四川省达州市渠县2025-2026学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题

2025年秋季学期教学质量监测七年级英语试题 卷面满分150分 测试时间120分钟 A卷（共100分） 第1部分 听力（满分30分） 一、听力理解(每小题1.5分，共30分) 第一节 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与你所听内容相符的图片。每段对话听一遍。 1. What would Bob like to have for breakfast? 2. What does Lucy's sister look like? 3. What sport does the girl do every day? 4. What subject does Kitty like best? 5. When does the girl get up today? 第二节 下面你将听到4段长对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话，回答第6至7小题。 6. Whose family photo is it? A. It's Peter's. B. It's Emma's. C. It's Tom's. 7. How many people are there in the family photo? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 听第二段长对话，回答第8至9小题。 8. Where is the library? A. Behind the gym. B. Across from the sports field. C. Next to the dining hall. 9. What does the man want to look at? A. The gym. B. The girl's classroom. C. The student centre. 听第三段长对话，回答第10至 12小题。 10. How is Sally's new school? A. Very big. B. Very new. C. Very beautiful. 11. What club will Sally join? A. The sports club. B. The music club. C. The food club. 12. Where may the conversation(对话) take place(发生)? A. At home. B. At school. C. On the playground. 听第四段长对话，回答第13至15小题。 13. When do the two speakers go to the farm? A. This Friday. B. This Saturday. C. This Sunday. 14. Why does Maria like ducks best? A. Because they' re cute. B. Because they' re smart. C. Because they' re funny. 15. How do the two speakers go to the farm? A. By car. B. By subway. C. By bus. 第三节 下面你将听到一段短文。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。短文听两遍。 Tom's school life Classes 16 classes every day Subjects * English: 17 and interesting * 18 : boring After-school activities * often 19 with classmates after school * always reads books in the library on 20 16. A. six B. seven C. eight 17. A. easy B. relaxing C. useful 18. A. PE B. Chinese C. maths 19. A. plays basketball B. has music lessons C. goes to the art club 20. A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Friday 第二部分 基础知识运用（满分30分） 第一节、单选题（每小题1分，共10分） ( )1.-Where the socks? - on the bed. A. is; It's B.are;They C.are;They're D.is; It （ ）2. — Hello, I’m Li Ming. What’s your name? — ______ name is Amy. A. My B. Your C. His D. Her （ ）3. — ______ is your mother? — She is a doctor at a hospital. A. Who B. Where C. How D. What （ ）4. — Are you and your sister in the same class? — No, we are in ______ classes. A. different B. same C. the same D. the different （ ）5. — ______ is your English teacher like? — She is tall and she has long hair. A. What B. Who C. How D. Where ( )6. — Can you help me with my homework? — ______ I’m free now. A. Sorry, I can’t. B. Yes, sure. C. No, I don’t. D. Not at all. ( )7. They like after school. A. play the basketball B. play basketball C. to play the basketball D. to play basketball ( )8. This is room. A. Lucy and Lily B. Lucy and Lily's C. Lucy's and Lily's D. Lucy's and Lily ( )9. Today is Tom’s ______ birthday. He is 12 years old. A. twelve B. twelveth C. twelfth D. twelvth ( )10. — ______ do you like science? — Because it’s interesting. A. Why B. When C. Where D. How 第二节 完形填空（本题共30小题，每小题0.5分，共15分） A 阅读下面短文，从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 Last Friday, our class1 1. _______ a school trip to the science museum. The weather 12. _______ sunny and warm. We1 3. _______ at school at 8:00 a.m. and took a bus there. The museum was very big. We 14. _______ a dinosaur (恐龙) exhibition first. The models looked so real! Then we15. _______ a 4D movie about space. It felt like we were flying in the universe. After lunch, we 16. _______ experiments (实验) in the science lab. My favorite was making a volcano (火山). We 17. _______ red paint into baking soda and vinegar—it erupted! Before leaving, we 18. _______ souvenirs (纪念品) at the gift shop. I bought a robot keychain for my brother. It was an 19. _______ day. I learned a lot about science and had fun with friends. I hope we can 20. _______ another trip soon! ( )11.A. have B. has C. had D. will have ( )12.A. was B. is C. are D. were ( )13.A. meet B. meets C. met D. will meet ( )14.A. visit B. visited C. visits D. will visit ( )15.A. watch B. watched C. watches D. will watch ( )16.A. do B. does C. did D. will do ( )17.A. pour B. pours C. poured D. will pour ( )18.A. buy B. bought C. buys D. will buy ( )19.A. boring B. terrible C. interesting D. easy ( )20.A. go B. went C. goes D. will go B 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A,B,C,D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 I have a big family. There are 21 people in my family. My grandfather is 65 years old. He was born 22 October 10th. My grandmother is sixty. 23 birthday is on February 6th. My father's birthday is on May 12th. My mother's birthday is 24 months later. It's on July 12th. We have a Family Day on 25 first, the first day of a year. On that day, my grandmother and my mother 26 to go to the store.They 27 some food and clothes for us. My grandfather goes to 28 friends. My father is at home and cooks for us. I watch TV and 29 computer games.It is a relaxing and 30 day. Do you think so? ( )21.A.three B.four C.five D.six ( )22. A. in B.at C.from D.on ( )23.A. Her B.His C.My D.Your ( )24.A.one B.two C.three D.four ( )25.A.December B.January C.February D.November ( )26.A.like B.come C. want D. help ( )27.A.afford B.buy C. sell D.want ( )28.A.watch B.look C.see D. look at ( )29.A.play B.take C. call D.watch ( )30.A.boring B. difficult C.healthy D.happy C 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 I am Lucy. I have a happy 31. There are four people in my family. My father is a teacher. He 32 English in a middle school. My mother is a nurse. She works in a 33. I have a little brother. 34 name is Tony. He is five years old. He likes 35 very much. He has many toy cars. We love our home. In the morning, we have breakfast 36. Then my parents go to work, and I go to school. In the evening, we have dinner together. After dinner, my father often reads books, my mother watches TV, and I do my 37. Tony plays with his toys. On weekends, we often go to the park. Sometimes we go 38. My father likes swimming, and my mother likes walking. Tony and I like flying kites. We always have a 39 time. I think my family is warm and nice. I 40 them very much. ( )31. A. school B. family C. class D. friend ( )32. A. teaches B. teaches C. teaching D. to teach ( )33. A. school B. hospital C. library D. store ( )34. A. His B. Her C. My D. Your ( )35. A. balls B. books C. cars D. dogs ( )36. A. slowly B. quickly C. together D. happily ( )37. A. homework B. housework C. sports D. shopping ( )38. A. shopping B. swimming C. running D. fishing ( )39. A. bad B. good C. long D. short ( )40. A. look B. thank C. love D. help 第三部分 阅读理解（共40分） A My School Day I am Zhao Lei, a student from Kunming. I get up at 6:30 every morning. After breakfast, I go to school at 7:30. Classes start at 8:00. We have four classes in the morning and three in the afternoon. My favorite class is English. Our English teacher, Miss Wang, is very nice. She often plays games with us in class. We learn English songs too. I think English is interesting and useful. After school, I often play basketball with my friends. Then I go home and do my homework. I have dinner with my family at 7:00 p.m. Before bed, I read books for half an hour. ( )41. Zhao Lei gets up at ______. A. 6:00 B. 6:30 C. 7:00 D. 7:30 ( )42. Zhao Lei’s favorite class is ______. A. Chinese B. math C. English D. science ( )43. What does Miss Wang often do in English class? A. She gives many tests. B. She plays games with students. C. She only teaches grammar. D. She asks students to write a lot. ( )44. After school, Zhao Lei often ______. A. plays basketball B. goes shopping C. watches TV D. cooks dinner ( )45. What does Zhao Lei do before bed? A. He plays computer games. B. He reads books. C. He listens to music. D. He talks with his parents. B The Mid-Autumn Festival The Mid-Autumn Festival is a traditional Chinese festival. It usually comes in September or October. On that day, families get together and have a big dinner. The mooncake is the special food for the festival. It is round and sweet. People give mooncakes to friends and family to show their love and best wishes. Children like the festival because they can play with lanterns. They make lanterns in different shapes like rabbits, stars, and flowers. At night, they light the lanterns and walk around with them. It is very beautiful. The festival is also a time to enjoy the full moon. People sit outside, look at the moon, and tell stories. It is a happy and warm time for everyone. ( )46. When does the Mid-Autumn Festival usually come? A. In July or August. B. In September or October. C. In May or June. D. In December or January. ( )47. What is the special food for the festival? A. Zongzi. B. Mooncake. C. Dumplings D. Noodles. ( )48. Why do children like the festival? A. Because they can eat a lot of sweets. B. Because they can play with lanterns. C. Because they don’t need to go to school. D. Because they can watch TV all day. ( )49. What do people do at night during the festival? A. They swim in the river. B. They go shopping. C. They look at the moon and tell stories. D. They play computer games. ( )50. The text is mainly about ______. A. a traditional Chinese festival B. how to make mooncakes C. a story about the moon D. children’s favorite games C Many students like to keep pets. Pets can bring us happiness. But we must know how to take care of them. First, choose a pet that is right for you. If you are busy, a fish or a turtle may be good. If you have more time, you can keep a dog or a cat. Second, give your pet a clean home. Clean its house every day. Give it fresh water and food. Third, play with your pet. Pets need love and time. Take your dog for a walk. Play with your cat. Fourth, take your pet to the doctor if it is ill. Pets are like our friends. We should be kind to them. Keeping a pet is not easy, but it teaches us to be responsible（有责任心的）. ( )51. What can pets bring us? A. Trouble B. Happiness C. Money D. Food ( )52. If you are busy, what pet can you keep? A. A dog B. A cat C. A fish D. A bird ( )53. What should you do if your pet is ill? A. Give it more food B. Take it to the doctor C. Play with it more D. Clean its house ( )54. What does keeping a pet teach us? A. To be busy B. To be kind C. To be responsible D. To be happy ( )55. What is the best title for the text? A. How to Choose a Pet B. Why Keep a Pet C. How to Take Care of Pets D. My Favorite Pet D Why Is Breakfast Important? Breakfast is the first meal of the day. It is very important for us, especially for students. After a long night, our body needs energy (能量). Breakfast gives us energy to start the day. If you don’t eat breakfast, you may feel tired and hungry in the morning. You cannot listen to the teacher carefully in class. You may also get sick easily. A good breakfast should have different kinds of food. You can eat bread, eggs, milk, and fruit. Try not to eat too much sweet food for breakfast. Some students do not have time for breakfast because they get up late. It is a bad habit. Try to go to bed early and get up early. Then you will have time to enjoy a healthy breakfast. ( )56. Why is breakfast important? A. Because it is delicious. B. Because it gives us energy. C. Because it is cheap. D. Because it is easy to make. ( )57. What may happen if you don’t eat breakfast? A. You may feel happy. B. You may listen carefully. C. You may feel tired and hungry. D. You may eat too much for lunch. ( )58. What is a good breakfast? A. Only bread. B. Only fruit. C. Sweet food only. D. Different kinds of food. ( )59. Why do some students not have breakfast? A. Because they are not hungry. B. Because they get up late. C. Because they don’t like breakfast. D. Because they want to save money. ( )60. What is the writer’s advice? A. Eat more sweet food. B. Go to bed late. C. Get up early and have breakfast. D. Skip breakfast to save time. B卷 （共50分） 第一节 单词填空。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 61. There are many ______ (student) in our school. 62. My brother is good at ______ (play) soccer. 63. September 10th is ______ (teacher) Day. 64. Please look at ______ (that) pictures on the wall. 65. She ______ (have) a red pencil box. 第二节 句子翻译。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 将下列句子中的汉语译成英语，注意使用适当的形式。 66. I go to school __________________ every day. （骑自行车） 67. There are some __________________ in the classroom. （桌子和椅子） 68. He often ___________________ on weekends. （帮助他的妈妈） 69. Our English teacher is __________________ . （非常友好） 70. Let’s_____________________ . （保持教室整洁） 第三节 综合填空。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空（每词限用一次）。 be, go, have, play, eat, drink, watch, clean, like, help It’s Sunday today. My family 71. _______ all at home. My dad 72. _______ TV on the sofa. My mom 73. _______ the kitchen. She 74. _______ cooking. My brother 75. _______ with his toy cars. I 76. _______ my mom wash the dishes. At 12:00, we 77. _______ lunch. We 78. _______ rice, chicken and vegetables. We also 79. _______ some milk. After lunch, we 80. _______ to the pet-friendly park. It’s a nice day! 第四节.首字母填空(10分) 根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词，使短文意思完整。每空限填一词。 I think animals are our 81. f and many people like them. There are five 82. p _____in my family, they are my father, my mother, my brother. my sister and I. We all like animals very much. My father has 83. g two birds. Every morning, he takes a walk in the park with 84.h birds.My mother likes cats. She likes sitting in the sun with her cat85. w watches his fish 86.s___she is not busy. My brother likes fish. He often before he goes to bed. My sister 87.l happily in the fish tank(水族箱)white rabbits. She thinks they are very beautiful. She feeds(喂食) them on vegetables 88.a school every day. I have a 89.c dog. I like playing with it after dinner. My classmates like to come to my home 90. b they think my home is like a zoo. 第五节、书面表达(共20分) 91.在新学校已经学习一个学期了，你的校园生活一定充实而有趣吧?假如你是李华，请以“My new school life”为题写一篇演讲稿，介绍一下你的初中生活。 要求：(1)从上图提示中至少选择两个要点，可适当发挥； (2)文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称； (3)词数70左右(开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。 My new school life Good morning, boys and girls. I am Li Hua. Thank you for listening! 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $