内容正文:
2025-2026学年第一学期期末考试英语试题
第一部分 听力(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读两遍。
1. How will the woman go home?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. On foot.
2. What meal are the speakers probably preparing for?
A. Breakfast. B. Lunch. C. Supper.
3. How many eggs does the woman want?
A. 4. B. 8. C. 24.
4. Who made the phone call?
A. Hyman. B. The woman’s boss. C. The guest speaker.
5. When will the tomatoes be harvested?
A. In a month. B. In 2 weeks. C. In 3 weeks.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why should the window be closed?
A. To block out light.
B To keep out the cold air.
C. To prevent insects from entering.
7. Where do the speakers live?
A. In a village. B. In a city. C. In a town.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What is Sarah’s problem?
A. She feels really worn out.
B. She can’t keep up with Jacob.
C. She falls sick due to overwork
9. Who is Ella?
A. Jacob’s assistant. B. A foreign student. C. Sarah’s coworker.
10. What has Sarah been trying to do?
A. Cut back on coffee. B. Pursue further studies. C. Hire a new worker.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Teacher and student.
12. How can James be admitted into the University of Calgary?
A. By achieving 3 A’s.
B By passing the 4 courses.
C. By getting an A in literature.
13. What major is James planning to study?
A. History. B. Literature. C. Economics.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. What does the woman probably do?
A. A manager. B. A headmaster. C. A technician.
15. What is Jason’s strength?
A. Being good at product design.
B. Getting on well with customers.
C. Providing necessary information.
16. What area does Jason need to improve?
A. Training workers. B. Time management. C. Problem-solving skills.
17. What are the speakers doing?
A. Conducting a job interview.
B. Organizing a meeting.
C. Discussing a project.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. When does Liu Xin usually get up?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00.
19. What does Liu Xin say about the school cafeteria?
A. It is pretty crowded.
B. It offers many kinds of food.
C. It is far from teaching buildings.
20. Which extra-curricular activities did Liu Xin join?
A. Soccer team and music club.
B. Tennis team and drama club.
C. Basketball team and art club.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
A
Do you know how children in other countries spend their schooldays and what kind of games they always play?
Children in Brazil
School
The school year runs from February to December. Children attend (上学) school for about four hours in the morning or the afternoon. About a quarter of children in Brazil do not attend school at all.
Play
Football is the most popular sport. Brazil’s beautiful beaches also make swimming and volleyball popular.
Family
Brazilian families are often large. Nearly a third of the population is under eighteen!
Children in France
School
The school day begins from 8:00 am to 4:00 pm, with a two-hour lunch break. Schools close on Wednesday and Sunday, and are closed for a half day on Saturday.
Play
Football, bicycling and tennis are favorite sports in France. In some areas, pelote, a traditional ball game, is also very popular.
Family
Most French mothers work. The majority of preschool (幼儿园) children attend day care centres known as crèches.
France has laws about naming children and all names have to be chosen from an official list.
Children in Japan
School
Schools in Japan are very competitive (竞争的). Even pre-schoolers may attend “cramming (填鸭式教学的) schools” to prepare for exams. There is a summer break about six weeks, but the children have homework during this time.
Play
Comic books have been popular in Japan since the 1700s. Comics now account for about 40% of all published materials in Japan. Kite flying is enjoyed by people of every age.
Family
Homes in Japan are small on average. The typical family of four lives in five small rooms. Most fathers in Japan work long hours. As a result, some children only see their fathers on weekends or holidays.
1. What kind of sport is very popular in France?
① Kite flying. ② Bicycling. ③ Football. ④ Pelote.
A ②③④ B. ①②③
C. ①④ D. ①②③④
2. What is a crèche in France?
A. Places with beautiful beaches.
B. The name of the place where French mothers work.
C. A day care centre for preschool children.
D. Cramming schools to improve children’s exam results.
3. In Japan, many children ________.
A. like to read comic books B. write their names on an official list
C. only see their fathers on weekdays D. do not attend school
B
Nola (August 21, 1974—November 22, 2015) was a northern white rhino who lived at the San Diego Zoo Safari Park near Escondido, California. At her death, she was one of only four remaining northern white rhinos in the world. The other three lived in Kenya. World Rhino Day, held on September 2, is to raise awareness(意识) of the less than 30, 000 other rhinos left on Earth.
''Rhinos need our help today, not tomorrow,'' Nola's lead keeper Jane Kennedy said. ''Last year we lost over 1, 200 rhinos just in South Africa. If we continue to lose more than 1, 000 rhinos a year, in 10 to 20 years all the rhinos on the planet will be gone. ''
''Unfortunately, most animals are in danger of dying out because of humans,'' Kennedy says. ''Humans have either poached animals, or because there are over seven billion of us, we've taken up too much of the world's resources''. Poachers illegally hunt rhinos for their horns. They sell the horns for thousands of dollars per pound, to be used for art, jewelry, and decorations. Experts believe that one rhino is poached every eight hours.
In 1975, the San Diego Zoo Institute for Conservation Research started the Frozen Zoo, a program through which researchers have collected cell (细胞) samples from more than 8, 000 different types of animals, including the northern white rhino. Scientists hope that by studying the rhino cells, they will get greater understanding of it, and will find ways to increase its numbers.
Jane Kennedy describes World Rhino Day as a celebration of rhinos along with an awareness campaign for everybody across the world to know that rhinos need our help. ''At the San Diego Zoo, children and adults are welcome to visit and speak with zookeepers to learn about rhinos. But you don't have to live in San Diego to celebrate World Rhino Day. It is observed around the world, with zoos and wildlife parks holding special events and programs to teach people about rhinos, and enable them to see the animals up close. For more information, go to www. worldrhinoday. org.
4. What do we know about Nola?
A. It was a baby white rhino.
B. It was one of the last of its kind.
C. It lived with other northern white rhinos in Kenya.
D. It died on September 22 at the San Diego Zoo Safari Park.
5. What troubled Jane Kennedy according to Paragraph 2?
A. The rhinos' uncertain future.
B. The rhinos' strange activities.
C. The limited natural resources.
D The rare animals in South Africa.
6. What does the Frozen Zoo aim to do?
A. Invent new kinds of animals.
B. Keep animals from dying out.
C. Prevent rhinos from being hunted.
D. Raise public awareness of rhinos.
7. What is the main purpose of the last paragraph?
A. To help people know more about animals.
B. To encourage people to protect rhinos.
C. To report special events in San Diego.
D. To introduce World Rhino Day.
C
Learning a new language is like you’re going through the jungle with a knife and creating a path. When you learn two languages at once, you’re cutting your way through the jungle to create two paths, which requires twice the discipline (自律), time and motivation.
But it is possible. A 2020 study published in the International Journal of Multilingualism found that Chinese students learning English and Russian at the same time achieved similar mastery in English compared to a control group that just studied English. This is likely because they have already made enormous efforts. A 2017 study suggests that bilinguals (双语者) can learn new languages faster than single-language learners.
The biggest challenge of learning two languages at the same time is finding enough time and opportunities to study them. But to know just how many efforts and resources to put into it, you’ll need to decide what you want to achieve with the languages you’re planning to adopt. Becoming professor-level fluent in Polish is going to take a really long time, but if you want to be able to have conversations while you’re traveling, that won’t take as much time.
To help you distribute (分配) your time and energy more effectively, and get a better idea of what your study plan will look like, it’s important to understand how difficult a particular language is for a native English speaker. While it can take up to 2,200 hours to learn languages like Arabic and Mandarin, if you grew up speaking English, it’ll be easier for you to pick up Czech and German, for example. The easiest languages for native English speakers to learn include Spanish French, and Portuguese, which require between 600 and 750 hours of class to achieve professional mastery.
If it feels too discouraging to go full speed ahead on both languages right away, it might be easier to understand basic grammar and vocabulary for one language before adding another one to the mix.
8. Why can bilingual learners do as well as single-language learners?
A. Bilingual learners are cleverer.
B. Bilingual learners work harder.
C. Bilingual learners are more interested in languages.
D. Bilingual learners have a better learning environment.
9 What determines the time it takes to learn foreign languages?
A. The occasions of using the languages.
B. The steps to learn the languages.
C. The professors teaching the languages.
D. The purpose of learning the languages.
10. Which language is hardest for native English speakers according to the text?
A. French. B. German. C. Mandarin. D. Portuguese.
11. What is the best title for the text?
A. Learning Two Languages at Once B. Ways of Leaning a New Language
C. Language Talent of Chinese Students D. Difficulty in Learning Language
D
Is looking fashionable (时髦的) more important than being comfortable? Many people seem to think so, judging (判断) by the things they wear. But fashion is not everything. It is more important to be a healthy and good person.
People go to great lengths to be fashionable. Some people think they have to have a certain body type, so they go on extreme, unhealthy diets in order to change their bodies. In addition, many women wear uncomfortable fashions, such as high-heeled shoes that cause pain to their feet, and tight body shapes that limit (限制) blood flow. Men and women alike spend time and money on products that change their natural hair colour or hairstyle. Some people even spend several hours a day in front of a mirror. Is fashion so important that people spend so much time and effort on changing what they look like?
If the purpose of fashion is to make a person feel good, it does not make sense that he or she would go through so much discomfort to be fashionable. Fashion should not come first. People should put their health and positive image in the first place. What people wear does not say anything about their personalities. Instead of spending hours in choosing a dress, perhaps you should call your friends and do something together, such as playing soccer or badminton. Instead of going on strict diets and forcing yourself to stay hungry, why not eat some healthy foods and then exercise? By doing these things, you can keep a healthy lifestyle and truly grow as a person.
12. What is the author’s attitude to people’s putting fashion above health?
A. Curious. B. Encouraging. C. Unsupportive. D. Unclear.
13. What is paragraph 2 mainly about?
A. The fashion industry is strong. B. Beauty products are harmful to health.
C. People try very hard to be fashionable. D. Both women and men search for beauty.
14. Which of the following activities would the author most likely recommend?
A. Going skiing with friends. B. Starting a new diet with a friend.
C. Changing hairstyles every week. D. Shopping for fashionable clothes.
15. What is the author’s main purpose in writing the text?
A. To introduce the latest fashion trends.
B. To tell readers how to remain fashionable.
C. To advise readers to value health over fashion.
D. To show readers advantages and disadvantages of dieting.
第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题,每小题2.5分,满分12.5)
Earthquakes are a terrible natural disaster that will cause lots of danger and damage. In the last few years, we have seen some of the worst earthquakes in history. ____16____ However, we do get some signs from animals, including dogs!
Dogs have been known to warm their owners that dangerous weather was coming. We can take the ways our dog reacts (反应) in certain situations to give us a hand in predicting when something like an earthquake may be about to happen.
Although the signs of a dog sensing an earthquake aren’t very clear, dogs who sense earthquakes will show certain signs before the event actually happens. ____17____ You know your dog well, so it will not be too challenging to tell when there is something wrong. Some dogs will begin to run around in circles and pace up and down crazily. It may appear as if something has frightened them or as if they saw something that made them nervous. ____18____.
On the other hand, dogs will instinctively look for shelter when they sense bad weather or they feel like they are in danger. ____19____. Or if they are outside, they may go into their dog house. It is important to that just because your dog is showing all or some of these signs, it does not mean an earthquake or other natural disaster is about to strike.
____20____. But take their behaviors seriously and do what you feel is right depending on the situation.
A. Many dogs can tell smelly gas.
B. Your dog may run off or hide under a bed.
C. Using dogs to predict earthquakes is not new
D. If there is a coming earthquake, your dog will act strangely.
E. They will also often bark for what seems to be no right reason.
F. Earthquakes generally come with no warning and are hard to predict.
G. There may be other reasons dogs may act this way or appear afraid for seemingly no reason.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
It was the month of September and the autumn break was about to begin in a few weeks’ time. Our first term exams had just ended and we were free from the burden (负担) of ___21___ at least for a few days. Our school plans ___22___ during the autumn break. I always ___23___ to go on such a trip and have fun with my friends.
While my parents allowed me to go on local school trips, they had always been ___24___ about sending me on faraway trips. They thought I was too ___25___ and careless. I tried to persuade them each year to let me go on these school trips but they ___26___. However, after a lot of persuading, my mother promised that she would send me when I reached grade IX as I would be older. So, last year I reminded her of her promise. Luckily, she ___27___ to send me on my school trip. My joy knew no bounds (边界). A few of my close friends had also got permission from their parents and we were super ___28___ about our trip.
I was ___29___ to get a window seat on the train as there was a lot to see outside. The view of small sand hills, green fields and long roads ____30____ me and I was glued to the window for most of the journey. For the rest of the ____31____, we played cards, which was super fun. I just ____32____ the journey would never end. ____33____, before we even realized it, we had reached the station. I ____34____ the train journey back to my home town as I really enjoyed train journeys.
Train journeys have always interested me. I have gone on quite a few of them but this one was more ____35____ because I was traveling with my friends. I am looking forward to more such train journeys.
21. A. care B. diseases C. life D. studies
22. A. trips B. meetings C. interviews D. tasks
23. A. wanted B. forgot C. decided D. chose
24. A. certain B. clear C. wrong D. worried
25. A. brave B. young C. strong D. busy
26. A. refused B. failed C. accepted D. tried
27. A. pretended B. needed C. agreed D. continued
28. A. nervous B. serious C. careful D. excited
29. A. lucky B. afraid C. proud D. sorry
30. A. attracted B. changed C. hurt D. saved
31. A. autumn B. term C. journey D. break
32. A. wished B. doubted C. explained D. guessed
33. A. Also B. Instead C. Besides D. However
34. A. searched for B. dreamt of C. shared D. preferred
35. A. strange B. helpful C. difficult D. special
第二节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
语法填空
Traditional Chinese opera may seem miles apart from today’s youth culture. Yet, in the hands of director Li Zhuoqun, this ancient art form has found unexpected vitality (生命力). With respect for heritage and a bold eye for ____36____(innovate), Li is proving that traditional Chinese opera can be transformed into a dynamic (有活力的) stage where timeless emotions ____37____(express) in fresh ways.
In collaboration with the National Centre for the Performing Arts, Li’s latest Peking Opera production, Yan Zhenqing, was primarily performed on Wednesday, ____38____(feature) artists from the Jingju Theater Company of Beijing. Set against the Tang Dynasty, the production tells the story of Yan Zhenqing, a man ____39____ made sacrifice (牺牲, 奉献) for his country. Although famous for his calligraphy works, it’s Yan’s courage on the battlefield against corruption (腐败) at the age of 75 that ____40____(touch) modern audience’s hearts.
____41____ the support of multimedia technology, Li brings this historical figure to life, creating a visual feast (视觉盛宴) that enhances the drama while honouring the core traditions of Peking Opera. “Each school (流派) brings ____42____ unique flavor to the performance,” says Li.
____43____(notice) by younger audiences, Li’s approach proves to be successful. Yan Zhenqing has drawn praise from those who may not have normally engaged with Peking Opera. “The visuals were stunning, and the story felt so ____44____(relevance) to ours today. It was somewhat old ____45____ made new again,” an audience wrote on Little Red Book.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,暑假在伦敦作为交换生学习,得知当地美术馆要举办中国画展。请写一封信申请(apply for)做志愿者,内容包括:
1.写信目的:2.个人优势:3.能做的事情。
注意:1.词数100左右; 2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 3.结束语已为你写好。
Dear Sir/Madam,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Meredith family lived in a small community. As the economy was in decline, some people in the town had lost their jobs. Many of their families were struggling to make ends meet. People were trying to help each other meet the challenges.
Mrs. Meredith was a most kind and thoughtful woman. She spent a great deal of time visiting the poor. She knew they had problems, and they needed all kinds of help. When she had time, she would bring food and medicine to them.
One morning she told her children about a family she had visited the day before. There was a man sick in bed, his wife, who took care of him and could not go out to work, and their little boy. The little boy -his name was Bernard-had interested her very much.
“I wish you could see him,” she said to her own children, John, Harry, and Clara. “He is such a help to his mother. He wants very much to earn some money, but I don't see what he can do.”
After their mother left the room, the children sat thinking about Bernard. “I wish we could help him to earn money,” said Clara. “His family is suffering so much.”
“So do I,” said Harry. “We really should do something to assist them.”
For some moments, John said nothing, but, suddenly, he sprang to his feet and cried, “I have a great idea! I have a solution that we can all help accomplish (完成).”
The other children also jumped up all attention. When John had an idea, it was sure to be a good one. “I tell you what we can do,” said John. “You know that big box of corn Uncle John sent us? Well, we can make popcorn (爆米花), and put it into paper bags, and Bernard can take it around to the houses and sell it.”
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右:
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
When Mrs. Meredith heard of John's idea, she thought it was a good one, too.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
With everything ready, Bernard started out on his new business.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025-2026学年第一学期期末考试英语试题
第一部分 听力(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读两遍。
1. How will the woman go home?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. On foot.
2. What meal are the speakers probably preparing for?
A. Breakfast. B. Lunch. C. Supper.
3. How many eggs does the woman want?
A. 4. B. 8. C. 24.
4. Who made the phone call?
A. Hyman. B. The woman’s boss. C. The guest speaker.
5. When will the tomatoes be harvested?
A. In a month. B. In 2 weeks. C. In 3 weeks.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why should the window be closed?
A. To block out light.
B. To keep out the cold air.
C. To prevent insects from entering.
7. Where do the speakers live?
A. In a village. B. In a city. C. In a town.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What is Sarah’s problem?
A. She feels really worn out.
B. She can’t keep up with Jacob.
C. She falls sick due to overwork
9. Who is Ella?
A. Jacob’s assistant. B. A foreign student. C. Sarah’s coworker.
10. What has Sarah been trying to do?
A. Cut back on coffee. B. Pursue further studies. C. Hire a new worker.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Teacher and student.
12. How can James be admitted into the University of Calgary?
A. By achieving 3 A’s.
B. By passing the 4 courses.
C. By getting an A in literature.
13. What major is James planning to study?
A. History. B. Literature. C. Economics.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. What does the woman probably do?
A. A manager. B. A headmaster. C. A technician.
15. What is Jason’s strength?
A. Being good at product design.
B. Getting on well with customers.
C. Providing necessary information.
16. What area does Jason need to improve?
A. Training workers. B. Time management. C. Problem-solving skills.
17. What are the speakers doing?
A. Conducting a job interview.
B. Organizing a meeting.
C. Discussing a project.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. When does Liu Xin usually get up?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00.
19. What does Liu Xin say about the school cafeteria?
A. It is pretty crowded.
B. It offers many kinds of food.
C. It is far from teaching buildings.
20. Which extra-curricular activities did Liu Xin join?
A. Soccer team and music club.
B. Tennis team and drama club.
C. Basketball team and art club.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. D 10. C 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. C 14. A 15. C
第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题,每小题2.5分,满分12.5)
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. F 17. D 18. E 19. B 20. G
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. D
第二节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. innovation
37. are expressed
38. featuring
39. who 40. touches
41. With 42. a
43. Noticed
44. relevant
45. but
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Sir/Madam,
I’m Li Hua, an exchange student from China during this summer vacation. I’m delighted to learn that volunteer students are wanted for a Chinese painting exhibition to be held in the local art gallery. Now I’m writing to apply for the position.
The reasons for my application are as follows. First of all, having been exposed to foreign teachers since a young age, I can communicate freely with others in English. What’s more, years of being monitor makes me a brilliant organizer, which will help a lot to keep the exhibition in order. The most important factor is that my related knowledge will undoubtedly help the audience learn more about the unique Chinese art form.
All in all, my sense of responsibility will make me a qualified volunteer. I’d appreciate it if you could take my application into consideration.
Yours
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】When Mrs. Meredith heard of John’s idea, she thought it was a good one, too. So, they went to the local supermarket together. They bought some special bags for popcorn. When they got home, they made a lot of popcorn and put it in the special bags. With the popcorn, they went to Bernard’s home. They told Bernard how to sell the popcorn. Bernard and his parents were very grateful. And the Meredith family also felt very happy to help this family.
With everything ready, Bernard started out on his new business. He took the popcorn around to the houses and sold all his popcorn. He earned a lot of money. Then, he wanted to be self-dependent. Therefore, he asked Mrs. Meredith to teach him how to make popcorn. After that, not only did he sell popcorn, but he also added cream and salt to the popcorn to make it taste better. Bernard grew up to be a remarkable man. He did not forget the help of Meredith’s family, and he also did what he could to help those in need.
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