内容正文:
2025-2026学年上期九年级期末质量监测英语试卷
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共四部分。全卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答卷之前,考生务必按要求将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号准确填写在答题卡上相应的位置。
3. 考生选出选择题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,请用橡皮擦擦干净,再选涂其它答案。非选择题答案用0. 5毫米的黑色签字笔在答题卡相应的答题区作答,超出限定区域的答案无效。
4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效;考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面五段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How’s the weather now?
A. B. C.
2. What does the girl’s father do?
A. B. C.
3. How far is it from here to People’s Hospital?
A. 100 meters. B. 15 minutes’ walk. C. 15 minutes’ bus ride.
4. Who does the girl often turn to for help?
A. Her parents. B. Her friends. C. Her teachers.
5. Where may the two speakers bc?
A. In a zoo. B. At a store. C. In a library.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面五段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听对话,回答以下各小题
6. How does Mike feel?
A. Tired. B. Worried. C. Bored.
7. What does Ella do in the evening?
A. She watches English movies. B. She reads English stories. C. She listens to the tape.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
8. What did Emma and her friends do last night?
A. Went shopping. B. Did the cooking. C. Had a dinner party.
9. What was Emma’s problem?
A. She picked up the wrong thing. B. She was late for the party. C. She lost her guest list.
10. Who is probably the owner of the handbag?
A. Emma. B. Rita. C. Sally.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
11. Why does Mary call Jim?
A. To ask for his help with a piano lesson.
B. To invite him to listen to a new CD.
C. To talk about their favorite bands.
12. What kind of musicians does Mary like?
A. Musicians who write their own songs.
B. Musicians who play light music.
C. Musicians who play loud music.
13 When will Jim and Mary meet?
A. At 2 p. m. this afternoon. B. At 4 p. m. this afternoon. C. At 4 p. m. tomorrow.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
14. What is Bob’s speech topic about?
A. Inventions changing the world. B. English reading skills. C. Volunteer activities.
15. What kind of books does Amy advise Bob to bring?
A. Colorful picture books. B. Difficult science books. C. Books about speech skills.
16. Why can’t Amy go to the picnic?
A. She has to look after her brother. B. She has a speech competition. C. She needs to prepare for a test.
听独白,回答以下各小题。
17. When was the International Day of Families started?
A. 15 years ago. B. 33 years ago. C. 93 years ago.
18. Who started the International Day of Families?
A. The US. B. The UK. C. The UN.
19. What is popular for teenagers to show love on this day?
A. Sending flowers to family members.
B. Writing handwritten cards for family.
C. Preparing a big family dinner together.
20. What activity do students and parents like best now?
A. Family sports days. B. Community volunteer work. C. Family photo shows.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Life is full of warm and precious moments. Everyone has something special that they truly value. What about teenagers? Today, three students from different schools will share the important things in their lives and the sweet stories behind them.
What I value most is the time I spend with my grandparents.
My grandparents live in the countryside. Every weekend, I go to visit them. Grandma always makes my favorite sweet potato cakes. Grandpa teaches me to water the vegetables in his garden. We sit under an old tree after dinner and listen to his stories about his childhood.
Now I’m busy with grade 9 studies, so I can’t go there as often. But those happy moments are always in my heart.
He Liyan, 15, Beijing
As a music student, my schedule is filled with music practice and school subjects. I hold on tight to time because it brings me closer to my goals.
My busy schedule also makes me value the time I “waste”. Hanging out with my dog, watching a funny video, traveling with my friends—I know how precious those “lazy moments” are.
I’m lucky that I have lots of time to work hard. Being young, I know that time is all I have and all I need.
Huang Anqi, 13, Beijing
I love traveling and taking pictures, so I record all the fun moments of my trips with my camera. This includes not only the natural scenery, but also small stories—friends’ friendly faces or quiet streets. After each trip, I put together a video as my travel journal. As a student, I am under great pressure. But every time I watch my videos, they help me relax a lot. So I value my travel memories the most.
Zhang Hangming, 17, Tianjin
1. What can we know about He Liyan’s weekends with grandparents?
A. They are always tiring but interesting. B. They are full of warmth and happiness.
C. They take up all her grade 9 free time. D. They make her dislike living in the city.
2. Why does Zhang Hangming keep travel videos?
A. To relax himself from great pressure. B. To practice his camera and video skills.
C. To show beautiful scenery to his friends. D. To share his own travel journals on the Internet.
3. What do the three students have in common?
A. They come from the same city in China.
B. They are busy with music practice every day.
C. They value something related to special moments.
D. They keep their precious things by making videos.
B
Marathon pacers (马拉松配速员), sometimes also called “rabbits”, are very good runners. They run at a set speed (pace) and help a group of runners finish the race in their planned time. Pacers usually hold a sign or a balloon with the finish time they want to help runners reach. This makes it easy for runners to find the right group of pacers to follow.
A marathon usually has 30-60 pacers for large races or 20-30 pacers for small ones, grouped into 8-15 pace groups with 3-6 pacers per group. The time between each group varies by race size: for example, small marathons may have groups every 15-30 minutes, while big marathons often have groups every 10-15 minutes. This means runners can choose a pace group based on their target finish time. If you want to finish a marathon in 3 hours and 30 minutes, you should join the 3:30 pace group.
Pacers help runners a lot in a marathon race. First, pacers help them run at the right speed. If they run too fast in the first half of the race, they will use up their energy quickly and slow down in the second half. If they start too slow and try to speed up later, it’s also hard because they’ll be very tired. But with a pacer, they don’t need to worry about their speed— just follow the pacers. Pacers do more than just set the right speed for runners. They also encourage the runners to keep going when the race gets hard.
Being a marathon pacer is not easy. You need to have much experience of running marathons, and you must be able to keep a steady (稳定) speed for the whole race. That’s why excellent pacers are highly valued in every marathon.
4. How many marathon pacers are there usually in a small marathon?
A. At least 3. B. At least 15. C. At least 20. D. At least 30.
5. What does the underlined word “varies” in Paragraph 2 probably mean?
A. Increases. B. Starts. C. Changes. D. Lasts.
6. What is necessary for being a marathon pacer?
A. Being between 30-60 years old.
B. Finishing a marathon with a prize.
C. Having an outgoing and humorous personality.
D. Owning rich running experience in marathons.
7. Why does the author write the passage?
A. To describe what marathon pacers look like.
B. To introduce what marathon pacers are about.
C. To explain why marathon pacers are highly valued.
D. To show how runners can become marathon pacers.
C
Mosquito bites (蚊子叮咬) are unavoidable in summer. Scientists recently found that mosquitoes are more attracted to some colors than others, which could possibly be helpful to those trying to avoid the annoying bites.
The study found that after a common type of mosquitoes smelled CO2, the gas that humans breathe out, they decided to land on some colored dots (色点) but paid no attention to others.
“Imagine you’re on a sidewalk and you smell delicious bread baking,” the lead researcher said in a public statement. “That’s probably a sign that there’s a bakery nearby and you might start looking around for it. Here, we started to learn what the“favorites” mosquitoes look for after smelling their ‘bakery’ signal. ”
The research team put different colored dots at the bottom of a box and sprayed (喷) them with CO2. They found that mosquitoes were drawn most to red, orange and black. They also found that mosquitoes had no interest in green, blue and white. When a researcher put his hand into the box wearing a green glove, mosquitoes didn’t land on it, even when it was sprayed with CO2.
Unfortunately, avoiding mosquitoes isn’t as easy as choosing the right color of clothes. Human skin sends a red-orange “signal” to mosquitoes, the researchers said, making it hard to hide completely.
“We have already discovered three major things that attract mosquitoes: your breath, your sweat and the temperature of your skin,” the lead researcher said. “Now we find the fourth: the color red, which is on your clothes and also in everyone’s skin. It doesn’t matter how dark or light your skin is. We all give off a strong red feature.”
Although the research found that mosquitoes prefer certain colors, it did not test if wearing green, blue or white keeps mosquitoes away. The researchers hope their findings can help find more ways to keep off the troublesome biting insects.
8. Why did the researchers spray the dots with CO2?
A. It drives mosquitoes away. B. It is attractive to mosquitoes.
C. It is mosquitoes’ favorite food. D. It stops mosquitoes finding aims.
9. Which of the following colors draws the least attention from mosquitoes?
A. Red. B. Black. C. Orange. D. Green.
10. What is paragraph 6 mainly about?
A. The colors of human skin. B. What was discovered before.
C. Factors that attract mosquitoes. D. How to choose the color of clothes.
11. What may be the hopeful result of the study?
A. Mosquitoes will disappear someday.
B. Most people will wear colorful clothes.
C. The number of mosquitoes will be influenced.
D. More ways will be found to avoid mosquito bites.
D
Imagine being able to talk to your future self and get to know what your life might be like years from now. A new online chat platform called Future You has made this possible.
Future You was created by scientists from different research institutes, including MIT (麻省理工学院) in the US. According to its official website, it is designed to help users develop long-term thinking by improving how connected they feel to their future selves. The stronger the connection between a person and his/her future self, the more likely he/she is to make decisions good for his/her long-term life, like in education, health or wealth.
Powered by AI, Future You first asks users about their personalities, current lives and future plans. It then collects and sorts out all the information provided by users. It makes use of all the information to create a digital image (形象) of the user at the age of 60 and produces a photo of their future appearance. Then users can ask questions and get advice from their “future selves”.
Scientists tested Future You on 344 volunteers. Those who chatted with Future You for 10 to 30 minutes felt less worried and more encouraged about the uncertain future, compared to those who only chatted with a general AI or filled out surveys.
However, Future You has its weaknesses. It’s not clear if people changed their behavior after communicating with their future selves. Also, it only shows one possible future, so we shouldn’t take Future You’s words as completely true.
12. Why did the researchers create Future You?
A. To let users make friends with scientists from MIT.
B. To help users develop long-term thinking through AI.
C. To take photos of users and predict their appearance at 60.
D. To make users chat with some strangers who are 60 years old.
13. How does Future You create a digital image of the user at the age of 60?
A. By collecting and using the personal information provided by users.
B. By asking the user’s future self to provide all personal information.
C. By asking users to chat with their future selves and give advice.
D. By testing the program on hundreds of volunteers first.
14. What can we know from the test of Future You?
A. Chatting with Future You makes users less worried about the future.
B. Filling out surveys is more helpful than chatting with Future You.
C. Future You is far better than other general AIs in every aspect.
D. Users can change their behavior after using Future You.
15. What is the author’s attitude (态度) towards Future You?
A. Doubtful about its long-term influences and correctness.
B. Excited about its ability to predict the future exactly.
C. Uninterested in the research and development of it.
D. Completely against the use of this AI platform.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Do you like to exercise? ___16___ Do you prefer playing a team sport, like volleyball or basketball? Or do you like to run for miles and miles all by yourself? Maybe you would rather lift weights or do push-ups or sit-ups!
You know that exercise is good for your body. It helps you grow stronger. It can also help keep your heart and other important organs in excellent shape. So you can keep a healthy weight and avoid some common illnesses. ___17___ The answer is “Yes”!
Some researchers point out that exercise stimulates (激发) the body’s nervous system (神经系统). ___18___ And if you feel better, you can think more clearly and focus better. On the whole, you can work or study at a higher level after exercise.
___19___ Then the areas in connection with memory and learning get bigger and your brain works better. This change can be observed in many people who stick to taking exercise every week.
So how much exercise do you need to help your brain work at its best? Experts believe that as few as 15-30 minutes per day three times a week may be enough to improve brain performance. 30-60 minutes per day four to five times a week is even better. Exercise is good for you in so many ways—not only does it build your body, but it also boosts your brain! ___20___
A. But can it make you smarter?
B. How can physical exercise help?
C. What is your favorite way to exercise?
D. As a result, do include exercise in your daily or weekly routine.
E. This helps to explain why many people feel more active after exercising.
F. Besides other studies show that exercise can help your brain grow better.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分55分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
From Dali, Yunnan Province, China, Yiran Duan, a 30-year-old lady of the Bai ethnic group, is working to popularize the traditional handicrafts and cultures of southwest China, such as Bai tie-dyeing (扎染) and hand embroidery (刺绣).
In 2019, after finishing her university studies in the UK, she set up her workshop Yi Crafts, ____21____ people to learn traditional handicraft skills from Yunnan. ____22____, just after the workshop started, COVID-19 broke out. She had to move her teaching studio online. “A crisis (危机) can also be a ____23____,” Yiran said. “During that time, people around the world had free time to learn handicraft-making at home. As a result, many customers even from other ____24____ were attracted.”
Through her efforts, Yiran manages to make more people have a better ____25____ of the Bai ethnic group crafts.
21. A. guiding B. allowing C. asking D. wishing
22. A. Naturally B. Clearly C. Unfortunately D. Gradually
23. A. danger B. chance C. choice D. decision
24. A. villages B. cities C. provinces D. countries
25. A. understanding B. memory C. introduction D. record
B
I used to get upset when I got stuck or noticed a Chinese-sounding accent (口音) in my English speech. But should sounding like a native speaker be our only ____26____ in learning a language?
Some people think it’s important to speak fluent (流利的) English with a native-like accent. But this may lead to loss of confidence and anxiety, even “mute English (哑巴英语)” when we feel too ____27____ to speak at all. It’s normal to find it hard to speak as fast as native speakers because we live in a Chinese ____28____. Maybe it’s fine to speak a little____29____.
Language is for communication, and communication aims to be ____30____. This doesn’t depend on what accent you have or how fast you talk. As British linguist (语言学家) David Crystal once said jokingly, “Only spies (间谍) need to speak a foreign language perfectly like native speakers. ”
Our accent is not a ____31____—it’s a sign of our cultural identity. The way we speak English shows who we are. It’s nothing to be ____32____ about, but in a sense, we should be proud of this special part of ourselves.
However, this doesn’t mean we can ____33____ practicing spoken English. Instead, we should speak actively and confidently without ____34____. Becoming more native-like can be a goal, but the real value of speaking is to ____35____ our true thoughts, not just to show off.
26. A. goal B. manner C. habit D. expression
27. A. sad B. angry C. afraid D. lonely
28. A. style B. environment C. school D. town
29. A. slowly B. loudly C. directly D. seriously
30. A. noticed B. praised C. moved D. understood
31. A. weakness B. secret C. hobby D. pattern
32. A. tired B. embarrassed C. shocked D. bored
33. A. suggest B. stop C. mind D. imagine
34. A. doubt B. pity C. mistake D. fear
35. A. change B. create C. express D. examine
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据首字母提示及句意补全单词(每空一词)。
36. No matter what we said, the little boy r________ silent.
37. Under the p________ of the government, animals in this forest are living more safely.
38. With k________ and courage, everything could be possible in the world.
39. Never spend too much time on computers. We should use them w________.
40. The two old men are talking to each other in a certain language we can’t understand. Maybe only l________ people can understand.
41. —You look sad. What has happened?
—Everyone e________ us to win the match, but we lost.
42. You won’t get lost if you have a good s________ of direction.
43. No one d________ his ability; they were quite sure he could make it.
44. Those old objects are v_______ to my family. They mean a lot to us.
45. I hope both of my parents can a________ my graduation ceremony, but I am not sure if they are free.
第三节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
For 500 years, the Tiefo Temple in Gaoping, Shanxi, has kept its amazing ancient sculptures (雕塑) a secret from the world. Things changed in August 2024. With ___46___ local government’s efforts, the temple was open to the public. Since then, thousands of tourists ___47___ (come) to see these special sculptures. After booking tickets online, they need to wait ___48___ (patient) for hours to see the sculptures, which are so amazing that people don’t mind ___49___ (wait).
The popularity of the temple ___50___ (reflect) Chinese people’s growing love for cultural tourism. But it also raises an important question: ___51___ can we make both the protection of historic sites and tourism development work well? The Tiefo Temple has set a good example. The villagers try their best ___52___ (keep) the sculptures’ traditional looks. And tourism has also helped the local community. While waiting ___53___ line, visitors can buy snacks, sit on chairs provided by villagers, or watch local performances. The village now offers guided tours, hotels, and cultural ___54___ (product).
Caring for its art and people, the Tiefo Temple, a model for cultural tourism, shows us that heritage can be protected while developing tourism, and this ____55____ (success) experience can be learned from other historic sites.
第四部分 写作(满分25分)
56. 假定你是李华,你的寒假生活将于下周开启,你和家人计划下周六去太和古镇游玩。你打算邀请英语外教Mike一同前往,请给他写一封邮件。
内容包括:
1. 发出邀请;
2. 介绍活动(①体验糖画制作 ②感受茶馆文化 ③观看川剧变脸 ④……);
3. 期待回复。
参考词汇:太和古镇Taihe Ancient Town;糖画sugar painting;川剧变脸Sichuan Opera face-changing
注意:
1. 100词左右,开头已给出,不计入总词数;
2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名。
Dear Mike,
How are you doing recently? ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
2025-2026学年上期九年级期末质量监测英语试卷
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共四部分。全卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答卷之前,考生务必按要求将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号准确填写在答题卡上相应的位置。
3. 考生选出选择题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,请用橡皮擦擦干净,再选涂其它答案。非选择题答案用0. 5毫米的黑色签字笔在答题卡相应的答题区作答,超出限定区域的答案无效。
4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效;考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面五段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How’s the weather now?
A. B. C.
2. What does the girl’s father do?
A. B. C.
3. How far is it from here to People’s Hospital?
A. 100 meters. B. 15 minutes’ walk. C. 15 minutes’ bus ride.
4. Who does the girl often turn to for help?
A. Her parents. B. Her friends. C. Her teachers.
5. Where may the two speakers bc?
A. In a zoo. B. At a store. C. In a library.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面五段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听对话,回答以下各小题。
6. How does Mike feel?
A. Tired. B. Worried. C. Bored.
7. What does Ella do in the evening?
A. She watches English movies. B. She reads English stories. C. She listens to the tape.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
8. What did Emma and her friends do last night?
A. Went shopping. B. Did the cooking. C. Had a dinner party.
9. What was Emma’s problem?
A. She picked up the wrong thing. B. She was late for the party. C. She lost her guest list.
10. Who is probably the owner of the handbag?
A. Emma. B. Rita. C. Sally.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
11. Why does Mary call Jim?
A. To ask for his help with a piano lesson.
B. To invite him to listen to a new CD.
C. To talk about their favorite bands.
12. What kind of musicians does Mary like?
A. Musicians who write their own songs.
B. Musicians who play light music.
C. Musicians who play loud music.
13. When will Jim and Mary meet?
A. At 2 p. m. this afternoon. B. At 4 p. m. this afternoon. C. At 4 p. m. tomorrow.
听对话,回答以下各小题。
14. What is Bob’s speech topic about?
A. Inventions changing the world. B. English reading skills. C. Volunteer activities.
15. What kind of books does Amy advise Bob to bring?
A. Colorful picture books. B. Difficult science books. C. Books about speech skills.
16. Why can’t Amy go to the picnic?
A. She has to look after her brother. B. She has a speech competition. C. She needs to prepare for a test.
听独白,回答以下各小题。
17. When was the International Day of Families started?
A. 15 years ago. B. 33 years ago. C. 93 years ago.
18. Who started the International Day of Families?
A. The US. B. The UK. C. The UN.
19. What is popular for teenagers to show love on this day?
A Sending flowers to family members.
B. Writing handwritten cards for family.
C. Preparing a big family dinner together.
20. What activity do students and parents like best now?
A. Family sports days. B. Community volunteer work. C. Family photo shows.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. A 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. D 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. A 15. A
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. A 18. E 19. F 20. D
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分55分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A
B
【26~35题答案】
【答案】26. A 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据首字母提示及句意补全单词(每空一词)。
【36题答案】
【答案】remained##emained
【37题答案】
【答案】protection##rotection
【38题答案】
【答案】kindness##indness
【39题答案】
【答案】wisely##isely
【40题答案】
【答案】local##ocal
【41题答案】
【答案】expected##xpected
【42题答案】
【答案】sense##ense
【43题答案】
【答案】doubted##oubted
【44题答案】
【答案】(v)aluable
【45题答案】
【答案】attend##ttend
第三节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. the
47. have come
48. patiently
49. waiting
50. reflects
51. how 52. to keep
53. in 54. products
55. successful
第四部分 写作(满分25分)
【56题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear Mike,
How are you doing recently? With our happy winter vacation starting next week,my family and I are planning a one-day trip to Taihe Ancient Town next Saturday. I’d like to invite you to go with us.
We are going to do some activities there,like making sugar paintings,experiencing tea house culture,enjoying Sichuan Opera face-changing and tasting delicious snacks. The interesting activities will let you know more about local culture. I’m sure you will have a great time in Taihe Ancient Town.
If you’d like to come,we’ll pick you up at 9:30 a. m. next Saturday. Could you tell me whether you are available to join us?I’m looking forward to your early reply.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
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