精品解析：浙江省舟山市2025-2026学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试卷

2025学年第一学期八年级学科素养监测 英语试题卷 考生注意： 1.本试题卷分包括四部分，共8页，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2.答题前，请将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔填写在答题纸规定的位置上。答题时，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节 听小对话，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段小对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is Emma’s favorite animal? A. The cheetah. B. The monkey. C. The dolphin. 2. Who plays tennis better? A. Lily. B. Lucy. C. John. 3. What does Chen Jie want to be in the future? A. A teacher. B. A writer. C. A lawyer. 4. How did Matt learn to cook? A. He learned from a video. B. He learned from his mom. C. He learned from a cook book. 5. What does Dr. Know mean? A. The girl should ask the teacher for advice. B. The girl should write a letter to her parents. C. The girl should communicate with her parents. 第二节 听长对话，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）。 听下面2段较长对话。每个对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6. What time will Adam’s aunt arrive at the station? A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00. 7. What does Adam want to do before doing the chores? A. Cook a meal. B. Finish his painting. C. Practice the piano. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. What is Maya and Jack’s plan for the project? A. To learn to program. B. To make a flying robot. C. To write a science report. 9. What do they want to help with? A. The air. B. The noise. C. The traffic. 10. How long will they spend on the work? A. One day. B. Two days. C. Three days. 第三节 听独白，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白，独白后有5小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项。独白仅读两遍。 11. What did the friend invite the speaker to do this weekend? A. Go hiking. B. Study for an exam. C. Do some shopping. 12. When will the speaker’s neighbors come back? A. This weekend. B. Next Tuesday. C. Next Friday. 13. Why will the speaker visit his uncle? A. Because his uncle had a car accident. B Because his uncle stays at home alone. C. Because they will have a family reunion. 14. Where will the speaker have the birthday party? A. At a restaurant. B. At school. C. At home. 15. How does the speaker feel about the weekend? A. Busy. B. Boring. C. Exciting. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A In Guangdong, people often greet each other by saying “Yin Zuo Cha Mei?”. It means “Have you drunk your morning tea?” in Cantonese (广东话). It is more common than “Hi” or “Good morning”. ★Zao Cha, or morning tea, is an important morning activity of Guangdong people. Rich or poor, young or old, men or women, people there will go to a morning tea house to drink tea or have dim sum (点心) for breakfast. For them, Zao Cha is not only a daily habit but also a simple and useful way of social communication. ★Guangdong morning tea can date back to over 150 years ago during the Qing Dynasty (朝代). At that time, there was a small restaurant in Guangzhou. It served tea and dim sum. Over time, there were more and more restaurants of this kind. So Guangdong people got into the habit of drinking morning tea in a tea house. Today, the culture of having morning tea has become popular in other provinces, mainly in the south of China. It really plays a role in connecting with others and starting the day. 1. What do people often say to greet each other in the morning in Guangdong? A. “Ni Hao.” B. “Good morning.” C. “Yin Zuo Cha Mei?” D. “How are you?” 2. How did people in Guangdong develop the habit of having morning tea? A. The Qing emperor made it a rule. B. A famous cook first made dim sum. C. People preferred tea to other drinks. D. More restaurants served tea and dim sum. 3. Where can we probably read the passage? A. In a travel guide. B. In a food magazine. C. In a history textbook. D. On a restaurant menu. B When a short Game Boy game called Grandma suddenly became popular in China, no one was more surprised than its creator, 32-year-old Zhou Yichen. The game lasts less than five minutes and doesn’t look like today’s exciting video games. There are no fights, no loud music, and no colorful 3D pictures. Yet it touches lots of players’ hearts. In the game Grandma, you are a young man. Your job is to take care of your grandmother after she falls and gets hurt. You can walk around her small home and choose simple things to do: sit with her at the table, help her go to bed, or go outside for a walk with her. Every time you choose “yes”, you will see a quiet animation (动画) with no words—Grandma walks slowly, smiles, or talks with a neighbor. The game does not have scores (分数). There are no winners or losers in the game. It is only about love, being calm and kind, and taking care of someone. Zhou made this small game by himself on an old Game Boy system. Every tiny detail came from real life. In real life Zhou looked after his 95-year-old grandmother after she fell in 2024. Before that, he studied art in New York. He fed her, helped her take a shower, and took her outside to enjoy the sun. The work was tiring, but he wanted to be by her side. After she died, Zhou finished the game as his way to say goodbye. Zhou never tried to create sadness. He simply recorded his life. “The game doesn’t keep her alive,” he says softly. “All it keeps are memories.” 4. Which of the following about the game Grandma is true according to the passage? A It has colorful pictures. B. It is difficult to finish tasks. C. It is short, quiet and simple. D. A group of young men created it. 5. What can players do in the game Grandma? A. Get high scores and win prizes. B. Draw pictures of Grandma and neighbors. C. Fight with others in loud music. D. Sit with Grandma and take her for a walk. 6. What is the correct order of events according to the passage? ①Grandma fell and got hurt. ②Zhou Yichen studied art in New York. ③Zhou Yichen finished the game Grandma. ④Zhou Yichen took care of his 95-year-old grandma. A. ①②③④ B. ②①④③ C. ①④②③ D. ②④①③ 7. Why did Zhou Yichen create the game Grandma? A. To make much money and become famous. B To take part in a game development project. C. To say bye and save memories with grandma. D. To teach people how to take care of old people. C There was an exciting moment during China’s 15th National Games. In Shenzhen, a city famous for its cutting-edge technology, AI robots helped give medals(奖牌) to winners, surprising all the people there. One of the winners Meng Fanlong said, “I can’t put it into words. I was totally surprised.” This year, Guangdong, Hong Kong and Macao hosted the National Games together. At the Games, robots appeared across different events. On the sports field, robotic dogs carried two javelins(标枪) at a time so that human workers could work more quickly and safely. In the swimming pool, small robots moved around picking up used things. It makes the area clean and tidy. Other robots made sure that sports areas and lighting systems were working well. The Games used more than 130 high-technology things, like AI and new information technologies. The Games also gave a test to robots in order to make their development faster. “Through the Games, we are able to test our technology and greatly improve our team’s abilities and teamwork,” said Mr. Li, from a Shenzhen AI company. During the men’s bike race on the Hong Kong-Zhuhai-Macao Bridge, cutting-edge technology played a key role. On the sea near the bridge, special boats with radar(雷达), cameras and life-saving systems were watching. An emergency weather car worked like a moving weather station. It collected wind and temperature information in real time, so riders could know about the weather ahead. Experts believed the Games would have a lasting influence on the field of high technology. They also believed it set good examples for using computers and smart ideas in many different jobs. 8. What does the underlined word “cutting-edge” most probably mean? A. Very new and the best. B. Fast and very safe. C. Simple and from the past. D. Old and quite slow. 9. What is the main idea of Paragraph 2? A. Robots won in different events at the Games. B. Robots did different kinds of jobs at the Games. C. Three places worked together to host the Games. D. Human workers made sure of the players’ safety. 10. How did the emergency weather car help in the men’s bike race? A. By helping make the weather better. B. By saving riders who fell into the sea. C. By watching the sea near the bridge with tools. D. By giving real-time weather information to the riders. 11. What is the best title for this passage? A. Visiting Three Beautiful Cities B. Robots and Our Future Life C. High-technology Shines at the Games D. Great Players Get Together at the Games D For most humans, clicking (发出咔嗒声的) knees are a sign of getting older. But for elands, the world’s largest kind of antelope (羚羊), this clicking sound is a way of communicating. Learning to make that “click” is how they begin to use their secret language. Little Eland Tshepo is a new member at Werribee Open Range Zoo. He weighs only 160 kg now. A grown-up eland can weigh more than 1,000 kg. He is just 15 months old and has joined a group of 19 grown-up elands. In the future, they want him to become the group’s chief. However, the zookeeper, Sharlina Burns, said Tshepo needed to grow into his clicking knees first. “As an eland gets older, tendons (腱) in its knees start to click, so you can hear elands clicking as they’ re walking. It acts as a form of communication. They can tell each other who is older, bigger, and more important in the group,” Ms. Burns explained. Although elands are very large, they are amazing jumpers. From a standing start, they can jump up to three meters high—that’s like a small car jumping over your head! They also have a special skill. In their hot and dry homes, they can change their body temperature a lot. This helps them lose less water from their bodies. “Tshepo is the first new eland to join the group in more than six years,” Ms. Burns said. “It’s really nice to see him walk out and fit in so well with the group.” The name Tshepo comes from the south of Africa and means “hope” or “trust” in the Sotho language. Werribee’s keepers chose this name because they hope he will grow into his role as the future chief of the group. 12. What is the clicking sound for elands according to the passage? A. A sign of being sick. B. A way of hunting food. C. A form of communication. D. A noise of group fighting. 13. How does the writer help us better know the little eland Tshepo in Paragraph 2? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling a story. C. By asking questions. D. By giving an example. 14. What can we learn about Tshepo according to the passage? A. He is the oldest eland in the group. B. He can jump higher than all the others. C. He has the loudest click in the group now. D. His name means “hope” or “trust” in the Sotho language. 15. What is the writer’s main purpose (意图) in writing this passage? A. To explain why elands are in great danger. B. To compare elands with other kinds of antelopes. C To describe a little eland’s life and interesting facts of his group. D. To remind people to protect the largest antelopes in the world. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题。每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面的短文，从下面所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确的选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答最后小题。 Fall is a magical season full of changes and surprises! From colourful leaves to pleasant weather, there’s so much to love. But do you know some amazing facts about fall? ★The word “fall” ____16____. It comes from the phrase “the fall of the leaves”. When we talk about the time “between summer and winter”, we can also use the word “autumn”. Both words came from Britain, but “fall” is more common in American English. ★____17____! Many animals prepare for winter during fall. Squirrels(松鼠) collect nuts, bears eat more food to fatten up, and birds fly south to warmer places. Some animals grow thicker fur, and others spend winter in deep sleep. ★____18____! A study found that babies born in fall are more likely to live to 100 than those born in other seasons. The study showed that 30% of American old people aged 100 or older (born during 1880-1895) had autumn birthdays! ★Fun date: September 24th, 2303 The autumn equinox (秋分) usually falls on September 22nd or 23rd, but sometimes it changes. ____19____—in the year 2303, it will fall on September 24th! Isn’t it interesting? A. Fall babies live longer B. Discover how “fall” comes C. Mark your calendar (日历) D. People have fun in fall together E. Animals get very busy 16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________ 19. ________ 20. Do you like fall? Why or why not? (不超过15词) _______________________________________________ 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。 Changing schools is probably the worst thing in the world. When everyone already knows each other, the newcomer always feels not part of the group. Sadly, that new ____21____ was me. I stood ____22____ in front of my new class. Everyone warmly welcomed me, but I was too ____23____ to say much. I said my name in a very low voice and quickly took my seat. At break time, I went to the washroom and filled my water bottle ____24____. I knew I would feel unhappy without friends, but experiencing it in person was even worse than I thought. Our first lesson was English. This school was moving faster than my old one. ____25____, my classmates were much better at English than I. All of this weighed on me heavily ____26____ a PE class that day. After running a lot, I sat under a tree, ____27____ others play badminton. Suddenly, I heard a soft voice say, “Help…” I ____28____ and saw a girl who fell down in the hallway. ____29____ thinking, I rushed to the hallway. “Help! Help!” I called Mr. Green, the teacher. We carried ____30____ to the school doctor together. Luckily, she was fine again after some ____31____. When I got back to the classroom, something ____32____ happened. Some of my classmates asked me about the ____33____. Others said I was really brave. One person even asked if I wanted to walk home together after school. At that moment, I realized that I ____34____ my place in this new school—not by trying to go together, but by ____35____ someone when they needed it most. I didn’t feel like an outsider anymore. 21. A. speaker B. guide C. expert D. arrival 22. A. confidently B. wisely C. nervously D. disappointedly 23. A. lazy B. shy C. direct D. sincere 24. A. alone B. ahead C. alike D. away 25. A. Besides B. However C. Anyway D. Instead 26. A. if B. until C. although D. because 27. A. making B. hearing C. feeling D. watching 28. A. called back B. gave up C. turned around D. dropped off 29. A. Without B. Through C. During D. Before 30. A. him B. her C. me D. them 31. A. research B. rest C. education D. practice 32. A. difficult B. challenging C. surprising D. reasonable 33. A. accident B. chance C. expression D. disaster 34. A. left B. missed C. hung D. found 35. A. inviting B. trusting C. helping D. mentioning 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 another happy offer efficient face to face Interviewer: Hi, Jennifer! How do you usually communicate with your friends? Jennifer: Hi, Mr. Brown! We often talk ____36____. And adding some body language really helps. Interviewer: Body language? Can you give an example? Jennifer: Sure! Like waving to say “hello”, or smiling to show your ____37____. Interviewer: That’s interesting. What else, Mike? Mike: We sometimes use ____38____ useful way at our school—sign language. The teachers ____39____ sign language classes every week. Interviewer: Sounds great. I think sign language is very ____40____ for some people. Mike: Yeah. Ms. Duckwall, our school cook, uses it. She can’t hear well, so we learn some signs to talk with her. It makes her feel loved. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。 Leisa Duckwall works in the dining hall of a middle school in Virginia, the USA. Her job is to serve breakfast and lunch to the students. Because of her hearing ____41____ (困难), students there weren’t able to communicate well with her. They ____42____ (指向) to the food they wanted. It sometimes created a ____43____ (凌乱). This year, however, things have changed a lot. Ms. Maskelony is a seventh-grade teacher at the school. She learned ASL (American Sign Language) in a ____44____ (当地的) community. She had conversations in ASL with Ms. Duckwall in the dining hall. ____45____ (在任何……的时候) they used their hands to talk to each other, the students stopped eating and watched with great ____46____ (兴趣). One day, Ms. Maskelony asked her class if they wanted to learn to sign. Everyone ____47____ (点头) excitedly and they began with ASL greetings and how to order food. When the head teacher heard about this, she decided that the whole school should learn how to sign. Now in their ____48____ (空闲) time, they learn and practice a new word in ASL every week. Soon they can communicate with Ms. Duckwall ____49____ (容易地). Ms. Duckwall expressed with her hands, “____50____ (没有任何东西) makes me happier than being able to communicate with others.” She feels truly heard, not with ears, but with heart. 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 2025：A Year That Inspired Me Hello everyone, Looking back on the past year, there were so many amazing and inspiring things that happened. Wow, ____51____ a nice year 2025 was! I want to share a few of them with you. First, technology got much ____52____ (cool)! I saw news about Chinese astronauts going into space. And I even wrote programs and made a watering machine by ____53____ (I). It can move around and help water plants. Technology can really help us learn and have fun! Second, sports brought people together. At the National Games, ____54____ (athlete) gave their all in matches. Their success comes from daily hard training. I plan ____55____ (work) harder and face challenges bravely like them in my own life. ____56____ (final), people helped each other a lot. When disasters happened in a place, warm-hearted people came ____57____ food and clothes to help those in need. We also raised money by selling old books and toys at school. I think it was just a small act, ____58____ we really made a big difference. 2025 taught me ____59____ great lesson. If I try my best and never stop learning, I ____60____ (make) great progress! So long, 2025! Hello, 2026! Thank you! 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 61. 假设你是李华，你的英国好友Cindy上月来舟山参加了文化游学活动，你们打算在这个寒假继续体验该旅程。请根据以下信息写一篇短文，分享你们上个月的活动经历及这个寒假的后续安排，向校英文报“文化之旅”栏目投稿。 Zhoushan Cultural Tour When Where What last month Dongsha Ancient Fishing Town ◆learn to make model ships ◆enjoy fishermen’s paintings ◆… this winter vacation … … 注意：（1）短文必须包含表中的所有信息，并适当发挥。 （2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息。 （3）词数：80词左右。短文开头供选用，不计入总词数。 短文开头：Cindy and I had an unforgettable cultural tour in Zhoushan last month. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025学年第一学期八年级学科素养监测 英语试题卷 考生注意： 1.本试题卷分包括四部分，共8页，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2.答题前，请将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔填写在答题纸规定的位置上。答题时，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节 听小对话，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段小对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is Emma’s favorite animal? A. The cheetah. B. The monkey. C. The dolphin. 2. Who plays tennis better? A. Lily. B. Lucy. C. John. 3. What does Chen Jie want to be in the future? A. A teacher. B. A writer. C. A lawyer. 4. How did Matt learn to cook? A. He learned from a video. B. He learned from his mom. C. He learned from a cook book. 5. What does Dr. Know mean? A. The girl should ask the teacher for advice. B. The girl should write a letter to her parents. C. The girl should communicate with her parents. 第二节 听长对话，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）。 听下面2段较长对话。每个对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6. What time will Adam’s aunt arrive at the station? A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00. 7. What does Adam want to do before doing the chores? A. Cook a meal. B. Finish his painting. C. Practice the piano. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8 What is Maya and Jack’s plan for the project? A. To learn to program. B. To make a flying robot. C. To write a science report. 9. What do they want to help with? A. The air. B. The noise. C. The traffic. 10. How long will they spend on the work? A. One day. B. Two days. C. Three days. 第三节 听独白，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白，独白后有5小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项。独白仅读两遍。 11. What did the friend invite the speaker to do this weekend? A. Go hiking. B. Study for an exam. C. Do some shopping. 12. When will the speaker’s neighbors come back? A. This weekend. B. Next Tuesday. C. Next Friday. 13. Why will the speaker visit his uncle? A. Because his uncle had a car accident. B. Because his uncle stays at home alone. C. Because they will have a family reunion. 14. Where will the speaker have the birthday party? A. At a restaurant. B. At school. C. At home. 15. How does the speaker feel about the weekend? A. Busy. B. Boring. C. Exciting. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A In Guangdong, people often greet each other by saying “Yin Zuo Cha Mei?”. It means “Have you drunk your morning tea?” in Cantonese (广东话). It is more common than “Hi” or “Good morning”. ★Zao Cha, or morning tea, is an important morning activity of Guangdong people. Rich or poor, young or old, men or women, people there will go to a morning tea house to drink tea or have dim sum (点心) for breakfast. For them, Zao Cha is not only a daily habit but also a simple and useful way of social communication. ★Guangdong morning tea can date back to over 150 years ago during the Qing Dynasty (朝代). At that time, there was a small restaurant in Guangzhou. It served tea and dim sum. Over time, there were more and more restaurants of this kind. So Guangdong people got into the habit of drinking morning tea in a tea house. Today, the culture of having morning tea has become popular in other provinces, mainly in the south of China. It really plays a role in connecting with others and starting the day. 1. What do people often say to greet each other in the morning in Guangdong? A. “Ni Hao.” B. “Good morning.” C. “Yin Zuo Cha Mei?” D. “How are you?” 2. How did people in Guangdong develop the habit of having morning tea? A. The Qing emperor made it a rule. B. A famous cook first made dim sum. C. People preferred tea to other drinks. D. More restaurants served tea and dim sum. 3. Where can we probably read the passage? A. In a travel guide. B. In a food magazine. C. In a history textbook. D. On a restaurant menu. 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. B 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了广东早茶文化，包括广东人早晨的打招呼方式、早茶的重要性、早茶的起源以及早茶文化在其他省份的流行。 【1题详解】 细节理解题。根据“In Guangdong, people often greet each other by saying ‘Yin Zuo Cha Mei?’. It means ‘Have you drunk your morning tea?’ in Cantonese (广东话).”可知，在广东，人们早上经常用“Yin Zuo Cha Mei?”来互相问候。故选C。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Over time, there were more and more restaurants of this kind. So Guangdong people got into the habit of drinking morning tea in a tea house.”可知，随着时间推移，越来越多提供茶和点心的餐馆出现，广东人养成了在茶馆喝早茶的习惯。故选D。 【3题详解】 推理判断题。通读全文可知，本文围绕广东早茶文化展开，介绍了早茶的打招呼方式、重要性、起源和流行情况，最有可能在介绍食物相关的板块出现，即食品杂志。故选B。 B When a short Game Boy game called Grandma suddenly became popular in China, no one was more surprised than its creator, 32-year-old Zhou Yichen. The game lasts less than five minutes and doesn’t look like today’s exciting video games. There are no fights, no loud music, and no colorful 3D pictures. Yet it touches lots of players’ hearts. In the game Grandma, you are a young man. Your job is to take care of your grandmother after she falls and gets hurt. You can walk around her small home and choose simple things to do: sit with her at the table, help her go to bed, or go outside for a walk with her. Every time you choose “yes”, you will see a quiet animation (动画) with no words—Grandma walks slowly, smiles, or talks with a neighbor. The game does not have scores (分数). There are no winners or losers in the game. It is only about love, being calm and kind, and taking care of someone. Zhou made this small game by himself on an old Game Boy system. Every tiny detail came from real life. In real life, Zhou looked after his 95-year-old grandmother after she fell in 2024. Before that, he studied art in New York. He fed her, helped her take a shower, and took her outside to enjoy the sun. The work was tiring, but he wanted to be by her side. After she died, Zhou finished the game as his way to say goodbye. Zhou never tried to create sadness. He simply recorded his life. “The game doesn’t keep her alive,” he says softly. “All it keeps are memories.” 4. Which of the following about the game Grandma is true according to the passage? A. It has colorful pictures. B. It is difficult to finish tasks. C. It is short, quiet and simple. D. A group of young men created it. 5. What can players do in the game Grandma? A. Get high scores and win prizes. B. Draw pictures of Grandma and neighbors. C. Fight with others in loud music. D. Sit with Grandma and take her for a walk. 6. What is the correct order of events according to the passage? ①Grandma fell and got hurt. ②Zhou Yichen studied art in New York. ③Zhou Yichen finished the game Grandma. ④Zhou Yichen took care of his 95-year-old grandma. A. ①②③④ B. ②①④③ C. ①④②③ D. ②④①③ 7. Why did Zhou Yichen create the game Grandma? A. To make much money and become famous. B. To take part in a game development project. C. To say bye and save memories with grandma. D. To teach people how to take care of old people. 【答案】4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了32岁的周逸辰为纪念离世奶奶创作的小游戏《奶奶》走红，游戏简约温情，还原其照料奶奶的真实经历，留存美好回忆。 【4题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The game lasts less than five minutes...There are no fights, no loud music, and no colorful 3D pictures.”和“choose simple things to do”可知，这款游戏时长短、无喧闹、操作简单。故选C。 【5题详解】 细节理解题。根据“You can walk around her small home and choose simple things to do: sit with her at the table, help her go to bed, or go outside for a walk with her.”可知，玩家可陪奶奶坐桌边、散步。故选D。 【6题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Before that, he studied art in New York.”，“Zhou looked after his 95-year-old grandmother after she fell in 2024”以及“After she died, Zhou finished the game as his way to say goodbye.”可知，事件顺序为纽约学艺术→奶奶摔倒→照料奶奶→完成游戏。故选B。 【7题详解】 细节理解题。根据“the game as his way to say goodbye”和“All it keeps are memories.”可知，作者创作游戏是为了与奶奶告别、留存美好回忆。故选C。 C There was an exciting moment during China’s 15th National Games. In Shenzhen, a city famous for its cutting-edge technology, AI robots helped give medals(奖牌) to winners, surprising all the people there. One of the winners Meng Fanlong said, “I can’t put it into words. I was totally surprised.” This year, Guangdong, Hong Kong and Macao hosted the National Games together. At the Games, robots appeared across different events. On the sports field, robotic dogs carried two javelins(标枪) at a time so that human workers could work more quickly and safely. In the swimming pool, small robots moved around picking up used things. It makes the area clean and tidy. Other robots made sure that sports areas and lighting systems were working well. The Games used more than 130 high-technology things, like AI and new information technologies. The Games also gave a test to robots in order to make their development faster. “Through the Games, we are able to test our technology and greatly improve our team’s abilities and teamwork,” said Mr. Li, from a Shenzhen AI company. During the men’s bike race on the Hong Kong-Zhuhai-Macao Bridge, cutting-edge technology played a key role. On the sea near the bridge, special boats with radar(雷达), cameras and life-saving systems were watching. An emergency weather car worked like a moving weather station. It collected wind and temperature information in real time, so riders could know about the weather ahead. Experts believed the Games would have a lasting influence on the field of high technology They also believed it set good examples for using computers and smart ideas in many different jobs. 8. What does the underlined word “cutting-edge” most probably mean? A. Very new and the best. B. Fast and very safe. C. Simple and from the past. D. Old and quite slow. 9. What is the main idea of Paragraph 2? A. Robots won in different events at the Games. B. Robots did different kinds of jobs at the Games. C. Three places worked together to host the Games. D. Human workers made sure of the players’ safety. 10. How did the emergency weather car help in the men’s bike race? A. By helping make the weather better. B. By saving riders who fell into the sea. C. By watching the sea near the bridge with tools. D. By giving real-time weather information to the riders. 11. What is the best title for this passage? A. Visiting Three Beautiful Cities B. Robots and Our Future Life C. High-technology Shines at the Games D. Great Players Get Together at the Games 【答案】8. A 9. B 10. D 11. C 【解析】 【导语】这篇文章介绍了在第十五届全国运动会中，广东、香港和澳门借助尖端科技（如AI机器人、应急气象车等）为赛事提供支持的情况，展现了高科技在大型赛事中的亮眼表现。 【8题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“In Shenzhen,a city famous for its cutting-edge technology,AI robots helped give medals to winners,surprising all the people there.”可知“cutting-edge”是固定短语，意为“最前沿的、尖端的”，与选项“Very new and the best”的含义完全匹配。故选A。 【9题详解】 主旨大意题。根据“At the Games,robots appeared across different events.On the sports fields,robotic dogs carried two javelins...In the swimming pool,small robots moved around picking up used things...Other robots made sure that sports areas and lighting systems were working well.”可知该段列举了机器人在赛场运送标枪、泳池清理杂物、保障场地与照明等不同任务，直接支撑了“Robots did different kinds of jobs at the Games”这一结论。故选B。 【10题详解】 细节理解题。根据“An emergency weather car worked like a moving weather station.It collected wind and temperature information in real time,so riders could know about the weather ahead.”可知原句明确说明应急气象车会收集实时风和温度信息，让骑手提前了解天气，与选项“By giving real-time weather information to the riders”完全对应。故选D。 【11题详解】 最佳标题题。文章开篇提到“cutting-edge technology”，第2段详细描述机器人的多样任务，第4段介绍应急气象车的技术应用，末段指出赛事对高科技领域的持续影响。这些内容共同支撑了“High-technology Shines at the Games”这一最佳标题。故选C。 D For most humans, clicking (发出咔嗒声的) knees are a sign of getting older. But for elands, the world’s largest kind of antelope (羚羊), this clicking sound is a way of communicating. Learning to make that “click” is how they begin to use their secret language. Little Eland Tshepo is a new member at Werribee Open Range Zoo. He weighs only 160 kg now. A grown-up eland can weigh more than 1,000 kg. He is just 15 months old and has joined a group of 19 grown-up elands. In the future, they want him to become the group’s chief. However, the zookeeper, Sharlina Burns, said Tshepo needed to grow into his clicking knees first. “As an eland gets older, tendons (腱) in its knees start to click, so you can hear elands clicking as they’ re walking. It acts as a form of communication. They can tell each other who is older, bigger, and more important in the group,” Ms. Burns explained. Although elands are very large, they are amazing jumpers. From a standing start, they can jump up to three meters high—that’s like a small car jumping over your head! They also have a special skill. In their hot and dry homes, they can change their body temperature a lot. This helps them lose less water from their bodies. “Tshepo is the first new eland to join the group in more than six years,” Ms. Burns said. “It’s really nice to see him walk out and fit in so well with the group.” The name Tshepo comes from the south of Africa and means “hope” or “trust” in the Sotho language. Werribee’s keepers chose this name because they hope he will grow into his role as the future chief of the group. 12. What is the clicking sound for elands according to the passage? A. A sign of being sick. B. A way of hunting food. C. A form of communication. D. A noise of group fighting. 13. How does the writer help us better know the little eland Tshepo in Paragraph 2? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling a story. C. By asking questions. D. By giving an example. 14. What can we learn about Tshepo according to the passage? A. He is the oldest eland in the group. B. He can jump higher than all the others. C. He has the loudest click in the group now. D. His name means “hope” or “trust” in the Sotho language. 15. What is the writer’s main purpose (意图) in writing this passage? A. To explain why elands are in great danger. B. To compare elands with other kinds of antelopes. C. To describe a little eland’s life and interesting facts of his group. D. To remind people to protect the largest antelopes in the world. 【答案】12. C 13. A 14. D 15. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了小羚羊Tshepo在动物园的生活以及羚羊的一些有趣特点。 12题详解】 细节理解题。根据“But for elands, the world’s largest kind of antelope (羚羊), this clicking sound is a way of communicating.”可知，对于羚羊来说，咔嗒声是一种交流方式。故选C。 【13题详解】 细节理解题。根据“He weighs only 160 kg now. A grown-up eland can weigh more than 1,000 kg. He is just 15 months old and has joined a group of 19 grown-up elands.”可知，作者通过列举数字来让我们更好地了解小羚羊Tshepo。故选A。 【14题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The name Tshepo comes from the south of Africa and means ‘hope’ or ‘trust’ in the Sotho language.”可知，他的名字在索托语中意思是“希望”或“信任”。故选D。 【15题详解】 主旨大意题。通读全文可知，本文主要描述了一只小羚羊Tshepo的生活以及它所在群体的有趣事实。故选C。 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题。每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面的短文，从下面所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确的选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答最后小题。 Fall is a magical season full of changes and surprises! From colourful leaves to pleasant weather, there’s so much to love. But do you know some amazing facts about fall? ★The word “fall” ____16____. It comes from the phrase “the fall of the leaves”. When we talk about the time “between summer and winter”, we can also use the word “autumn”. Both words came from Britain, but “fall” is more common in American English. ★____17____! Many animals prepare for winter during fall. Squirrels(松鼠) collect nuts, bears eat more food to fatten up, and birds fly south to warmer places. Some animals grow thicker fur, and others spend winter in deep sleep. ★____18____! A study found that babies born in fall are more likely to live to 100 than those born in other seasons. The study showed that 30% of American old people aged 100 or older (born during 1880-1895) had autumn birthdays! ★Fun date: September 24th, 2303 The autumn equinox (秋分) usually falls on September 22nd or 23rd, but sometimes it changes. ____19____—in the year 2303, it will fall on September 24th! Isn’t it interesting? A. Fall babies live longer B. Discover how “fall” comes C. Mark your calendar (日历) D. People have fun in fall together E. Animals get very busy 16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________ 19. ________ 20. Do you like fall? Why or why not? (不超过15词) _______________________________________________ 【答案】16. B 17. E 18. A 19. C 20. Yes. Because I like cool weather and beautiful leaves. 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了关于秋天的一些令人惊奇的事实，包括“fall”一词的来源、动物在秋天的活动、秋天出生婴儿的长寿情况以及秋分的有趣日期。 【16题详解】 根据“It comes from the phrase ‘the fall of the leaves’. When we talk about the time ‘between summer and winter’, we can also use the word ‘autumn’. Both words came from Britain, but ‘fall’ is more common in American English.”可知，此段主要介绍了“fall”这个词的来源，选项B“探索‘fall’是如何来的”符合语境。故选B。 【17题详解】 根据“Many animals prepare for winter during fall. Squirrels(松鼠) collect nuts, bears eat more food to fatten up, and birds fly south to warmer places. Some animals grow thicker fur, and others spend winter in deep sleep.”可知，此段主要介绍了动物在秋天为冬天做准备，变得很忙碌，选项E“动物变得非常忙碌”符合语境。故选E。 【18题详解】 根据“A study found that babies born in fall are more likely to live to 100 than those born in other seasons. The study showed that 30% of American old people aged 100 or older (born during 1880-1895) had autumn birthdays!”可知，此段主要介绍了秋天出生的婴儿更长寿，选项A“秋天出生的婴儿寿命更长”符合语境。故选A。 【19题详解】 根据“The autumn equinox (秋分) usually falls on September 22nd or 23rd, but sometimes it changes.”以及“in the year 2303, it will fall on September 24th! Isn’t it interesting?”可知，前文提到秋分日期有时会变化，后文举例说明在2303年秋分是9月24日，此处应是与标记秋分日期相关的内容，选项C“在你的日历上标记一下”符合语境。故选C。 【20题详解】 开放性问题，言之有理即可。故填Yes. Because I like cool weather and beautiful leaves. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。 Changing schools is probably the worst thing in the world. When everyone already knows each other, the newcomer always feels not part of the group. Sadly, that new ____21____ was me. I stood ____22____ in front of my new class. Everyone warmly welcomed me, but I was too ____23____ to say much. I said my name in a very low voice and quickly took my seat. At break time, I went to the washroom and filled my water bottle ____24____. I knew I would feel unhappy without friends, but experiencing it in person was even worse than I thought. Our first lesson was English. This school was moving faster than my old one. ____25____, my classmates were much better at English than I. All of this weighed on me heavily ____26____ a PE class that day. After running a lot, I sat under a tree, ____27____ others play badminton. Suddenly, I heard a soft voice say, “Help…” I ____28____ and saw a girl who fell down in the hallway. ____29____ thinking, I rushed to the hallway. “Help! Help!” I called Mr. Green, the teacher. We carried ____30____ to the school doctor together. Luckily, she was fine again after some ____31____. When I got back to the classroom, something ____32____ happened. Some of my classmates asked me about the ____33____. Others said I was really brave. One person even asked if I wanted to walk home together after school. At that moment, I realized that I ____34____ my place in this new school—not by trying to go together, but by ____35____ someone when they needed it most. I didn’t feel like an outsider anymore. 21. A. speaker B. guide C. expert D. arrival 22. A. confidently B. wisely C. nervously D. disappointedly 23. A. lazy B. shy C. direct D. sincere 24. A. alone B. ahead C. alike D. away 25. A. Besides B. However C. Anyway D. Instead 26. A. if B. until C. although D. because 27. A. making B. hearing C. feeling D. watching 28. A. called back B. gave up C. turned around D. dropped off 29. A. Without B. Through C. During D. Before 30. A. him B. her C. me D. them 31. A. research B. rest C. education D. practice 32. A. difficult B. challenging C. surprising D. reasonable 33. A. accident B. chance C. expression D. disaster 34. A. left B. missed C. hung D. found 35. A. inviting B. trusting C. helping D. mentioning 【答案】21. D 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者转学到新学校后感到孤独，在一次体育课后帮助摔倒女孩，从而在新学校找到自己位置的故事。 【21题详解】 句意：不幸的是，那个新来的人就是我。 speaker演讲者；guide导游；expert专家；arrival到来，新来的人。根据Changing schools is probably the worst thing in the world.可知，转学很糟糕，而“我”是新来的，故选D。 【22题详解】 句意：我紧张地站在新班级前面。 confidently自信地；wisely明智地；nervously紧张地；disappointedly失望地。根据but I was too…to say much.可知，“我”太紧张而说不出太多话，故选C。 【23题详解】 句意：每个人都热情地欢迎我，但我太害羞了，说不出太多话。 lazy懒惰的；shy害羞的；direct直接的；sincere真诚的。根据to say much可知，“我”很害羞所以说不出太多话，故选B。 【24题详解】 句意：课间休息时，我独自去洗手间，把水瓶装满水。 alone独自地；ahead向前；alike相似的；away离开。根据I knew I would feel unhappy without friends可知，“我”没有朋友，所以是独自去洗手间，故选A。 【25题详解】 句意：此外，我的同学英语比我好得多。 Besides此外；However然而；Anyway无论如何；Instead相反。根据This school was moving faster than my old one…my classmates were much better at English than I.可知，前后是递进关系，故选A。 【26题详解】 句意：所有这些让我心情沉重，直到那天的一节体育课。 if如果；until直到；although虽然；because因为。根据All of this weighed on me heavily…a PE class that day.可知，后句为时间状语，表示直到体育课之前“我”都心情沉重，故选B。 【27题详解】 句意：跑了很久后，我坐在树下，看着别人打羽毛球。 making制作；hearing听到；feeling感觉；watching观看。根据others play badminton可知，是观看别人打羽毛球，故选D。 【28题详解】 句意：我转过身，看到一个女孩在走廊里摔倒了。 called back回电话；gave up放弃；turned around转身；dropped off下车。根据I heard a soft voice say, “Help…”可知，听到声音后“我”转身，故选C。 【29题详解】 句意：我想都没想就冲向走廊。 Without没有；Through通过；During在……期间；Before在……之前。根据I rushed to the hallway可知，“我”没有思考就冲过去了，故选A。 【30题详解】 句意：我们一起把她送到校医那里。 him他；her她；me我；them他们。根据a girl who fell down in the hallway可知，是女孩摔倒了，所以用her，故选B。 【31题详解】 句意：幸运的是，她休息一会儿后又好了。 research研究；rest休息；education教育；practice练习。根据she was fine again可知，休息后她好了，故选B。 【32题详解】 句意：当我回到教室时，令人惊讶的事情发生了。 difficult困难的；challenging有挑战性的；surprising令人惊讶的；reasonable合理的。根据Some of my classmates asked me about the…Others said I was really brave.可知，同学们的反应让“我”感到惊讶，故选C。 【33题详解】 句意：我的一些同学问我这次事故的情况。 accident事故；chance机会；expression表达；disaster灾难。根据a girl who fell down in the hallway可知，女孩摔倒是一次事故，故选A。 【34题详解】 句意：在那一刻，我意识到我在这所新学校找到了自己的位置——不是通过试图融入集体，而是通过在别人最需要的时候帮助他们。 left离开；missed错过；hung悬挂；found找到。根据not by trying to go together, but by…someone when they needed it most.可知，“我”通过帮助别人在新学校找到了自己的位置，故选D。 【35题详解】 句意：在那一刻，我意识到我在这所新学校找到了自己的位置集体——不是通过试图融入，而是通过在别人最需要的时候帮助他们。 inviting邀请；trusting信任；helping帮助；mentioning提及。根据We carried…to the school doctor together.可知，“我”帮助了摔倒的女孩，故选C。 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 another happy offer efficient face to face Interviewer: Hi, Jennifer! How do you usually communicate with your friends? Jennifer: Hi, Mr. Brown! We often talk ____36____. And adding some body language really helps. Interviewer: Body language? Can you give an example? Jennifer: Sure! Like waving to say “hello”, or smiling to show your ____37____. Interviewer: That’s interesting. What else, Mike? Mike: We sometimes use ____38____ useful way at our school—sign language. The teachers ____39____ sign language classes every week. Interviewer: Sounds great. I think sign language is very ____40____ for some people. Mike: Yeah. Ms. Duckwall, our school cook, uses it. She can’t hear well, so we learn some signs to talk with her. It makes her feel loved. 【答案】36. face to face 37. happiness 38. another 39. offer 40. efficient 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇访谈对话。对话围绕Jennifer和Mike与朋友的交流方式展开，提到了面对面交流、肢体语言以及学校开设的手语课程，还说明了手语对一些人的重要性。 【36题详解】 句意：我们经常面对面交谈。根据“How do you usually communicate with your friends?”以及“And adding some body language really helps.”和备选词汇可知，此处表达交流方式是面对面，考查face to face“面对面”。故填face to face。 【37题详解】 句意：比如挥手说“你好”，或者微笑来表达你的快乐。根据“smiling to show your”和备选词汇可知，此处指微笑表达快乐，your为形容词性物主代词，后面跟名词，happy的名词形式happiness“快乐”。故填happiness。 【38题详解】 句意：我们在学校有时会使用另一种有用的方式——手语。根据“We sometimes use…useful way at our school—sign language.”和备选词汇可知，此处指另一种有用的方式，考查another“另一个”。故填another。 【39题详解】 句意：老师们每周都开设手语课程。根据“The teachers...sign language classes every week.”和备选词汇可知，此处指老师开设课程，考查offer“提供，开设”，句子陈述一般事实，用一般现在时，主语是复数，谓语动词用原形。故填offer。 【40题详解】 句意：我认为手语对一些人来说非常高效。根据“I think sign language is very...for some people.”和备选词汇可知，此处指手语高效，考查efficient“高效的”，形容词作表语。故填efficient。 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。 Leisa Duckwall works in the dining hall of a middle school in Virginia, the USA. Her job is to serve breakfast and lunch to the students. Because of her hearing ____41____ (困难), students there weren’t able to communicate well with her. They ____42____ (指向) to the food they wanted. It sometimes created a ____43____ (凌乱). This year, however, things have changed a lot. Ms. Maskelony is a seventh-grade teacher at the school. She learned ASL (American Sign Language) in a ____44____ (当地的) community. She had conversations in ASL with Ms. Duckwall in the dining hall. ____45____ (在任何……的时候) they used their hands to talk to each other, the students stopped eating and watched with great ____46____ (兴趣). One day, Ms. Maskelony asked her class if they wanted to learn to sign. Everyone ____47____ (点头) excitedly and they began with ASL greetings and how to order food. When the head teacher heard about this, she decided that the whole school should learn how to sign. Now in their ____48____ (空闲) time, they learn and practice a new word in ASL every week. Soon they can communicate with Ms. Duckwall ____49____ (容易地). Ms. Duckwall expressed with her hands, “____50____ (没有任何东西) makes me happier than being able to communicate with others.” She feels truly heard, not with ears, but with heart. 【答案】41. difficulty 42. pointed 43. mess 44. local 45. Whenever 46. interest 47. nodded 48. spare##free 49. easily 50. Nothing 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了美国弗吉尼亚州一所中学餐厅工作人员Leisa Duckwall因听力困难与学生交流不畅，在七年级老师Ms. Maskelony的带动下，全校学生学习手语，最终能轻松与她交流的故事。 【41题详解】 句意：因为她的听力困难，那里的学生无法与她很好地交流。根据所给汉语提示可知，“困难”difficulty，此处指听力方面的困难，用单数形式。故填difficulty。 【42题详解】 句意：他们指向他们想要的食物。根据所给汉语提示可知，“指向”point，根据“weren’t”可知，句子时态为一般过去时，谓语动词用过去式pointed。故填pointed。 【43题详解】 句意：这有时会造成混乱。根据所给汉语提示可知，“凌乱”mess，create a mess表示“造成混乱”。故填mess。 【44题详解】 句意：她在当地的一个社区学习了美国手语。根据所给汉语提示可知，“当地的”local，形容词修饰名词community。故填local。 【45题详解】 句意：每当她们用手交谈时，学生们就停下吃饭，饶有兴趣地看着。根据所给汉语提示可知，“在任何……的时候”whenever，句首首字母大写。故填Whenever。 【46题详解】 句意：每当她们用手交谈时，学生们就停下吃饭，饶有兴趣地看着。根据所给汉语提示可知，“兴趣”interest，with great interest表示“饶有兴趣地”。故填interest。 【47题详解】 句意：每个人都兴奋地点头，他们从美国手语问候和如何点餐开始学习。根据所给汉语提示可知，“点头”nod，根据“asked”可知，句子时态为一般过去时，谓语动词用过去式nodded。故填nodded。 【48题详解】 句意：现在，在他们的空闲时间，他们每周学习并练习一个美国手语新单词。根据所给汉语提示可知，“空闲”spare/free，形容词修饰名词time。故填spare/free。 【49题详解】 句意：很快他们就能轻松地与Duckwall女士交流了。根据所给汉语提示可知，“容易地”easily，副词修饰动词communicate。故填easily。 【50题详解】 句意：没有什么比能够与他人交流更让我开心的了。根据所给汉语提示可知，“没有任何东西”nothing，句首首字母大写。故填Nothing。 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 2025：A Year That Inspired Me Hello everyone, Looking back on the past year, there were so many amazing and inspiring things that happened. Wow, ____51____ a nice year 2025 was! I want to share a few of them with you. First, technology got much ____52____ (cool)! I saw news about Chinese astronauts going into space. And I even wrote programs and made a watering machine by ____53____ (I). It can move around and help water plants. Technology can really help us learn and have fun! Second, sports brought people together. At the National Games, ____54____ (athlete) gave their all in matches. Their success comes from daily hard training. I plan ____55____ (work) harder and face challenges bravely like them in my own life. ____56____ (final), people helped each other a lot. When disasters happened in a place, warm-hearted people came ____57____ food and clothes to help those in need. We also raised money by selling old books and toys at school. I think it was just a small act, ____58____ we really made a big difference. 2025 taught me ____59____ great lesson. If I try my best and never stop learning, I ____60____ (make) great progress! So long, 2025! Hello, 2026! Thank you! 【答案】51. what 52. cooler 53. myself 54. athletes 55. to work 56. Finally 57. with 58. but 59. a 60. will make 【解析】 【导语】本文主要回顾了2025年发生的令人惊叹和鼓舞人心的事情，包括科技发展、体育赛事以及人们之间的互助，并表达了对2026年的期待。 【51题详解】 句意：哇，2025年是多么美好的一年啊！根据“Wow…a nice year 2025 was!”可知，该句是感叹句，结构为“what+a/an + 形容词 + 可数名词单数 + 主语 + 谓语”，所以此处应填what。故填what。 【52题详解】 句意：首先，科技变得更酷了！根据“technology got much…”可知，much修饰比较级，cool的比较级是cooler，表示“更酷的”。故填cooler。 【53题详解】 句意：我甚至自己编写程序并制作了一台浇水机。根据“by…”可知，by oneself表示“独自”，所以此处应填I的反身代词myself。故填myself。 【54题详解】 句意：在全国运动会上，运动员们在比赛中全力以赴。根据“…gave their all in matches”可知，此处指运动员们，athlete复数形式是athletes，表示“运动员”。故填athletes。 【55题详解】 句意：我计划像他们一样在自己的生活中更加努力地工作，勇敢地面对挑战。根据“I plan…harder”可知，plan to do sth.表示“计划做某事”，所以此处应填work的不定式to work。故填to work。 【56题详解】 句意：最后，人们互相帮助了很多。根据“…people helped each other a lot.”可知，此处位于句首，修饰整个句子，应用副词finally，表示“最后”，句首首字母大写。故填Finally。 【57题详解】 句意：当一个地方发生灾难时，热心的人们带着食物和衣服来帮助那些需要帮助的人。根据“came…food and clothes”可知，此处指带着食物和衣服，come with表示“带着”，所以此处应填with。故填with。 58题详解】 句意：我认为这只是一个小举动，但我们确实产生了很大的影响。根据“I think it was just a small act…we really made a big difference.”可知，前后是转折关系，所以此处应填but。故填but。 【59题详解】 句意：2025年给了我一个很好的教训。根据“…great lesson”可知，lesson是可数名词单数，且great以辅音音素开头，所以此处应填a，表示“一个”。故填a。 【60题详解】 句意：如果我尽我最大的努力，永不停止学习，我会取得很大的进步！根据“If I try my best and never stop learning, I…great progress!”可知，if引导的条件状语从句遵循“主将从现”原则，所以主句应用一般将来时，其结构为“will + 动词原形”，所以此处应填will make。故填will make。 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 61. 假设你是李华，你的英国好友Cindy上月来舟山参加了文化游学活动，你们打算在这个寒假继续体验该旅程。请根据以下信息写一篇短文，分享你们上个月的活动经历及这个寒假的后续安排，向校英文报“文化之旅”栏目投稿。 Zhoushan Cultural Tour When Where What last month Dongsha Ancient Fishing Town ◆learn to make model ships ◆enjoy fishermen’s paintings ◆… this winter vacation … … 注意：（1）短文必须包含表中的所有信息，并适当发挥。 （2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息。 （3）词数：80词左右。短文开头供选用，不计入总词数。 短文开头：Cindy and I had an unforgettable cultural tour in Zhoushan last month. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Cindy and I had an unforgettable cultural tour in Zhoushan last month. At Dongsha Ancient Fishing Town, we learned how to make model ships in the morning. In the afternoon, we enjoyed the beautiful fishermen’s paintings. They were amazing. After that, we tasted some local seafood. How delicious it was! We plan to go to the nearby beach this winter vacation. We will listen to old fishermen telling stories about their past experiences. Besides, we want to learn to make a simple fishing net. We believe the trip will let us know more about sea culture and bring us a lot of fun. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：一般过去时和一般将来时； ③提示：文章需包含表格信息，分两段描述上月活动与寒假安排，可适当添加细节，并突出写作要点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，描述上月游览地点及活动，如学做船模、欣赏渔民画和品尝海鲜等； 第二步，介绍寒假计划，列举具体活动，例如去沙滩、听渔民讲故事、制作渔网等； 第三步，书写结束语，表达对旅程的期待。 [亮点词汇] ①local seafood 当地海鲜 ②plan to do 计划做某事 ③experience 经历 [高分句型] ①How delicious it was! (How引导的感叹句) ②We believe the trip will let us know more about sea culture and bring us a lot of fun. (省略that的宾语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $