广东省深圳市光明区2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末英语试卷

2025一2026学年上学期学业水平调研测试 七年级英语 说明：全卷共8页。考试时间70分钟，满分75分。答题前，请将姓名、 学校和准考证号用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写在答题卡指定位置，并粘贴好 条形码。考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。 第一部分选择题（50分) I.完形填空(10分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入相应 空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将相应的字母编号涂黑。（共10小题，每小 题1分) I never thought I could study at Harvard University.But life is full of 1-in two months,I will study there!My story is different from most students,all because I have ADHD(多动症). As a child,I loved learning.But my school life was 2.Sitting still() for 15 minutes was nearly 3 for me.Sometimes,I had to leave the classroom. My teachers thought that I was lazy and didn't take school seriously.I often felt different and misunderstood. The day the doctor told me that I had ADHD,I was both relieved(宽慰的)and sad at the same time.I finally got the 4 for my problem.But it also meant that I was born with difficulty focusing(专注). When I got into high school,I started 5 ways to help myself study. Later,in college,I joined a music club.One day during practice,I 6 that the background noise actually helped me focus better.It was very different from the usual 7 to"stay quiet while studying".So,I decided to try listening to TV shows or the radio while doing homework.To my surprise,it 8!I finished my work faster and remembered things more 9. Over time,I began to see my ADHD differently:It isn't a weakness,but a different way of 10.It helps me do many things at once and make the best use of my brain.Once I saw it as a problem,but now I see it as a gift. 1.A.dangers B.hopes C.surprises D.choices 2.A.free B.common C.colorful D.hard 3.A.impossible B.interesting C.important D.natural 4.A.example B.reason C.description D.feature (七年级)英语试题第1页共8页 5.A.talking about B.waiting for C.learning from D.looking for 6.A.forgot B.made C.found D.said 7.A.plan B.activity C.advice D.care 8.A.worked B.stopped C.happened D.passed 9.A.carefully B.fully C.differently D.easily 10.A.moving B.thinking C.speaking D.teaching Ⅱ.阅读理解(40分) 第一节阅读下列短文，从下面每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中， 选出最佳选项。（共15小题，每小题1.5分） A When holidays come,people often go hiking or shopping.But now,more and more Chinese are choosing to spend their holidays in factories Hu Sisi is a 29-year-old girl from Suzhou.During this year's May Day holiday, she visited a rice wine factory with her friends.They watched workers make the wine in a traditional way.They also tried special drinks like huangjiu-flavored( 风味)milk tea,.coffee and yogurt..“It was both delicious and fun,”said Hu. "Learning something while traveling was a new experience for me." The idea of factory tours started in Europe around 70 years ago.It came to China in the late 1990s.Now,there are more than 1,000 factory tour sites across the country.They are attracting more and more visitors.For example,the Tsingtao Beer Museum welcomed over 1.8 million visitors last year. Factory tours are getting so popular because they are usually fun.On these tours,visitors can try baking()cakes,making cheese,watching robots build cars,and a lot more.Some factories even provide 3D shows or VR experiences to make trips more attractive.What's more,they help build trust between factories and customers."If people can watch how the whole thing is made,they will trust the product more,"said a company manager. Next time you plan a trip,why not visit a factory?It's a great way to have fun, learn something new,and enjoy your holiday! 11.What did Hu Sisi do on this May Day holiday? A.She went on a factory tour. B.She went hiking and shopping. C.She made special drinks herself. D.She worked in a rice wine factory. 12.Which country possibly started factory tours first? A.China. B.France. C.Australia. D.America. （七年级)英语试题第2页共8页 13.What is Paragraph 4 mainly about? A.Things to do on factory tours. B.Steps to make cakes and cheese. C.Reasons why factory tours are popular D.Ways to make customers trust products. 14.How do factories build trust with customers in factory tours? A.By holding fun activities. B.By offering tasty products. C.By providing attractive shows. D.By showing how things are made. 15.Where is the text possibly taken from? A.A diary. B.A newspaper. C.A storybook. D.A science report. B Jerry's Diary Dear Diary, Guess where I am?I'm in China's Tiangong Space Station,about 400 kilometers above Earth!I share my small room with other three mice.And there are six Chinese astronauts taking turns to take care of us. The trip to the space station was very successful and took just a little over three hours.This is China's 16th manned spaceflight,so humans are old hands here.But for us mice,.it's all new!We're proud to be the first mammals(哺乳动物)to fly with Chinese astronauts. Getting here wasn't easy.We were chosen from 300 mice after more than 60 days of hard training.The tests were really difficult!In one of the tests,we were put on a spinning rod()When it spun faster,I should hold on with my front paws()and keep my back legs moving because I didn't want to fall.My paws were on fire,but I held on for 115 seconds!In another test,the mice should go into a small box.It spun fast in every direction-first for 30 seconds,then one minute,then two minutes.When I came out,everything was spinning.But I had to walk on a balance beam()right away.Luckily,I never fell!Not bad for a little mouse, was it? We'll stay in Tiangong for only about a week before flying back to Earth. Scientists will then study how our bodies change.This will help them better understand the effects of space environments. Can't wait for more exciting adventures in space!See you tomorrow! (七年级)英语试题第3页共8页 16.Who is Jerry in the text? A.A mouse in space. B.A training teacher. C.A scientist on Earth. D.A Chinese astronaut. 17.How long did the trip to the space station take? A.Around 16 days. B.About 400 minutes. C.More than 6 months. D.A little over 3 hours. 18.Why was Jerry chosen for the space trip? A.Because his paws were strong. B.Because he was a flying mammal. C.Because he passed the hard training. D.Because he was an old hand in space 19.What did the mouse need to do during the spinning rod test? A.Walk on a balance beam. B.Hold on and try not to fall. C.Spin quickly in all directions. D.Keep their front paws moving 20.What is the main purpose()of the mice's space trip? A.To experience exciting adventures. B.To live with the astronauts in space. C.To help scientists study space's effects. D.To show mice's wonderful training results. C “I will not be going back.”said Charlotte,the spider. Wilbur,the pig,jumped to his feet."Not going back?”he cried.“Charlotte,.what do you mean? “I am very ill,.”she replied..“in a day or two I will be dead." “Charlotte！My true friend!”shouted Wilbur.I cannot stand it,I will not leave you here alone to die." “Do not be silly,.”said Charlotte.“You cannot stay here.” Hearing that,Wilbur was nervous.Suddenly he thought of the egg sac ( and the five hundred and fourteen little spiders.They would come out in the spring. If Charlotte could not go home,he must take her children with him. "Where is Templeton?"he shouted. Wilbur quickly ran over to where the mouse was sleeping. （七年级)英语试题第4页共8页 "Templeton!"cried Wilbur."Listen to me!Charlotte is very ill.She cannot go home with us.And you are the only one who can get her eggs.Please,please,please, Templeton,climb up and get the eggs! "Please,Templeton!I will make you a promise.Get Charlotte's eggs for me, and I will let you eat first when people bring me food." The mouse sat up."Do you mean that?"he said. "I promise.I cross my heart!" “All right,it's a deal(成交)，”said the mouse.Then,Templeton got the eggs before people come along. When the eggs were finally safe,Wilbur carefully took the egg sac in his mouth. He looked up at Charlotte and gave her a wink().She knew he was saying goodbye.And she knew her children were safe. “Good-byeI”she said in a weak voice. Then,she never moved again. 21.Why couldn't Charlotte go back? A.She was dying. B.She was too tired. C.She found a new home. D.She was angry with Wilbur. 22.What did Wilbur decide to do after hearing Charlotte's words? A.Leave alone right away. B.Ask Charlotte to go with him. C.Stay there with Charlotte forever. D.Take Charlotte's children back with him. 23.What did Wilbur mean by saying "I cross my heart"? A.He felt very nervous. B.He made a serious promise C.He changed his mind suddenly. D.He was saying goodbye to Templeton 24.Which is the right order according to the text? 1 Templeton got the eggs. 2 Wilbur carried the sac in his mouth. 3Wilbur found Templeton. 4 Wilbur made a deal with Templeton. A.③→④→②→① B.④→①→③→② C.③-→④→①→② D.④→①→②→③ 25.What would probably happen next in the story? A.Wilbur will break his promise. B.Templeton will eat up the eggs. C.Charlotte will become healthy again. D.Wilbur will take care of Charlotte's children. (七年级)英语试题第5页共8页 第二节请阅读下面的短文，并从下列方框里的六个句子中选择五个还原 到原文中，使原文的意思完整、连贯。（共5小题，每小题2分） A.The Earth travels around the sun. B.How do scientists study the Earth? C.How do we know Earth is round? D.Water gives life to plants and animals. E.The following are some interesting facts about the Earth. F.But today,scientists use new tools()to study the Earth. The Earth is our home planet.It is the third-closest planet to the sun. 26 .What are the Earth's different parts? The Earth is made up of land,air,water and life. Each part of the Earth connects to and works with the other parts.For example:Clouds in the air drop rain and snow on land. 27 Volcanoes((火山)on land send gas and dust(灰尘) into the air.People breathe air and drink water. ·28 People have known that the Earth is round for a very long time,over 2,000 years!Long ago,people in ancient Greece looked at shadows.They watched the stars in the sky.They used math to find out how big the Earth is.They also saw the Earth's round shadow on the moon when the moon became dark. 29 They use things like the GPS(全球定位系统)on phones.What they see tells them the Earth is round. How does the Earth move? 30 The planet takes 365 days to make a full trip around the Sun.We call one trip around the sun a year.The Earth spins as it travels around the sun.The Earth makes a full spin once every 24 hours.We call this a day. 第三节信息匹配 下面的材料A~F介绍了六个城市，请根据Eddie,Jenny,Jack,Lisa,Max 五位同学的喜好或需求，为他们推荐合适的旅游地点。（共5小题，每小题1.5 分) A.Harbin It is called the "Ice City".If you love winter fun,it is exciting to ski or skate here.Don't miss the amazing Ice Festival. B.Kaifeng It is exciting for history lovers to visit Kaifeng,an ancient capital.Tourists can (七年级)英语试题第6页共8页 walk through a Song Dynasty-style night market and see traditional Chinese buildings. C.Haikou If you love sunshine and sea,Haikou is the place for you.It is wonderful to relax on warm beaches.You can also try different kinds of seafood and fresh fruit. D.Suzhou Welcome to the "Home of Gardens"!Here,you can see beautiful gardens and take a boat ride along the quiet canals()to enjoy the views of water villages. E.Urumqi It is the largest city of Xinjiang.Visitors can experience local culture,see the Tianshan Mountains,and buy special gifts at the Grand Bazaar(大集市)， F.Kunming This "Spring City"enjoys comfortable weather all year round.There are colorful flowers,a clear lake and special stone forests for you to explore. 31.Eddie hopes to visit a place with a long history and walk on old streets. 32.Jenny wants to learn about different cultures and buy interesting things. 33.Jack is a sports lover.He plans to visit a city with amazing winter sports. 34.Lisa enjoys warm weather and the sea.She loves to swim and eat seafood. 35.Max likes nature very much.He'd like to see natural scenery and special stones. 第二部分非选择题(25分) Ⅲ.语法填空（10分) 阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中所给词语的正确 形式填空，并将答案填写在答题卡规定的位置上。（共10小题，每小题1分） Do you know when winter starts in China?It's not when you first wear a coat or see snow.It starts on a special day called Lidong.In Chinese,"Lidong" 36(mean)）“winter begins..”It is one of the24 solar terms in the traditional Chinese calendar. What did Lidong mean to people long ago?For 37 (farmer),it meant that autumn work was done.The crops were collected.The fields could rest,and the people could rest too!Families saved food,prepared for winter 38 planned for the next year. People also look forward 39 eating warm food at Lidong.In northern China,people usually eat dumplings.There was 40 warm story about how this started.On a cold winter's day,a kind doctor named Zhang Zhongjing found that many poor people had frozen ears.Zhang wanted41(help).He cooked (七年级)英语试题第7页共8页 meat and herbs(草药)，put them in dough(面团)，and made them into ear shapes. When people ate them,42(they)ears warmed right up and felt better.Those “ear dumplings' 43 (become)the early version(版本)of today's dumplings. Besides eating warm food,people also gather with their families,slow down, and do gentle exercise to stay 44 (health).If your family get together at Lidong,your home 45(be)full of warmth and laughter.It's a wonderful day to enjoy winter together. V.书面表达(15分) 假设你是李辉，你的美国网友Mk想了解你的学校生活（例如：社团、体 育节、英语周等)。请你根据以下要点，给Mike回一封信。 内容要点： 1.介绍一项你参加过的学校活动。 ·这是什么活动？ 你在这个活动中做了什么？ 你有什么收获？ 2.邀请Mike分享他的学校活动。 要求：1.80词左右，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数内； 2.文中不得出现真实姓名和校名； 3. 可适当增加细节，以使条理清楚、行文连贯； 4.标点正确，书面整洁。 提示词： Dear Mike, I'm glad that you are interested in my school life Best wishes, Li Hui (七年级)英语试题第8页共8页 2025一2026学年上学期学业水平调研测试 七年级英语 1.在“条形码粘贴处”横贴条形码，注意不要超出边框。 缺考标记 必 2.答题前考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写姓名、准考证号和学校。 3.选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂信息点，正确方法是■。信息点框内必须涂满、涂黑，否则无效：修改时须用橡皮擦干净。 口 事 4.非选择题部分必须使用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔书写，按照题号在相应的答题区域内作答，不得使用涂改液、涂改带涂改。 对缺考考生 5.超出各题答题区域的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 由监考员用2B铅笔 6.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、弄破答题卡。 姓 名 条形码粘贴处 准考证号 ! (请核对条形码上的准考证号和姓名) 学 校 第一部分选择题 以下为选择题答题区，必须使用2B铅笔正确填涂，否则答案无效。 A ® a D 6 B D 11 A a D 16 LB] ® c D] 3 8 7890 四 B 888 8 图 岛 岛 8 19 22324 离 D ■ 5 CA B 西 D 15 四 a 西 2 团 B a D 5 CA B Q D] 26 LA B D 习 E 31 A B ] D 刊 E] L B c D B] I D 2 A [B D 田 33 N LA B 0 D 田 A B c D 田 0 [A [B D 公 I B c 四 可 C 同 以下为填空题和解答题答题区， 必须使用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在黑色框区域内作答，否则答案无效。 第二部分非选择题 .语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 36. 41 37 42 38 43. 39 44. 40 45 请注意每题答题空间，预先合理安排，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 。 请注意每题答题空间，预先合理安排，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 N.书面表达（满分15分） Dear Mike. I'm glad that you are interested in my school life. Best wishes, LiHui 考生请勿在此区域作答 请注意每题答题空间，预先合理安排，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 第1面（共1面） 2025—2026学年上学期学业水平调研测试 七年级英语 参考答案与评分标准 一、评分依据 遵循《义务教育英语课程标准（2022年版）》的精神要求。 二、评分原则 1.准确性原则 2.全面性原则 3.客观性原则 4.公正性原则 第一部分 选择题（50分） I．完形填空（10分） (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分) 1-5 CDABD 6-10 CCADB II． 阅读理解（40分） 第一节 阅读选择。（共15小题，每小题1.5分） 11-15 ABCDB 16-20 ADCBC 21-25 ADBCD 第二节 阅读还原（共5小题，每小题2分) 26-30 EDCFA 第三节 信息匹配（共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分） 31-35 BEACF 第二部分 非选择题（25分） Ⅲ．语法填空（10分）（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分） 36. means 37. farmers 38. and 39. to 40. a 41. to help 42. their 43. became 44. healthy 45. will be Ⅳ．书面表达（15分） 参考范文 Dear Mike, I’m glad that you are interested in my school life. Last month, we had an English Week in our school, and it was one of the most interesting activities this term. I took part in an English speech competition with many other students. Before the competition, I prepared a speech about my favorite book and practiced it again and again after school. My teacher also gave me some helpful advice. During the competition, I spoke confidently and even won second prize! I felt very proud. Through this activity, I improved my spoken English and became more confident in speaking in public. It was a meaningful and unforgettable experience for me. What about your school life? Do you have any interesting school activities? I’m looking forward to hearing from you. (129 words) Best wishes, Li Hui 评分细则： 1. 评分原则： (1) 采用整体印象评分法。评分时，先根据文章内容要点表达的完整性，初步确定其所属档次，然后在档次内选择合理的分数； (2) 注重内容表达。评分时，重点所表达的信息是否有效，能否完成题目要求； (3) 注重语言正确性、连贯性和得体性。语言正确性是基础，连贯性和得体性是更高的要求； (4) 鼓励考生适当发挥； (5) 同类错误不重复扣分。 2. 分值分布： (1) 内容要点（共8分）： ① 明确指出要详细描述的活动名称（1分）：符合题意，可酌情给分; ② 详细描述自己在活动中做了什么（3分）：符合题意，可酌情给分; ③ 说出自己参与这项活动后的收获（2分）：符合题意，可酌情给分; ④ 向对方发出邀请分享他的学校活动（1分）：符合题意，可酌情给分; (2) 语篇连贯（共3分）： ① 合理使用连接词和段落衔接句，语义连贯自然，整体逻辑严密（3分）； ② 正确使用段落连接词和衔接句，语义较连贯（2分）； ③ 适当使用连接词或衔接句，语义缺乏连贯（1分）。 (3) 语言表达（共3分）： ①语言表达无错误，语言优美、精准，句式多样（3分）； ②语言表达基本正确（2分）； ③语言表达有少量错误（1分）。 (4) 卷面（共1分）： 书写规范，卷面整洁。如书写不清晰，影响评卷则扣1分。 3. 评分档次和要求 第一档（13-15分）：很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，格式正确，书写规范。 第二档（10-12分）：较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。 第三档（7-9分）：基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。 第四档（4-6分）：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。 第五档（0-3分）：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $