扩散) when you shake it. Trust the good you send out; it ____64____ comes back.” For the rest of the evening Lily kept thinking about the note that went from her hand to a stranger’s ____65____. That night she wrote in her diary: “If you want to help others, you don’t need big plans. A tiny note can make a big smile.” 51. A. but B. so C. because D. or 52. A. blue B. black C. red D. brown 53. A. block B. sense C. chance D. date 54. A. where B. how C. who D. when 55. A. safe B. popular C. easy D. rich 56. A. talked B. wrote C. drew D. smiled 57. A. until B. except C. against D. without 58. A. slowly B. surely C. easily D. carefully 59. A. drank B. made C. bought D. signed 60. A. serious B. warm C. afraid D. humour 61. A. out of B. up to C. across from D. along with 62. A. depended on B. packed up C. worried about D. paid for 63. A. friendship B. confidence C. sweetness D. mixture 64 A. often B. never C. sometimes D. always 65. A. mouth B. heart C. ears D. eyes 第三节 语法填空（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 阅读下面句子，用括号内所给单词的正确形式完成句子。 66. Will AI make our life better or ________ (bad)? 67. We will go for a picnic if it ________ (rain) tomorrow. 68. My dream job is to be a fashion ________ (design). 69. Parents make rules to help children grow up ________ (health). 70. Kindness is one of the most important ________ (quality) for us. 71. My grandma ________ (teach) me to make pumpkin pie. 72. It’s ________ (possible) for me to be there on time because of the heavy traffic. 第四节 阅读填空（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In 2016, Disney’s Zootopia 《疯狂动物城》 was a huge success. The movie ____73____ (show) a city full of talking animals and had a good message about teamwork. Now, Zootopia 2 is coming with another ____74____ (excite) adventure! This time, Judy Hopps and Nick Wilde have a new challenge. The police ____75____ (partner) find that their friendship isn’t strong enough. Their boss, Chief Bogo, makes them join a special program ____76____ (fix) their teamwork. But then, something big happens. A snake comes to Zootopia and brings new danger. Judy and Nick try to solve the problem. Together, they go undercover (卧底) to a new place. There they meet new characters and face their biggest challenge. Zootopia 2 is as fun and moving as the ____77____ (one) movie. It shows how friends can learn to work together again. Many people plan to watch this new movie. A viewer ____78____ Guangzhou mentioned that the story let people feel warm and real. “I believe more young people ____79____ (fall) in love with it since it mixes laughter with thoughtful messages.” So don’t ____80____ (miss) the wild ride 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 81. A: ________________________ B: Yes. Emma is good at running. 82. A: What does Li Wei want to be when he grows up? B: ________________________. 83. A: ________________________ B: We need half a cup of it. 84. A: ________________________ B: Yes, there will. People will live longer. 85. A: What are you going to do this weekend, John? B: ________________________. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 86. 假如你是李华，学校要举办“国际学生美食文化节”，来自不同国家的交换生们将分享他们的传统美食和背后的故事。作为活动组织者之一，请你以“My Memory Dish”为题，用英语写一篇短文，向外国小伙伴们介绍一道对你有特殊意义的菜肴（食物），用于学校活动的英文宣传册。 内容包括： 1. 描述一道你家的特色菜（食物）； 2. 解释这道菜（食物）带给你什么样的回忆或感受； 3. 说明这道菜（食物）对你的重要意义。 写作要求： 1. 文中应包括所给内容要点，可适当发挥，使文章连贯； 2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息； 3. 词数100左右，题目已给出，不计入总词数。 My Memory Dish __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2026年八年级期末学情调研、英语试题听力测试现在开始。第一节在录音中，你将听到五个句子，从每小题ABC中选出适当的应答语，每个句子读两遍。One, could you give me a lift? One, could you give me a lift? Two is Julia slam than you? Two is july slater than you. Three, lets go boating on the lake. Three, lets go boating on . the lake. For what do you want to be when you are older? For what do you want to be when you are older? Five, where did you go for the new year holiday? Five, where did you go for the new year holiday? 第二节在录音中你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案，每段对话读两遍。Six, your bedroom is tidy, bill, do you create every day? Thanks. Linda. I usually clean ate every thursday and saturday. Six, your bedroom is tidy, bill, do you create every day? Thanks. Linda. I usually clean IT every thursday and saturday. Seven, what did you do last sunday? Sam, I went . climbing with my father. After that, we played chess with his friends. Sounds good. I went to the cinema with my cousin that afternoon. Seven, what did you do last sunday? Sam. I went climbing with my father. After that, we played the chess with his friends. Sounds good. I went to the cinema with my cousin that afternoon. eight. Hi, Frank. I want to make an apple pie, but I don't know how to do IT. Don't worry, lisa, I will help you after I go shopping with jim. eight. Hi, Frank. I want to make an apple pie, but I don't know how to do IT. Don't worry, lisa, I will help you after I go shopping with jim. Nine, jim, are you going to travel this winter holiday? No, i'm going to take swimming lessons to make me strong and healthy. Nine, jim, are you going to travel this winter holiday? No. i'm going to take swimming lessons to make me strong and healthy. Ten, excuse me, could you please tell me where I can find the grapes? Yes, they are in the fruit area. Please follow me. Thank you. You are welcome. Ten, excuse me, could you please tell me where I can find . the grapes? Yes, they are in the fruit area. Please follow me. Thank you. You are welcome. 第三节在录音中你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，对话读两遍。Hi, alex. Are you all right? Yeah, Helen, i'm really excited. Mike, bob and I are going to camp this saturday. We will make a campfire at all. Sounds fantastic. Did my and bob actually say they're excited? Not yet, but we'll love IT. wait. You don't like the plan, do you? Well, to be honest, i'm not sure my birthday party is on saturday. remember? Oh, I totally forgot. No worries. Will camp next weekend. Are your text mike and bombs now? Really you don't mind? Of course not. There's no way we are missing your party. Thanks, alex. Party does at for my mom says she's going to make beef and she's pizza. Sounds great. And i'll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. cool. I'll prepare some soft drinks. wonderful. See you on saturday. Hi, alex. Are you all right? Yeah, Helen, i'm really excited. Mike, bob and I are going to camp this saturday. We will make a camp fire at all. Sounds fantastic. A did micon bob actually see their . excited? Not yet, but they'll love IT. Wait, you don't like the plan, do you? Well, to be honest, i'm not sure. But my birthday party is on saturday. remember? Oh, I totally forgot. No worries. Will camp next weekend. I, your text, mike and bomb. Now. really, you don't mind. Of course not. There's no way we are missing your party. Thanks, alex. Party does at for my mom says she's going to make beef and she's pizzas. Sounds great. And i'll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. cool. I'll prepare some soft drinks. wonderful. See you on saturday. 第四节在录音中你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，短文读两遍。Good morning, boys and girls, is monday today and is Sunny. Here's today's school news, first sports news. Last week, our school held an exciting football match. Class four grade took first place. Next comes the health news. mr. Wang will give us a speech on how to stay safe while doing exercise. The speech will begin at four P. M. This tuesday in the school hall. Police arrive on time. Third, there is the news about after class activities, there will be an english play in the garden at all school on wednesday afternoon, and the school library will hold the show of modern art paintings on thursday. Feel free to join I the event. And finally, a group of students from england will visit our school this friday. Let's give them a warm welcome. That's all for now. Thank you. Good morning, boys and girls, is monday today and is Sunny. Here's today's school news. First, the sports news. Last week, our school had an exciting football match. Class for great aid took first place. Next comes the health news. mr. One will give us a speech on how to stay safe while doing exercise. The speech will begin at four P. M. This tuesday in the school hall. Please arrive on time. But there is the news about after class activities, there will be an english play in the garden at our school on wednesday afternoon, and the school library will hold a shot of more than art paintings on thursday. Feel free to join either event. And finally, a group of students from england will visit our school this friday. Let's give them a warm welcome. That's awful. Now, thank you. 听力测试结束，请做必答题。