云南省昆明市东川区2025-2026学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题

2025一2026学年上学期期末检测 七年级英语 试题卷 (全卷四个部分，共8页；满分85分，考试用时120分钟) 注意事项： 1.本卷为试题卷。考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试题卷、 草稿纸上作答无效 2.考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共三节，满分15分）》 第一节（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的 图片，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作 答时间。每个句子听两遍。 英语 语文 数学 1.A B 2.A. B. 3. 星期二 星期四 星期五 5.A. 入 B. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的 正确答语，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟 的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。 6.A.Yes,I do. B.Yes,I can. C.Yes,I am. 7.A.Class Five. B.It's red. C.I'm 13. 七年级英语试题卷·第1页（共8页） 8.A.Oh,sorry! B.Good morning. C.Thanks.You too. 9.A.It's a bottle. B.I'm from Yunnan. C.It's next to the gym. 10.A.At 6 o'clock B.With my brother. C.On the bed. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面3段对话，每段对话后有一至两个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中 选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每段对话后，你将有时 间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每小题5秒钟，每段对话听两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第11小题。 11.When is Mike's mother's birthday? A.On June 15th. B.On July 15th C.On August 15th. 听第二段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12.Who wants to join the music club? A.Tom. B.Kate. C.Linda. 13.What club does Tim want to join? A.The nature club. B.The art club. C.The book club. 听第三段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14.What colour are Alice's socks? A.White. B.Orange. C.Yellow. 15.Where are Alice's socks? A.On the bed. B.In the box. C.Under the chair. 第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节单项填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答 案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 16.下列单词画线部分的发音与其他三个不同的是 A.trousers B.house C.about D.cousin 17.I can play violin,but I can't play chess. A.the;/ B.the;the C.a;/ D.a;the 18.My mother prepares breakfast for every morning A.I B.my C.me D.our 19.John is good acting.He is in the drama club. A.in B.at C.for D.on 七年级英语试题卷·第2页（共8页） 20.China is a great with a long history. 29.A.sister B.brother C.grandma D.grandpa A.hall B.villageC.school D.country 30.A.0r- -B.and- C.but D.because 21.There a plant and some lockers at the back of the classroom. 31.A.different B.similar C.important D.boring A.has B.is C.are D.have 32.A.find :B.brush. C.blow. D.watch 22.Whose farm is this?. 33.A.starts B.greets C.celebrates D.finishes It's.my 34.A.drama B.art C.sports :D.music A.aunt and uncle's B.aunt's and uncle's C.aunt's'and uncleD.aunt and uncle 35.A.get up B.get dressed C.go home D.go to bed 23.Sarah enjoys English songs. 第三部分阅读理解（共三节，满分30分） A.sing B.sings C.singing D.to sing 24.Does Peter take a shower in the morning? 第÷节（共5小题每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） He does it at night. 根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”,错误“F”),并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应 A.Yes,he is. B.Yes,he does C.No,he isn't. D.No,he doesn't 位置上。 25. balloons do you need? Hello!I'm Daisy.Welcome to my school!It's a big and beautiful school About ten balloons. This is our playground.It's big.There are.two buildings on its left.They are the science A.How old B.How many C.How much D.What.colour building and the dining hall.The science building is in front of the dining hall.On the right 第二节.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） of the playground,there are three buildings.They are the gym,the library,and the office 从题中所给的AB、CD四个选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项，并将所 building.The library is between the gym and the office building.What is that tall building 选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 next to the office building?It's the classroom building.We take classes there. Hello!I'm Sam Brown.And my 26.name is Brown.I want to.27.you Let's come into my classroom.There are forty desks and forty chairs for students.There something about my family and school life. is a teacher's desk and a teacher's chair,too. There are four.people in.my family.My parents are28 in a middle school.Their 36.Daisy's school is big and beautiful. students all like their classes.I have a 29,and his name is Jim.Jim and I are twelve 37.The science building is on the left of the playground. years old.We study in the same school,30 we are not classmates.We're in31 38.The gym is between the library and the office building classes.We always go to school together. 39.The classroom building is next to the office building. 40.There are 40 desks and 40.chairs in Daisy's classroom I often rise at 7:00 in the morning.After that,I 32 my teeth and haye breakfast Then I go toschool.I have seven lessons every school day.School 33 at 5:00 in the 第二节（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并将所选答案 afternoon.'After school,I go to the34 club.I play basketball and ping-pong there.I go 涂到答题卡的相应位置上！ back home at 6:00.I have dinner at 6:30 and after that I do my homework.At 9:30,I must A (必须)35 because I can't be late for school. 26.A.first B.full C.middle D.last Age:12 Class:Class 4,Grade 7 27.A:speak B.tell C.say D.talk Mary Smith Favourite colours:green and yellow Favourite food:Mapo tofu 28.A.teachers B.friends C.members D.nurses Hobby:playing football Good friend:Amy 七年级英语试题卷：第3页（共8页） 七年级英语试题卷·第4页（共8页） 续表 Age:15 Class:Class 3,Grade 9 David White Favourite colours:blue and brown Favourite food:rice noodles Hobby:going hiking Good friend:Mike Age:13 Class:Class 2,Grade 7 Helen Miller Favourite colours:red and yellow Favourite food:hot pot Hobby:reading books Good friend:John Age:14 Class:Class 5,Grade 8 Peter Brown Favourite colours:blue and green Favourite food:Beijing roast duck Hobby:taking photos Good friend:Ella 41.What class is Mary in? A.Class 2,Grade 7. B.Class 3,Grade 9. C.Class 4,Grade 7. D.Class 5,Grade 8. 42.What's David's favourite food? A.Mapo tofu. B.Rice noodles. C.Hot pot. D.Beijing roast duck. 43.What's Helen's hobby? A.Reading books.B.Taking photos. C.Going hiking. D.Playing football. 44.What are Peter's favourite colours? A.Green and yellow.B.Blue and brown. C.Red and yellow. D.Blue and green. 45.Who is Peter's good friend? A.Amy. B.Mike. C.John. D.Ella. B Hello!My name is Jenny.My favourite subject is English.For some students,English is boring.For me,it's really interesting,because we can do some fun things in class. Our English teacher is Miss Green.She is from London,the UK.She is kind.She always helps us.Her Chinese is very good,but in class,she only speaks English with us. Why is her English class so interesting?Before class,she reads a short story to us.In class,Miss Green likes using picture cards to help us to learn English.We can play games in class,too.And role-play(角色扮演)is my favourite in her class..We play the roles in the book to learn English.It's great fun! We have an English class every day from Monday to Friday.We're happy to see Miss Green every school day. 七年级英语试题卷·第5页（共8页） 46.What does Jenny think of English? A.Difficult. B.Interesting. C.Easy. D.Boring. 47.Where is Miss Green from? A.The UK. B.The US. C.Australia. D.Singapore. 48.What does Jenny like best in Miss Green's class? A.Listening to stories. B.Making picture cards. C.Doing role-play. D.Singing English songs 49.How many English classes does Jenny have a week? A.3. B.4. C.5. D.6. 50.What is the best title(标题)for the text'? A.My School Days B.Jenny and Her Classmates C.My Favourite Teacher D.My Favourite Subject C We all want to have great parties on our birthdays.But it's not easy to have a great party.Let me tell you how to have a great party. We need to have it on the right day.If.your friends are hectic on that day,some of them will not have time to come to your party.Saturday and Sunday are good days for a party because children don't go to school and adults(成年人)don't go to work. You need to invite()your friends to your party.Tell them the time and place of your party.If you have the party on Saturday,you need to tell them on Thursday.Then they can have time to prepare a gift for you. Think about games for the party.If your friends like playing games at the party,you need to think about some games.The games need to be easy and interesting for your friends. Then you can have a good time at the party. 5l.What does the underlined word“hectic”in Paragraph(段落)2 mean in Chinese? A.忙碌的 B.空闲的 C.有趣的 D.美丽的 52.You need to tell your friends two days before the party,so they can have time to prepare for you. A.a club B.a wish C.a lesson D.a gift 53.What does the last paragraph mainly talk about? A.The food at the party. B.The games at the party. C.The gifts at the party. D.The people at the party. 七年级英语试题卷·第6页（共8页） 54.What can-we know from the text? 第四部分年写作（共三节，满分20分） A.It's easy.to have a great birthday party. B.The best time to have a party is on Friday 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） C.You:need to tell the time and place of the party to your friends 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。 D.You can ask your friends to prepare some games for the party. 61.This rod is my father's.(fish) 55.What is the structure(结构)，of the text'?(①=Paragraph1) 62.It's not easy to be a(science) ①.②：③ ① ① ② 63.The hulusi and the wuba are musical from Yunnan.instrument) A. ④ B.②③④ c.④ 64.She an'email to.her'pen friend every week.(send) 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 65.The Dai people celebrate the Water Festival in the month of the year.(four) 根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填人文中空白处的最佳选项。选项 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分；满分5分） 中有两项为多余选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式，并将答案写在答题卡的 Do you think it is important to join school clubs?I think joining clubs is good for 相应位置上。 students.56 66.My brother is collecting insects.(对…感兴趣)） Relax(放松)themselves. 67.Students.can computers to study.(利用) 57The clubs often give some interesting activities.Students can have a lot of fun 68.Can you:help me the maths problem?,(计算出) in these activities. 581 .69.The library is the teaching building..(在…对面) Students can talk to other studentswith the same hobby in the clubs.It can help 70.They are happy to meet in the new school.(彼此) students feel happy at school and make friends with different people. 第三节书面表达（满分10分】 -Make-their-life-interesting. 同学们，进人初中后你们学校一定开展了丰富多彩的社团活动吧！假如你是李 Many students have much free(空闲的)time.s59They:often feel bored(无聊 华，请结合社团活动、成员、社团老师等方面以“My Favourite Club”为题，用英语写一篇 )When students join clubs,they have a lot of things to be busy,with. 短文，介绍你最喜欢的社团。 Help them with theirstudies. 要求：1根据所给题目，写一篇短文，词数60左右； 60 Because they can ask the teachers in clubs for help and they can have more 2.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁； time to do other things. 3.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息； A.Make new friends. 4.不得抄袭试卷原文。 B.Make teachers happy. My Favourite Club: C.They are always busy at home. D.Joining clubs can help'students relax. E.They don't know what to do after school. F.Let me-tell you some reasons for joining them. G.Clubs make students do their homework well and fast 七年级英语试题卷·第7页（共8页） 七年级英语试题卷·第8页（共8页）2025至2026学年上学期期末检测七年级英语听力第一节听下面五个句子，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图片，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间，每个句子听两遍。One, I think math is difficult. I think maths is difficult. Two, there are some geese on the farm. There are some geese on the farm. Three, my grandfather loves me very much. My grandfather loves me very much. full. Would you like some yoga? Would you like some yoga? Five janes favorite day is thursday. Jan's favorite . day is thursday. 第二节听下面五个句子，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每个句子听两遍。Six, can you run fast? Can you run fast? Seven, what class are you in? What class are you in? Eight, have a nice day. Have a nice day. Nine, where is the school hall? Where is the school hall? Ten、when do you do homework? When do you do . homework? 第三节听下面三段对话，每段对话后有1至2个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。听完每段对话后，你将有时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每小题15秒钟，每段对话。听两遍。听第一段对话。回答第十一小题。When is your mother's birthday. mike? Oh, IT is on july fifteen. S. When is your mother's birthday. mike? Oh, IT is on july fifteen. S. 听第二段对话，回答第十二、十三小题。Hello, tim. Kate and I want to join the music club. Do you want to join IT with us? Really, but I don't like music. So what club do you want to join? I want to join the nature club. Hello, tim, kate and I want to join the music club. Do you want to join IT with us? Really, but I don't like music. So what club do you want to join? I want to join the nature club. 听第三段对话，回答第十四、十五小题。I can't find my socks. Dad, you mean your White ones? Alice. yes, look. they are under the chair. You need to keep your room tidy. OK dad. I can't find my socks, dad. You mean your White ones? Alice. yes, look. they are under the chair. You need to keep your room tidy. OK, dad. 听力测试到此结束。 2025一2026学年上学期期末检测 七年级英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分听力（共三节，满分15分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1~5 CCBAB 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 6~10 BACCA 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 11~15 BBAAC 第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 16~20 DACBD 21~25 BACDB 第二节完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 26~30 DBABC 31~35 ABDCD 第三部分阅读理解（共三节，满分30分) 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 36-40 TTFTF 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41~45 CBADD 46~50 BACCD 51~55 ADBCB 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 56~60 FDAEG 第四部分写作（共三节，满分20分) 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 61.fishing 62.scientist 63.instruments 64.sends 65.fourth 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 66.interested in 67.make use of 68.work out/to work out 69.across from 70.each other 第三节书面表达（满分10分） 略 一、评分原则 1.本题总分为10分，按五个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确 定或调整档次，最后给分。 第1页共2页 二、评分标准 档次 分数 评价要求 第五档 9-10分 包含了所有要点，能围绕内容适当发挥，内容具体、丰富。应用 了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、 表达清楚、书写规范，没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语 言运用能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档 7~8分 漏掉一个要点，能围绕内容适当发挥，内容具体。应用了较丰富 的语言结构和词汇，用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、书写规范， 没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，基本达到 了预期的写作目的。 第三档 56分 漏掉两个要点，有所发挥，内容欠丰富。应用的语言结构和词汇 能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚，书写较规范，有少 量语言错误。 第二档 34分 漏掉大部分要点，内容不够丰富、不够具体，词数较少。语言表 达过于简单，句子不够通顺，行文不够连贯，书写欠规范，有部 分语言错误。 第一档 0-2分 所写内容明显偏离要点，内容过少。语言不规范，句子无条理， 行文不连贯，语言错误较多。（照抄试卷原文得0分） 第2页共2页