内容正文:
Sheet1
楚雄州中小学2025-2026学年上学期期末教育学业质量监测 初中七年级 英语 多维细目表
题号 题型 考查必备知识 考查关键能力 考查学科核心素养 考查要求 分值 试题难度预估值
1 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
2 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
3 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
4 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
5 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.8
6 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
7 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
8 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
9 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
10 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
11 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
12 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
13 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
14 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
15 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 基础性 1.5 0.7
16 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1.5 0.7
17 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1.5 0.7
18 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1.5 0.7
19 选择题 语音知识 听力理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1.5 0.7
20 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
21 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
22 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
23 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
24 选择题 语法知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
25 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.8
26 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.7
27 选择题 词汇知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 基础性 1 0.65
28 选择题 语用知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.65
29 选择题 语用知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.65
30 选择题 语用知识 词汇辨析能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.8
31 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.8
32 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.8
33 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.8
34 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
35 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
36 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
37 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
38 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
39 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.7
41 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
42 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
43 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
44 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.6
45 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
46 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.8
47 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.8
48 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.8
49 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.8
50 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1 0.8
51 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1 0.8
52 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1 0.8
53 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1 0.7
54 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1 0.7
55 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1 0.7
56 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
57 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
58 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.65
59 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.6
60 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 语言能力 应用性 1.5 0.6
61 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1.5 0.6
62 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1.5 0.6
63 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1.5 0.6
64 选择题 语篇知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1.5 0.6
65 选择题 语法知识 阅读理解能力 思维品质 应用性 1.5 0.65
66 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.65
67 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.65
68 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.65
69 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.65
70 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.65
71 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.6
72 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.6
73 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.6
74 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.6
75 填空题 词汇知识 写作能力 语言能力 综合性 1 0.6
66 写作题 语用知识 书面表达能力 思维品质 综合性 10 0.5
试题难度预估值 0.7
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Sheet3
$楚雄州中小学2025一2026学年上学期期末教育学业质量监测
初中七年级英语答题卡
姓名:
贴条形码区
班级:
座位号:
准
考证
号
正确
1.答题前,考生须认真核对条形码上的姓名和考号
填涂
考生禁填
然后将本人姓名和考号填写在相应位置
0
四
0四
四
四
■
2.答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将对应题目的答案
缺考考生由
口
注
标号涂黑,修改时用橡皮擦干净,再选涂其他答案
监考员贴条
2
Q
2
2
2
2四
错误
3.答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米的黑色字迹签宇
形码,并用2B
3
回
填涂
意
笔书写,作图题可先用铅笔绘出,确认后再用05
☑
事
毫米的黑色字迹签字笔描清楚。要求字体干整,笔
铅笔填涂下
团
令
团
团
迹清晰。严格按题号所指示的答题区域作答,超出
面的缺考标
口
项
答题区域书写的答案无效:在试题卷、草稿纸上答
记。
回
题无效
品
图
4.保持答题卡清洁,完整。严禁折叠,严禁在答题卡上
缺考标记
9
9
9
做任何标记,严禁使用涂改液、胶带纸,修正带
选择题(须用2B铅笔填涂)
1~20、41
45、61
65题每小题1.5
分;2140、46~60题每小题1分。
共80分。
1
6
2345
88888
67890
E888E
A
131415
718190
223245
网网网网网
A
31
LA]
[B]
Ic]
D
367689
A
B
O
41
6
A
B
O
687880
eeeee
LAT
233385
8E8
40
国国国
6233346
百GGG
的
6786960
AJ
[B]
LAI
非选择题(须用0.5
毫米的黑色字迹签字笔书写)
第四部分
写作
第一节
(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
66.
67
68
69
70.
第二节
(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
71
72
73
74.
75.
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
【英语答题卡
第1页(共2页)】
26-ZYCZ04a·
请勿在此区域内作答
第三节书面表达(满分10分)
My Family and I
Hello!My name is Li Hua.
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
【英语答题卡第2页(共2页)】
.26-ZYCZ04a·楚雄州中小学2025至2026学年上学期期末教育学业质量监测初中七年级英语试卷第一节听下面五个句子,从题中所给的AB、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间,每个句子听两遍。One, the keys are on the chair. The keys are on the chair. Too, amy's hobby is playing chess. Amy's hobby is playing chess. Three, look at our new library. Look at our new library. For I want to join the sports club. I want to join the sports club. Five, I usually go home at seven P, M. I usually go home . at seven PM. 第二节听下面五个句子,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每个句子听两遍。Sex, can you paint? Can you paint? Seven, what color is your bike? What color is your bike? Eight, where are you from? Where are . you from? Nine, how much is the guitar? How much is the guitar? Ten, thank you. Thank you. 第三节听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话听两遍。eleven. Good . morning. jane. Good morning jack. Good . morning jane. Good . morning jack. Twelve, is that your sister? tom? No, is my cousin. Is that your sister? tom? No, is my cousin. Thirteen. excuse me, where is the dining hall? Is across from the yard? Excuse me, where is the dining hall? Is across from the yard? For eighteen. i'm in class two. How about you? amy? Oh, we are in the same class. I'm in class too. How about you? amy? Oh, we are in the same class. Fifteen, what do you do before going to bed? Peter. I usually take a shower. What do you do before going to bed? Peter. I usually take a shower. 第四节,听下面两段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍,听第一段材料,回答第16、十七小题。Let's go, Jenny, that's spell for history class. I don't like history. It's difficult for me. How about you, mike? I like IT. I think it's interesting. Is history your favorite subject? No, my favorite subject is IT is useful. Let's go, Jenny. That's spell for history class. I don't like history. It's difficult for me. How about you. mike? I like IT. I think it's interesting. Is history your favorite subject? No, my favorite subject is I, T is useful. 听第二段材料,回答第18至20. 小题。My name is ten fy. I'm twelve years old. I live in queening with my parents. My father is a teacher. He is funny. He can cook well. My mother is a reporter. SHE is kind SHE can write well. I'm tall, I can swim fast. We are a happy family. My name is ten fy on twelve years old. I live in queening with my parents. My father is a teacher. He is funny. He can cook well. My mother is a reporter. She's kind SHE can write well. I'm tall, I can swim fast. We are a happy family. 听力部分到此结束。
楚雄州中小学2025—2026学年上学期期末教育学业质量监测
初中七年级英语试卷
注意事项:
1.全卷满分100分,答题时间为120分钟。
2.请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。
6. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Yes, I do. B. Yes, I am. C. Yes, I can.
7. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B-I-K-E, Bike. B. It’s big. C. Black.
8. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I’m from Singapore. B. My mother. C. Cute.
9. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Miss Green. B. 200 yuan. C. In the music room.
10. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Good morning. B. You’re welcome. C. Sorry.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。
11. When do they meet? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. At night.
12. Who is that girl? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Tom’s sister. B. Tom’s cousin. C. Tom’s friend.
13. Where is the dining hall? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Across from the yard. B. Behind the yard. C. In front of the yard.
14. Which class is Amy in? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Class 2. B. Class 3. C. Class 4.
15. What does Peter do before going to bed? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Read books. B. Drink milk. C. Take a shower.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
听一段材料,回答下面两个小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. How does Jenny feel about history?
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Useful.
17. What’s Mike’s favourite subject?
A History. B. IT. C. Music.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. What’s Teng Fei’s father like?
A. Funny. B. Kind. C. Handsome.
19. What does Teng Fei’s mother do?
A. A teacher. B. A reporter. C. A singer.
20. What is Teng Fei good at?
A. Writing. B. Cooking. C. Swimming.
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
21. Jack likes to play ________ basketball.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
22. The flowers are from Dali. They are ________.
A. I B. my C. me D. mine
23. The dog is clever. It ________ draw well.
A. has to B. may not C. can D. can’t
24. Mike is busy. He is ________ duty today.
A. in B. on C. at D. for
25. I like the food in Yunnan ________ it’s delicious.
A. because B. or C. but D. so
26. Lusheng is a musical ________ in Yunnan.
A. instrument B. problem C. mistake D. term
27. —________ pens do you have?
—I have 6.
A. What B. How old C. How many D. Whose
28. There ________ many big farms in Yunnan.
A. is B. are C. have D. has
29. —________ you like taking photos?
—No, I don’t. But my father ________ it.
A. Are; like B. Are; likes C. Do; like D. Do; likes
30. —Can I help you?
—________
A. Yes, please. B. Here you are. C. Let’s go to class. D. Have a nice day.
第二节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Tony Smith is a little boy. Everyone ___31___ him Tony. He lives in Kunming with his ___32___. His father is handsome and his mother is beautiful.
It’s Tuesday today. Tony ___33___ early in the morning. Tony has math class today. He likes math because it’s ___34___.
In the ___35___ class, Miss White says, “Let’s ___36___ from one to ten.”
Tony learns the ___37___ carefully (认真地). Soon he can count them.
Miss White is ___38___ happy, “How many people are there at your home, Tony?”
Tony says, “There are ___39___ people at my home, Miss White.”
“___40___ are they?” Miss White asks.
“My father and my mother,” Tony says.
“Oh?” Miss White is surprised. “Two people in your family?”
“Yes. Because now I’m not at home.”
31. A. calls B. buys C. acts D. plays
32. A. classmates B. parents C. friends D. teachers
33. A. gets up B. goes to bed C. helps with D. blows out
34. A. new B. boring C. difficult D. useful
35. A. art B. history C. math D. music
36. A. fall B. stay C. begin D. count
37. A. colours B. names C. hobbies D. numbers
38. A. usually B. only C. really D. most
39. A. two B. three C. four D. five
40. A. When B. Who C. Where D. How
第三部分 阅读理解(共三节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
根据短文内容,判断正误(正确“T”,错误“F”),并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Hello. I’m Fu Xing. I am a student in Yunnan. My school is big and modern.
Look at that red building! This is our classroom building. There are 20 classrooms in it. We have our classes there every day.
What’s that in front of the classroom building? It’s our school sports field. It’s large. We do morning exercises and have PE classes on it.
Across from the sports field is our school library. I like it very much. I usually read books there after school.
Behind the library is our dining hall. A lot of students have lunch in the dining hall. The food there is delicious.
This is my school Do you like it?
41. The classroom building is white.
42. The sports field is in front of the classroom building.
43. Fu Xing usually plays football after school.
44. There is no dining hall in the school.
45 The passage is about Fu Xing’s school.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
根据短文内容,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
A
Sarah White has a busy February. Let’s have a look.
46. What’s Sarah’s family name?
A. White. B. Brown. C. Black. D. Smith.
47. When is Sarah’s birthday?
A. On Jan. 2nd. B. On Jan. 22nd. C. On Feb. 2nd. D. On Feb. 22nd.
48. Who is Tom?
A Sarah’s father. B. Sarah’s teacher. C. Sarah’s friend. D. Sarah’s brother.
49. What does Sarah want to buy for her brother?
A. Chinese chess. B. A tennis bat. C. A violin. D. A hat.
50. What is this passage about?
A. Food. B. Job. C. Sports. D. Life.
B
Peter is a new middle school student. He is quiet so he doesn’t have a friend at school.
After class, some students play football, tell stories or do homework together. And some students act out English dramas. Peter likes to sit there and watch them.
One Friday, a boy comes to Peter, “Hi, I’m Mike. You’ re new, right? Do you want to go to the drama club with us after school?”
Peter says, “I’d love to, but I’m not good at acting out.”
Mike says, “It’s OK. We can help you.”
Then, Peter goes to the drama club every Friday.
Acting out dramas is interesting. Soon, Peter makes friends with the members in the drama club. They also help Peter with his homework.
Peter misses his old friends sometimes, but he isn’t lonely here. He likes his school life and his new friends.
51. What’s Peter like?
A. Quiet. B. Clever. C. Funny. D. Kind.
52. What does Mike ask Peter to do?
A. Play football. B. Do homework. C. Join a club. D. Tell stories.
53. When does Peter go to the drama club?
A. On Mondays. B. On Tuesdays. C. On Wednesdays. D. On Fridays.
54. What does the underlined word “lonely” mean in Chinese (画线单词的中文意思是什么)?
A. 激动的 B. 孤单的 C. 劳累的 D. 满足的
55. What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Peter’s Family Members B. Peter’s Favourite Subject
C. Peter’s School D. Peter finds New Friends at School
C
Do you know China’s Shenzhou-21 spacecraft (载人飞船)? It flies into the sky on October 31st, 2025. There are three members on it. They are Zhang Lu, Wu Fei and Zhang Hongzhang. Here is some information about them.
Zhang Lu is from Hunan. He was born in 1976. He is tall and kind. His hobby is listening to music. He wants to study music but he chooses to be a pilot (飞行员) in Xi’an.
Wu Fei is from Inner Mongolia (内蒙古). He was born in 1993 and he is 33 years old now. He is smart and tall. He likes math very much and he is good with numbers. His family and friends like him a lot because he can always make them laugh.
Zhang Hongzhang is from Shandong. He is 40 years old. He wears a pair of glasses. He likes reading very much. He likes reading books about biology. He likes doing sports and he can do Tai Chi well.
56. How does the writer start the passage?
A. By telling a story. B. By using a saying. C. By asking a question. D. By listing numbers.
57. How old is Zhang Lu?
A. 32 years old. B. 40 years old. C. 47 years old. D. 50 years old.
58. What is Wu Fei good with?
A. Music. B. Numbers. C. Colours. D. Computers.
59. What can we know from the passage?
A. Zhang Lu doesn’t like music. B. Zhang Hongzhang wears glasses.
C. Zhang Lu is from Shandong. D. Wu Fei is good at doing Tai Chi.
60. What’s the best structure (结构) of the passage?
A. B. C. D.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
I’m Emma. I am from the UK but I live in Yunnan with my family. Four people are in my family. ___61___
Mike is my father. He gets up at 5:30 a.m. every day. And then he runs for an hour in the park. ___62___ Then, he makes breakfast for us at 7:30 a.m. He goes to work at 8:00 a.m.
Lucy is my mother. She usually gets up at 7:30 a.m. ___63___ They finish working at 6:00 p.m. And they always take a walk after dinner.
I’m studying at No 3 Middle School now. ___64___ We usually get up at 7:30 a.m. and we go to school at 8:00 a.m. ___65___ And Ella goes to the school library. We go home together at 6:00 p.m.
A. My brother is busy.
B. Ella is my twin sister.
C. Here are our daily routines.
D. We often go to bed at 9:00 p.m.
E. He usually takes a shower at 7:00 a.m.
F. After school, I play tennis with my friends.
G. After breakfast, she goes to work with my father.
第四部分 写作(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据句意,用括号中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
66. This is Amy’s ________ birthday. She is ten years old. (ten)
67. These tomato plants are ________. (their)
68. Amy is ________ in collecting insects in Yunnan. (interest)
69. We have to brush our ________ after eating food. (tooth)
70. Teng Fei is good at science. He wants to be a ________ like Yang Zhenning. (science)
第二节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语,注意使用适当的形式,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
71. The Panda Huahua’s ________ is Cheng Hehua. (全名)
72. French is ________ English. (与……相像)
73. Emma likes to go to Dianchi Lake ________. (在周末)
74. Tom ________ this problem. He is smart. (计算出)
75. Yunnan has ________ animals and plants. (大量的)
第三节 书面表达(满分10分)
76. 2025年,云南省各地举办了多项亲子活动,以此促进家人间的情感联系。假如你是李华,你校英语俱乐部正在开展以“My Family and I”为题的征文活动,请你用英语写一篇短文,向其投稿,介绍你和你家人的基本信息以及你们的爱好。
要求:
1. 根据所给题目,写一篇短文,词数不少于60(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
2. 语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁;
3. 文中不得使用真实姓名、校名,否则以零分计;
4. 请将短文写在答题卡上,写在本试题卷上无效。
My Family and I
Hello! My name is Li Hua. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
楚雄州中小学2025—2026学年上学期期末教育学业质量监测
初中七年级英语试卷
注意事项:
1.全卷满分100分,答题时间为120分钟。
2.请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】B
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】C
【8题答案】
【答案】A
【9题答案】
【答案】B
【10题答案】
【答案】B
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。
【11题答案】
【答案】A
【12题答案】
【答案】B
【13题答案】
【答案】A
【14题答案】
【答案】A
【15题答案】
【答案】C
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
【16~17题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. B
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. A 19. B 20. C
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
【21题答案】
【答案】D
【22题答案】
【答案】D
【23题答案】
【答案】C
【24题答案】
【答案】B
【25题答案】
【答案】A
【26题答案】
【答案】A
【27题答案】
【答案】C
【28题答案】
【答案】B
【29题答案】
【答案】D
【30题答案】
【答案】A
第二节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
【31~40题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. D 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B
第三部分 阅读理解(共三节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. F 42. T
43. F 44. F
45. T
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
根据短文内容,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
A
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. A 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. D
B
【51~55题答案】
【答案】51. A 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. D
C
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. C 57. D 58. B 59. B 60. A
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
【61~65题答案】
【答案】61. C 62. E 63. G 64. B 65. F
第四部分 写作(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据句意,用括号中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
【66题答案】
【答案】tenth##10th
【67题答案】
【答案】theirs
【68题答案】
【答案】interested
【69题答案】
【答案】teeth
【70题答案】
【答案】scientist
第二节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语,注意使用适当的形式,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
【71题答案】
【答案】full name
【72题答案】
【答案】similar to
【73题答案】
【答案】at weekends##on weekends##at the weekend##on the weekend
【74题答案】
【答案】works out
【75题答案】
【答案】a lot of## lots of
第三节 书面表达(满分10分)
【76题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
My Family and I
Hello! My name is Li Hua. There are three people in my family—my father, my mother and I. My father is tall. He likes cooking. He can cook well. My mother is beautiful with long hair. She likes reading. I am a student in a middle school. I am not very tall. I like playing basketball.
When I have problems, they always help me. I love my family very much.
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