甘肃省白银市2025-2026年高三上期末英语试卷

高三英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their favorite sports. B. Their clothing styles. C. Their past experiences. 2. What does Betty want to do for her birthday? A. Hold a party at home. B. Go camping with her family. C. Have a barbecue with friends. 3. What happened to the woman? A. Her takeout was wrong. B. Her order was delayed. C. The restaurant canceled her order. 4. Why is the man laid off? A. He got another offer. B. He made a serious mistake. C. His firm is in a financial crisis. 5. What is the woman’s concern about the surgery? A. Its patient population. B. Its inconvenience. C. Its potential risks. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the woman covering her mouth? A. She has a toothache. B. She feels embarrassed. C. She lost her tooth. 7. What will the man probably do next? A. Make an appointment. B. Find the Yellow Pages. C. Take the woman to a dentist. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does the man think is an advantage of a cat tree? A. Its lower price. B. Its larger space. C. Its greater height. 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She is good at promoting goods. B. She is hesitant to make decisions. C. She is thoughtful as a pet-lover. 10. How much will the woman pay for the cat tree as a member? A. $40. B. $45. C. $50. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where is probably the man? A. In a CD shop. B. In a bookstore. C. At the woman’s house. 12. Why does the man have only a small collection of CDs? A. He finds it difficult to afford them. B. He has lost interest in collecting them. C. He cannot find any places to buy them. 13. What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Sell some books to her. B. Join some collecting clubs. C. Make some like-minded friends. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the relationship between Dorothy and Max Brown? A. Trainer and trainee. B. Interviewer and interviewee. C. Boss and secretary. 15. What is Max Brown satisfied with about the company? A. The break room facilities. B. The lunch options. C. The work area. 16. What is Mr. Chase like? A. He is strict but supportive. B. He is ambitious and demanding. C. He is kind but inexperienced. 17. What is Dorothy doing? A. Teaching Max Brown financial skills. B. Showing Max Brown around the office. C. Training Max Brown on company culture. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What does Chang Tao probably see his craft shop as? A. A fantastic lifestyle. B. A public welfare cause. C. A way to make a living. 19. How long does it sometimes take to have an oil-paper umbrella finished? A. 12 days. B. 20 days. C. 86 days. 20. What was an original symbol of the umbrella in China? A. Protection. B. Health. C. Power. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 The Edinburgh International Film Festival (EIFF) is inviting young filmmakers aged 16 — 26 to participate in its Youth Hub 2025, a week-long programme of workshops, masterclasses, and film competitions. Taking place from August 14 to August 20 at Filmhouse Cinema in Edinburgh, the event is intended for fostering emerging talent and connecting young creators with industry professionals. Key Activities: — Workshops: Learn screenwriting, cinematography, and virtual production techniques from experts. A highlight is the Pixar Masterclass with Ronaldo del Carmen, focusing on storytelling in animation. — Competitions: Submit short films (under 30 minutes) for the New Visions Award, where winners receive £1,500 in equipment voucher (代金券) and a screening at the festival. — Networking: Attend group discussions with Oscar-nominated cinematographers like Seamus McGarvey and meet representatives from major film studios. How to Apply: Applications open on April 1 and close on May 31. Submit your film or workshop registration via www.eiff.co.uk/youthhub. Successful applicants will be informed by June. Special Offer: Students from low-income backgrounds can apply for bursaries (补助金) covering travel and accommodation costs. Email youthhub@eiff.co.uk for details. “Film is a universal language, and we want to give young people the tools to tell their stories,” says EIFF director Mark Adams. “Last year, 85% of Youth Hub participants went on to pursue film-related careers.” Don’t miss this opportunity to turn your passion into a profession. Join us in Edinburgh this August! 1. What is the primary purpose of the Youth Hub 2025? A. To celebrate classic films from Scotland. B. To raise funds for charity through film events. C. To provide training and opportunities for young filmmakers. D. To screen Hollywood blockbusters for the public. 2. What benefit do New Visions Award winners receive? A. A cash prize of £1,500. B. Free tickets to the festival. C. A job offer from Pixar. D. Equipment vouchers. 3. What is the deadline for applications? A. May 31. B. April 1. C. June 1. D. August 14. During WWⅡ, more than 44,000 native Americans joined the US armies. Among them was a select group of “code talkers” who used a secure communications system relying on Diné Bizaad, the official language of the Navajo Nation, to send secret messages. The code, never broken by enemy forces, played a decisive role in key victories during the war and, ultimately, helped save thousands of lives. Today, only two of the “code talkers” are still alive: Thomas Begay, now around 101 years old, and Peter MacDonald, 97. As the 80th anniversary (周年纪念日) of WWⅡ’s end nears, they shared with National Geographic about the secret operation that changed military history forever. “During World War I, the US military used similar strategies to confuse German forces, relying primarily on Choctaw, Cherokee, Ho-Chunk, Comanche, and Osage speakers,” said Begay. “Largely unwritten and with few published reference sources, these native languages were nearly impossible for enemies to figure out what was being said.” The strategy proved so effective during WW I that military researchers and linguists began studying other native languages to prepare for future conflicts. What they discovered was that Diné Bizaad was exceptionally difficult to decode without deep cultural knowledge. “Because of the unfamiliarity of the culture, the enemy was even unable to correctly break the words into syllables (音节),” explained Peter MacDonald.“Computers could not have cracked the code. All computers could have done was detect patterns.” The code talkers program remained secret until 1968, when the US government finally declassified it as part of a broader effort to acknowledge the contributions of minority groups during the war and to allow the “code talkers” to share their stories for the first time. Ronald Begay, a retired US Army officer, recalled what his father told the family in 2002 when they were watching the newly released movie, Windtalkers, “‘I was one of them,’ he simply said.” 4. What can we know about Diné Bizaad? A. The enemy figured it out during the war. B. It is just widely used in the Navajo Nation. C. It is the earliest secret code in military history. D. Only two persons can speak it in the US. 5. What is the key to understanding the Diné Bizaad code talkers’ message? A. Military terms. B. Individual sounds. C. Sound patterns. D. Cultural knowledge. 6. How did Thomas Begay feel when he was talking to his family? A. Surprised. B. Worried. C. Calm. D. Angry. 7. Where is the text adapted from? A. Formal interviews. B. Movie reviews. C. Military reports. D. Classified documents. From wearable devices to smartphones, it has never been easier for us to track our daily physical activity, or lack of it. But just how much should we aim for if we want to live a longer and healthier life? Two recent studies suggest that walking 7,000 steps per day is a good target. “Specifically, our research shows that the decreased risk of dying appeared to plateau out at about 7,000 steps,” says Melody Ding, a professor of public health at the University of Sydney, who is the latest researcher to dive into the evidence, as part of an effort to update the physical activity guideline in her country. “There were still some improvements for those who took more than 7,000 steps, but the added health benefits across the population became smaller and smaller.” Ding’s team reviewed data collected from more than 160,000 adults around the world on the link between step count and a variety of health outcomes. Here was one of the key findings: Taking 7,000 steps per day was associated with nearly a 50% lower risk of dying,compared with the bare minimum of 2,000 steps. “It definitely doesn’t do harm if you go beyond 7,000,” Ding adds. “So for anyone who’s already doing 10,000 and more, there is no point of going back, but for the folks who are finding it hard to get there,7,000 could be a really realistic target.” Ding’s research also shows that, on the lower end, even modest jumps can have a major impact on our well-being. For example, simply jumping from 2,000 to 4,000 times in a day was accompanied by nearly a 36% lower risk of dying. Ding and her team have also tried to pin down whether speed makes a difference. Here,the new study could not make any definitive conclusion. “We actually didn’t see an association once we considered the total number of steps,” says Ding. “So, essentially, the total number of steps or jumps, regardless of how fast they were doing, seemed to have a benefit,” she says. Amanda Paluch, who has been working on step count and health benefits, has reached a similar conclusion, though her work suggests the targets may also vary with age. “We were seeing that old people did not seem to need as many steps compared to young adults,” says Paluch. 8. Which of the following best explains “plateau out” underlined in paragraph 2? A. Fall down rapidly. B. Increase very slowly. C. Rise very sharply. D. Come to a sudden stop. 9. What will Melody Ding most probably advise us to do? A. Take 4,000 steps per day. B. Reduce the daily count to 10,000 steps. C. Jump 7,000 times each day. D. Do a minimum of 2,000 jumps a day. 10. What can be ignored according to text? A. Age. B. Health. C. Walking speeds. D. Step targets. 11. Which word best describes Paluch’s attitude to the other study? A. Positive. B. Doubtful. C. Critical. D. Unclear. Last week, Amazon CEO Andy Jassy sent an email to his employees warning that artificial intelligence could displace them. “We will need fewer people doing some of the current jobs, but more people doing other types of jobs,” he wrote. Nothing in his email was shocking. Technological advances as far back as the printing machine have got rid of some jobs while creating many others. The real danger is that too much reliance on AI could lead to a generation of young people unequipped for the jobs of the future because they have never learned to think creatively or critically. The brain continues to develop and mature into one’s mid-20s, but like a muscle, it needs to be exercised and challenged to grow stronger. Technology, especially AI, can block this development by doing the work that the brain is expected to do. A study last year analyzed brain electrical activity of university students during the activities of handwriting and typing. Those who were handwriting showed higher levels of neural (神经) activation across more brain regions. “Whenever handwriting movements are included as a learning strategy, more of the brain gets stimulated, resulting in the formation of more complex neural network connectivity,” the researchers noted. “However, most students in colleges and many in high schools use AI tools to take notes and summarize lectures.” Why commit information to memory when AI tools can provide answers at our fingertips? For one thing, the brain can’t draw connections between ideas that aren’t there. Nothing comes from nothing. Creativity doesn’t happen unless the brain is engaged. College and high-school students also increasingly use AI tools to write papers, perform mathematical proofs, and create computer code. That means they don’t learn how to think through, express or defend ideas. “Why hire a brainless bachelor’s degree holder for a job that an AI tool can do at lower costs and with no complaint?” Andy Jassy asked by the end of the letter. 12. What is the author’s real concern? A. Human beings will be replaced by AI. B. Big companies are too eager to adopt AI. C. We are losing our ability to think properly. D. New jobs can’t be created fast enough. 13. What did the researchers find in their study? A. AI tools were wisely used by students. B. Students could benefit more from typing. C. The brain had to be challenged to stay healthy. D. Handwriting was a superior learning strategy. 14. What is the fifth paragraph mainly about? A. The convenience of AI tools. B. The need to challenge our brain. C. A function of the neural network. D. A way to memorize information. 15. What does Andy Jassy imply in his letter? A. Amazon needs creative engineers. B. Amazon will cut its workers’ salary. C. Employees should not complain. D. Bachelor’s degree holders are preferred. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 I love thinking about teams. I love thinking about how to create an environment that will make a group of people want to be on the team. I love considering the best ways to build a great team. Here is one of my favorite team concepts: the sign of a great team is not the absence of conflict. Rather, the sign of a great team is the ability to resolve conflict. ____16____ But our ability to consistently resolve that conflict impacts the kind of team we have more than any other variable. If we learn how to resolve the conflict, the team will be together for very long. Now, the “how” is the hardest part of conflict resolution. ____17____ But in my experience, the key aspect of consistent conflict resolution comes down to listening and respect. When we listen to each other and respect the opposing perspective (视角), we can have reasonable dialogue. ____18____ That we listen to and respect other perspectives does not mean we always have to agree. ____19____ That's fine. But simple listening skills and demonstrations of respect are at the heart of consistent and reasonable conflict resolution. Great teams are not on the same page all the time. ____20____ So when you are trying to build a great team or when you think you have one and want to keep it great, spend some time thinking about how you will handle those difficult moments when the team is not on the same page. A. We can still agree to disagree. B. But great teams know how to get there. C. The best relationships take time and effort. D. It is always complex and often requires multiple steps. E. Then we are likely to be on our way to eventual resolution. F. People on a team often work together towards a common goal. G. That is because even the best teams unavoidable have conflict. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 For most of Natalie Grabow’s life, she didn’t know how to swim. At age 60, she decided to ____21____ that. On October 11, Grabow, an 80-year-old grandmother now, finished the 2025 Ironman World Championship in 16:45:26, becoming the oldest female to ____22____ the extremely challenging race in its 47-year history. “I am so happy and grateful that I can still ____23____ in this sport at my age,” Grabow says, when asked about what ____24____ her. “Triathlon allows me to feel strong both mentally and physically, and it satisfies my ____25____ spirit.” Her successful finish puts a remarkable end to her 20-year hard work that has brought her many ____26____ in a series of half Ironman events in recent years. “In 2005, I started learning to ____27____,” Grabow says. “Two years later, I entered my first triathlon and won an award. This is my eleventh.” Grabow admits it isn’t ____28____, but she adds, “If you are motivated and willing to work hard, it’s never too late to take on a new ____29____.” Asked whether she has any ____30____ for would-be athletes, Grabow says, “My advice to others is to listen to your ____31____, take time off when you feel that you need to and, most ____32____, just enjoy the journey. The day-to-day ____33____ is what I love the most.” Now Grabow will take some time off before getting back to training for races next year. “I’ve already ____34____ two half Ironman races in 2026: Eagleman in June and Musselman in July,” Grabow says, ____35____ that she’s looking for at least one more race to add to the first half of the year. 21. A. accept B. forget C. change D. admit 22. A. chair B. complete C. support D. organize 23. A. race B. survive C. learn D. invest 24. A. scares B. delays C. annoys D. motivates 25. A. favorite B. competitive C. bad D. gentle 26. A. wins B. injuries C. jokes D. doubts 27. A. hike B. sing C. swim D. coach 28. A. beneficial B. embarrassing C. extraordinary D. easy 29. A. function B. challenge C. title D. income 30. A. tips B. excuses C. regrets D. gifts 31. A. partner B. music C. body D. competitor 32. A. unlikely B. unbelievably C. probably D. importantly 33. A. training B. housework C. failure D. interview 34. A. taken part in B. referred to C. given up for D. signed up for 35. A. apologizing B. adding C. realizing D. arguing 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5.分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 ____36____ (design) by the China Architecture Design Group (CADG), the China Pavilion (馆) at Expo Osaka 2025 draws ____37____ (inspire) from Chinese characters and ancient Chinese bamboo books. The design reflects a culture ____38____ values harmony between humanity and nature, as well as China’s commitment to sustainable development. The pavilion ____39____ (structure) into three themed sections, each illustrating a distinct dimension of China’s sustainability ethos (理念): Harmony Between Humanity and Nature, Green Mountains and Clear Waters, ____40____ Endless Vitality. Harmony Between Humanity and Nature explores China’s traditional philosophy which emphasizes ____41____ (harmony) coexistence between human beings and the natural world. Green Mountains and Clear Waters focuses ____42____ China’s modern green transition, ____43____ (highlight) its vision of sustainable economic and social development. In the section of Endless Vitality, visitors can see China’s latest ____44____ (achievement) in outer space and deep sea explorations, alongside its commitment to global cooperation in building a greener, ____45____ (wealthy) and more peaceful world. Throughout Expo Osaka 2025, the China Pavilion has also hosted a wide range of cultural activities to strengthen the understanding between China and the world. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华。请你向校英文网站建议增加一个“云游文物”栏目。内容包括： 1. 说明设立该栏理由； 2. 提出具体的设想。 注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear editor, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I begged my mother to let me go camping. For months, I’d talked non-stop about the forest adventures and watching stars at night shown in the camp brochure. “It’s a chance to be on my own. And I will learn something,” I’d say. Finally, my mother agreed, and I spent weeks packing something necessary — sure this would be the best summer ever. The first day at Camp Redwood was amazing. As soon as I stepped off the bus, the fresh pine smell and the sound of birds singing made me feel alive. I met Sarah, my camp roommate, and we quickly became friends. That evening, we roasted some food over the campfire and then gathered in the tent to tell stories, each of which made us jump and laugh. Over the following days, the camp leader, Mr. Carter, patiently taught us to identify different bird calls by their sounds and deal with accidents. We also learned to make some special and beautiful items with what could be found in nature. I secretly made a hat with some leaves for my mother. Everything was perfect — until the last night. A thunderstorm hit suddenly. Rain beat down on the tent and wind howled like a pack of wolves. Sarah and I stuck together, scared. Our tent started leaking, and our sleeping bags became completely wet. “I want to go home, now!” Sarah cried. Thinking of what I had said to my mother, I grabbed the extra plastic sheet from my backpack and shouted, “Let’s fix this!” We struggled in the dark, our hands shaking from the cold and fear as we tried to tie the plastic sheet over the tent. The wind pushed against us, making it hard to hold the slippery fabric. Just as we tied the last knot (结), Mr. Carter arrived with a flashlight. His eyes opened wide when he saw the fixed tent. “You two did that?” he asked, surprised. We nodded proudly. Mr. Carter offered to take a photo of Sarah and me achieving something amazing. At that moment, I felt eager to go home to share something with my mother. 注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The next day, when I got home, my mother saw my muddy shoes and asked, “How was it?” ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ My mother had a good look at the photo and the gift and said, “You’re absolutely right!” ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 高三英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their favorite sports. B. Their clothing styles. C. Their past experiences. 2. What does Betty want to do for her birthday? A. Hold a party at home. B. Go camping with her family. C. Have a barbecue with friends. 3. What happened to the woman? A. Her takeout was wrong. B. Her order was delayed. C. The restaurant canceled her order. 4. Why is the man laid off? A. He got another offer. B. He made a serious mistake. C. His firm is in a financial crisis. 5. What is the woman’s concern about the surgery? A. Its patient population. B. Its inconvenience. C. Its potential risks. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the woman covering her mouth? A. She has a toothache. B. She feels embarrassed. C. She lost her tooth. 7. What will the man probably do next? A. Make an appointment. B. Find the Yellow Pages. C. Take the woman to a dentist. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does the man think is an advantage of a cat tree? A. Its lower price. B. Its larger space. C. Its greater height. 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She is good at promoting goods. B. She is hesitant to make decisions. C. She is thoughtful as a pet-lover. 10. How much will the woman pay for the cat tree as a member? A. $40. B. $45. C. $50. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where is probably the man? A. In a CD shop. B. In a bookstore. C. At the woman’s house. 12. Why does the man have only a small collection of CDs? A. He finds it difficult to afford them. B. He has lost interest in collecting them. C. He cannot find any places to buy them. 13. What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Sell some books to her. B. Join some collecting clubs. C. Make some like-minded friends. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the relationship between Dorothy and Max Brown? A. Trainer and trainee. B. Interviewer and interviewee. C. Boss and secretary. 15. What is Max Brown satisfied with about the company? A. The break room facilities. B. The lunch options. C. The work area. 16. What is Mr. Chase like? A. He is strict but supportive. B. He is ambitious and demanding. C. He is kind but inexperienced. 17. What is Dorothy doing? A. Teaching Max Brown financial skills. B. Showing Max Brown around the office. C. Training Max Brown on company culture. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What does Chang Tao probably see his craft shop as? A. A fantastic lifestyle. B. A public welfare cause. C. A way to make a living. 19. How long does it sometimes take to have an oil-paper umbrella finished? A. 12 days. B. 20 days. C. 86 days. 20. What was an original symbol of the umbrella in China? A. Protection. B. Health. C. Power. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. A 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. D 10. C 11. A 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. D 18. E 19. A 20. B 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. B 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5.分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. Designed 37. inspiration 38. that##which 39. is structured 40. and 41. harmonious 42. on##upon 43. highlighting 44. achievements 45. wealthier 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Dear editor, I am writing to propose a new “Virtual Travel” section for our school website. Since we lack the time and budget for real travels, while countless cultural resources are now digitized, I think this column could offer us unlimited free access to museums and cultural sites in our country. The contents could be organized as Exploring the Great Wall or Wandering Through the Forbidden City. We could also invite students to contribute their own travelogues. I’m sure this section would significantly make our traditional culture more engaging and accessible to our generation. It perfectly demonstrates how technology can breathe new life into our heritage. Thank you for considering my suggestion. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 The next day, when I got home, my mother saw my muddy shoes and asked, “How was it?” Sensing her voice trembling slightly as she knelt to brush dirt off my shoes, I shared the highlights of my camping trip, especially what happened the night before. Then I carefully pulled out a photo from my pocket — Sarah and I smiled widely through rain-soaked hair, plastic sheet strings twisted around our fingers as we tied the knot — and said, “I learned something.” Digging into the depths of my bag, I gently placed the hat into my mother’s hand and said, “This is for you.” My mother had a good look at the photo and the gift and said, “You’re absolutely right!” I saw pride in her eyes and added excitedly, “I learned that being on my own isn’t about doing everything alone. It’s about facing challenges with courage and cleverness — and sometimes with a friend.” My mother’s eyes softened as she put on the hat carefully. “I’m so proud of you,” she whispered, pulling me into a warm hug. At that moment, I knew this was truly the best summer ever — not despite the storm, but because of it. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $