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兰州一中2025—2026—1学期期末考试试题
高一英语
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will the man probably get home?
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
2. What is the woman’s attitude toward the man’s suggestion?
A. Worried. B. Positive. C. Uncertain.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Asian businesses.
B. European history.
C. The Belt and Road Initiative.
4. What does the woman think of the aging population?
A. It’ll cause problems. B. It’ll hardly affect jobs. C. It’ll be solved by robots.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Boss and secretary. C. Teacher and student.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6 Why does Janine make the call?
A. To cancel the meeting. B. To have the pipe fixed. C. To say sorry to the man.
7. What did the manager promise to do?
A. Send a workman. B. Call back at 10:00. C. Visit the woman.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. How does the man feel about the upcoming exams?
A. Excited. B. Stressed. C. Relaxed.
9. What does the woman find helpful?
A. Creating a study schedule. B. Studying in the evening. C. Having a discussion.
10. What does the woman advise the man to do at last?
A. Make the most of time. B. Review lessons at night. C. Get a good night’s sleep.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What can we know about the man?
A. He wants to move school.
B. He is the oldest in the class.
C. He is satisfied with the house.
12. What does the woman say about the nearest supermarket?
A. It’s near the house. B. It’s a little far away. C. It’s newly opened.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a house. B. In a school. C. In a bank.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14. Where did the woman meet Kylie?
A. On the street. B. At an office. C. In a TV show.
15. What did Kylie do at the radio station?
A. She looked for a parking lot.
B. She attended an interview.
C. She gave coverage of a game.
16. Why did Kylie come to the woman?
A. For the T-shirt she wore.
B. For the film starring Jason.
C. For the Australian program.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17 At what age did the speaker start playing chess?
A. Three. B. Five. C. Seven.
18. When did the speaker win his first adult competition?
A. In 2014. B. In 2020. C. In 2022.
19. Why did the speaker stop playing chess for a year?
A. To do volunteer work.
B. To enjoy a long vacation.
C. To lead a normal teenage life.
20. What does the speaker want to do next?
A. Hold a competition. B. Practice a new game. C. Join the national team.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Every year in April, Thailand celebrates Songkran. The festival marks the start of the traditional Thai New Year and is well-known for its lively water fights, attracting tourists from all over the world.
Why is Songkran Celebrated in April?
Songkran is Thailand’s most important annual festival. It is traditionally celebrated for three days starting from the first full moon in April. This is because the country runs on the lunisolar Theravada Buddhist calendar. The name Songkran comes from an ancient Sanskrit word meaning “to enter” or “to pass into”. These days, the festival has a set start date of 13 April.
Why Do People Have Water Fights?
Water plays a key role in Songkran. Traditionally, the first day begins with cleaning homes and pouring (倾倒) water on Buddha images in temples. This act symbolizes washing away the past year’s bad luck to welcome the New Year. On the second day, young people show respect (敬意) to their elders by pouring water over their hands and feet in return for blessings (祝福) . Over time, these traditional water-related customs have turned into huge water fights in the streets, loud music and street parties.
Best Places to Enjoy Songkran
Bangkok is the best city for Songkran fun. Khaosan Road has wild street parties and crowded water fights. Music lovers can join the Siam Songkran Music Festival or the S2O Music Festival for water-themed concerts. To see the more traditional side of the festival, head to riverside temples such as Wat Pho and Wat Arun, catch cultural performances in Lumphini Park, or head north to the city of Chiang Mai.
1. What is Songkran famous for?
A. Foreign tourists. B. Lively water fights.
C. The set start date. D. The classical concert.
2. Why do young people pour water on the hands of elders?
A. To ask them to enjoy music. B. To cool down their hands.
C. To mark the start of summer. D. To pay respect to elders.
3. Where should visitors go to enjoy wild street parties?
A. Wat Arun. B. Wat Pho.
C. Khaosan Road. D. Lumphini Park.
B
I have repeatedly written about the perils of social media use in past posts. One of the problems with social media is that it takes time away from other important activities, especially in our free time. With so much of our lives now online, perhaps it is not that surprising to hear that recent studies suggest reading is on the decline (下降) among Americans.
Studies over the past ten years show that only 16% of Americans report reading for pleasure. Researchers believe this decline in reading will hurt how people learn, their relationships, and their overall well-being.
In past posts, I’ve highlighted the benefits of reading for pleasure. Reading can make us more empathetic (同理心), improve our writing skills and focus. Nowadays, we’re overloaded by social media — scrolling (滚动) down the screen, trying to multitask, and feeling pressed to reply quickly to every message or notification.
Reading for pleasure is an activity that allows us to take a break from screens. It can help individuals maintain the skills that are slowly being lost because of social media. Fall is a great time to start reading. I recently finished reading All the Way to the River by Elizabeth Gilbert, which tells the story of her life after the success of Eat, Pray, Love.
As we approach a new season, it could be the right time to start a more productive practice than staying connected to our smartphones. Turn away from the screen, and consider turning toward a new adventure.
4. What does the underlined word “perils” in the first paragraph mean?
A. Dangers. B. Ranges. C. Shortcuts. D. Distances.
5. What do the researchers think of the decline in reading?
A. It will allow us to enjoy well-being. B. It will offer enriching experiences.
C. It will be a bad influence on people. D. It will improve social connections.
6. What is the author’s opinion about social media?
A. It is important for learning. B. It harms reading habits.
C. It is useful for multitasking. D. It should replace books.
7. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To show the benefits of social media. B. To remember a well-known writer.
C. To give a brief account of technology. D. To encourage us to pick up a book.
C
Forget the old saying that physical activity wears out your heart. New research from Australia has found that people who are physically fit actually have significantly fewer total heartbeats each day, which could add years to their lives.
According to the study, athletes recorded an average (平均的) heart rate of 68 beats per minute (bpm), compared with 76 bpm for those who were not active. Over a 24-hour period, that equals about 97,920 heartbeats for athletes and 109,440 for non-athletes, a difference of about 10 percent fewer beats per day among the fitter individuals.
“That’s about 11,500 fewer beats every day,” says Professor La Gerche, the head of the HEART Laboratory. “Even though athletes’ hearts work harder during exercise, their lower resting rates more than make up for it.”
The study shows that the most physically fit people had resting heart rates as low as 40 bpm, while the average person’s rate ranged between 70 and 80 bpm. This means that even with intense (剧烈的) exercise, athletes use fewer heartbeats than non-athletes over a full day.
This study challenges the old idea that the body is like a battery that runs out of energy from exercise. “The fitter you are, the more efficient (高效的) your body becomes,“ Professor La Gerche explains. “Even if you’re training hard for an hour a day, your heart beats more slowly for the other 23 hours. The net effect is fewer beats used overall.”
This lower resting heart rate is a sign of fitness and also means better health. Regular exercise can improve heart health, lower the risk of heart disease, and improve mental well-being. Although extreme events, like the Tour de France, may raise daily heart rates, Professor La Gerche says that the benefits of regular exercise far outweigh any risks.
8. How does physical activity benefit people according to the study?
A. They become smarter. B. They may hardly feel tired.
C. They could live longer. D. They have an athletic build.
9. What does the research find about exercise?
A. It saves daily heartbeats. B. It has a side effect on the old.
C. It is suitable for all teens. D. It makes us feel calm and easy.
10. What is probably La Gerche’s suggestion for better health?
A. Have a good sleep at night. B. Stop intense exercise.
C. Train hard on the weekend. D. Do workouts regularly.
11. What can we infer about fit people from the text?
A. They avoid heart disease at large. B. They have a lower resting heart rate.
C. They should change eating habits. D. They prefer to attend social activities.
D
If you’re outside during a heat wave (热浪) in Texas, the shade of oak trees might seem like a relief. But when it’s really hot, levels of ozone (O3) and other air pollutants can become worryingly high in these areas, new research shows.
When stressed by heat, oak trees give off chemicals, which can mix with car exhaust (尾气) to form dangerous air pollutants. This happens even where you can’t smell any car exhaust. Scientists from Texas A&M University in College Station shared their new findings at the American Chemical Society fall meeting.
People expect to find air pollution in and around cities due to heavy traffic. “But at Texas A&M, the air smells beautiful,” says Renyi Zhang. The campus is about 100 miles away from the large cities. “Here,” he notes, “the air is usually safe to breathe.” But that may not be true during heat waves.
Zhang’s team set up equipment on top of a building surrounded by oak trees high above passing cars and local sources of pollution. This equipment could monitor O3, nitrogen oxides from cars, and isoprene — a natural chemical released by oak trees. Isoprene is not harmful on its own. But in the presence of sunlight, it can mix with nitrogen oxides to produce O3, which is harmful to humans.
During a month-long event in August 2024, daytime temperatures hit 32℃ to 41℃. It wasn’t just the heat that made these days uncomfortable. The equipment showed that O3 levels climbed higher as the temperature increased. This was expected because heat speeds up the chemical reactions that create O3. However, the levels reached much higher than expected, even when there wasn’t much car exhaust in the area.
“Studies like this can help us improve our air quality monitoring models,” says Russ Dickerson, a professor at the University of Maryland. “We can better predict (预测) bad-air days during heat waves. And that should help protect people’s health.”
12. What did the new research aim to explore?
A. Where heat waves hit hard. B. How we keep cool in summer.
C. Where second-hand cars go. D. How oak trees react on hot days.
13. What can we know about the campus in College Station from Zhang’s words?
A. Its air quality is typically good. B. Its buildings are all eco-friendly.
C. It is often free from hot weather. D. It has heavy traffic in the morning.
14. What does Russ Dickerson want to say about the study?
A. Its future models. B. Its disadvantages.
C. Its general rule. D. Its great value.
15. Which can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The Importance of High Oak Trees B. The Hidden Risk of Oak in Heat Waves
C. A Significant Rise in Air Pollution D. An Increasingly Serious Problem in College
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Volunteer teachers play an important role in providing education in areas with limited resources. Many schools there cannot afford full-time teachers, so volunteers step in to help. ____16____ Their efforts (努力) make a significant difference in students’ lives and open doors to better opportunities for them.
One example is Anthony Lewis, a volunteer teacher in a small village in Sri Lanka. After finishing his studies, Lewis moved to the village because he wanted to help local children. ____17____ He used materials from nature for science lessons and told stories to improve students’ language skills. By adapting to the situation, Lewis created a fun and interesting learning environment.
Volunteer teachers like Lewis not only focus on academic (学业的) subjects but also help build a sense of community. ____18____ They share their own experiences and dreams to encourage their students to aim higher in life and pursue (追逐) opportunities like higher education or careers they might have thought were out of reach. ____19____ Many teachers work without pay, depending on donations, or live in difficult conditions. The lack of professional development or formal support can also make it harder for them to succeed in the long term. ____20____ They provide quality education to children who may not otherwise have the chance to learn. Their hard work shows the power of community-driven education and how their efforts can make a marked impact on students’ lives.
A. However, teaching as a volunteer is not easy.
B. So he became very popular among the villagers.
C. They often become role models for their students.
D. They want to start a new lifestyle in the neighborhood.
E. These teachers bring skills, hard work, and love for their students.
F. Despite these challenges, the work of volunteer teachers is invaluable.
G. The school had few resources, but Lewis found creative ways to teach.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In 2009, Kim Perlak, fresh out of graduate school, served as a part-time music professor across colleges and at nonprofits. Though she loved her jobs, she often felt ____21____. “I never felt part of the community — just running in and out,” she recalled.
One morning, ____22____ to teach with a guitar on her back and bags in hand, she ____23____ on the path to the music building. Her homemade chili (辣椒酱), in a plastic box, ____24____ out and made it everywhere. With few people around, she struggled to clean it up, feeling lonely and questioning her ____25____, “What am I doing here?”
With her next class starting soon, she ____26____ herself together. Hours later, during her 15-minute lunch break, she worried about finding ____27____ — until she walked into the part-time office.
A bag sat on the table; a sandwich, snacks, a drink, coffee. A note ____28____ read, “Dear Dr. Perlak, I saw you this morning. I wanted to be ____29____ that you had lunch. Hope you have a great day.”
Unknown to Perlak, a woman from the register’s office had ____30____ the happening from her window, and then drove to a popular restaurant to buy the ____31____.
“That ____32____ made me feel I belonged — like people cared,” she said. It ____33____ how she lived; she began noticing ways to help others, just as that woman had ____34____ her.
As her grandmother once said, “Any day gets ____35____ with a sandwich and coffee.” Thanks to that woman, Perlak now tries to prove that to others, too.
21. A. relaxed B. busy C. anxious D. lonely
22. A. preferring B. deciding C. hurrying D. applying
23. A. jogged B. tripped C. stood D. flowed
24. A. flew B. worked C. broke D. burned
25. A. tip B. life C. truck D. solution
26. A. enjoyed B. pulled C. taught D. hid
27. A. work B. space C. time D. food
28. A. carelessly B. typically C. hardly D. suddenly
29. A. sure B. confident C. proud D. curious
30. A. cheered B. heard C. watched D. started
31. A. guitar B. table C. box D. meal
32. A. kindness B. advice C. strength D. discovery
33. A. changed B. accepted C. missed D. praised
34. A. frightened B. remembered C. warned D. helped
35. A. longer B. darker C. better D. shorter
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The China Pavilion (展馆) at Expo 2025 Osaka has gained widespread attention for its successful mixing of traditional culture and cutting-edge technology. A large-scale cultural performance themed “Colorful China, Shaping the Future Together” was staged on July 11 and ____36____ (draw) over 400 visitors, including people from China, Japan, and members from other friendship ____37____ (organization) and national pavilions.
A highlight for many guests was the passage that connects the pavilion’s two floors, which features ____38____ (amaze) Chinese ink paintings on one side and wooden carvings showing important moments in China-Japan cultural exchange on ____39____ other side. From the friendship between Chinese poet Li Bai and Japanese scholar Abe no Nakamaro, also known as Chao Heng, in the Tang Dynasty (618 — 907) ____40____ the arrival of pandas Kang Kang and Lan Lan, working together ____41____ (protect) ibis (朱鹭) , and the symbolic pairing of Sun Wukong, the Monkey King, with Astro Boy, the show underscores China’s values of harmony and neighborliness to the Osaka audience.
Akio Aoyagi, president of the Osaka Japan-China Friendship Association, says the pavilion’s pictures and sounds ____42____ (true) made its messages memorable. “Though I’ve been to China many times, this reminded me ____43____ much more there is to learn. I hope exchanges like this continue to grow.”
The expo focuses on the subject “Designing Future Society for Our Lives”. The China Pavilion, one of the ____44____ (large) foreign self-built pavilions, covers around 3,500 square meters. _____45_____ (inspire) by traditional Chinese calligraphy rolls, the pavilion’s design shows the subject of “Building a Community of Life for Man and Nature-Future Society of Green Development”.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,你从学校官网得知一个面向全国学生的国际文化交流项目(International Cultural Exchange Program) 将在巴黎 (Paris) 举办。请写封邮件申请参加,内容包括:
1. 写邮件的目的;
2. 个人优势。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Sir or Madam,
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours faithfully,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Jane was a 10-year-old girl with messy brown hair. She lived with her hardworking mom, a nurse who often came home late. Jane tried to do everything by herself but always seemed to forget something. Her strict science teacher, Mr. Jeff, often got angry with her for being unprepared.
“Late again, Jane!” Mr. Jeff shouted loudly one Monday morning as Jane rushed into class, her shoes untied and books falling from her arms. “Where’s your homework? Still unfinished?”
Jane’s face turned red. “I... I did finish it this time,” she said quietly, searching her bag. Her heart dropped when she pulled out a messy math paper instead. The class laughed.
That night, Jane sat in her room, remembering how embarrassed (尴尬的) she felt “I’ll prove I can do better,” she promised herself. She stayed up late organizing her school things: notes and a homework report, Jane’s mom, coming home late from her nursing job, noticed the extra effort Jane was putting into her schoolwork. She asked Jane to go to bed early. But Jane said. “I really need to do well on this homework. Mr. Jeff has been so strict, and I don’t want to disappoint (使失望) him again.” Her mom nodded, understanding the importance of Jane’s efforts. Finally, everything was ready. Jane set two alarms (闹铃).
Unluckily, the next morning the alarms didn’t ring, because Jane had set them wrongly. Her mom knocked on her door and said, “Jane! The school bus is coming soon!” In a hurry to eat breakfast, brush her teeth, and find her shoes, Jane completely forgot her schoolbag by the door.
When she reached the school gate, Jane suddenly stopped. Her hands were empty. “Oh no! My schoolbag!” she cried. She could already imagine Mr. Jeff’s angry face.
注意:1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Just then, Jane saw her mom running towards her with her schoolbag.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
As Jane walked in, Mr. Jeff looked up and said, “Late and no homework again, Jane?”
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
兰州一中2025—2026—1学期期末考试试题
高一英语
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will the man probably get home?
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
2. What is the woman’s attitude toward the man’s suggestion?
A Worried. B. Positive. C. Uncertain.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Asian businesses.
B. European history.
C. The Belt and Road Initiative.
4. What does the woman think of the aging population?
A. It’ll cause problems. B. It’ll hardly affect jobs. C. It’ll be solved by robots.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Boss and secretary. C. Teacher and student.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does Janine make the call?
A. To cancel the meeting. B. To have the pipe fixed. C. To say sorry to the man.
7. What did the manager promise to do?
A. Send a workman. B. Call back at 10:00. C. Visit the woman.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. How does the man feel about the upcoming exams?
A. Excited. B. Stressed. C. Relaxed.
9. What does the woman find helpful?
A. Creating a study schedule. B. Studying in the evening. C. Having a discussion.
10. What does the woman advise the man to do at last?
A. Make the most of time. B. Review lessons at night. C. Get a good night’s sleep.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What can we know about the man?
A. He wants to move school.
B. He is the oldest in the class.
C. He is satisfied with the house.
12. What does the woman say about the nearest supermarket?
A. It’s near the house. B. It’s a little far away. C. It’s newly opened.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a house. B. In a school. C. In a bank.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14. Where did the woman meet Kylie?
A. On the street. B. At an office. C. In a TV show.
15. What did Kylie do at the radio station?
A. She looked for a parking lot.
B. She attended an interview.
C. She gave coverage of a game.
16. Why did Kylie come to the woman?
A. For the T-shirt she wore.
B. For the film starring Jason.
C. For the Australian program.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. At what age did the speaker start playing chess?
A. Three. B. Five. C. Seven.
18. When did the speaker win his first adult competition?
A. In 2014. B. In 2020. C. In 2022.
19. Why did the speaker stop playing chess for a year?
A. To do volunteer work.
B. To enjoy a long vacation.
C. To lead a normal teenage life.
20. What does the speaker want to do next?
A. Hold a competition. B. Practice a new game. C. Join the national team.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. D 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. A 14. D 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. G 18. C 19. A 20. F
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. drew
37. organizations
38. amazing
39. the 40. to
41. to protect
42 truly 43. how
44. largest
45. Inspired
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Sir or Madam,
My name is Li Hua, a high school student from China. Having learned from the school website that the International Cultural Exchange Program will take place in Paris, I am writing to express my interest in participating.
I believe my background makes me a suitable candidate for this program. With a good command of English, I am able to communicate effectively in cross-cultural settings. Moreover, I have been actively involved in various school cultural activities, which has provided me with practical experience in intercultural interaction.
Thank you for considering my application. I look forward to hearing from you.
Yours faithfully,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】 Just then, Jane saw her mom running towards her with her schoolbag. Her mom held Jane’s schoolbag tightly. “I am just about to leave for work when I notice your schoolbag by the door,” her mom said, handing over the bag. “I know how important it is for you today.” Jane wiped her tears and hugged her mom tightly. “Thank you, Mom!” she said, feeling a wave of relief wash over her. With her schoolbag safely in hand, Jane hurried into the school building. She took a deep breath before entering Mr. Jeff’s classroom.
As Jane walked in, Mr. Jeff looked up and said, “Late and no homework again, Jane?” “Sorry I’m late, Mr. Jeff. I had some trouble with my alarms this morning,” she said, placing her homework on his desk. “My report is here.” Mr, Jeff checked Jane’s homework carefully, and then said, “This is... very complete.” For the first time, his serious face softened. “Good job, Jane.” Jane’s face lit up with joy. She felt a sense of accomplishment she hadn’t felt before. “Thank you, Mr, Jeff,” she said, her confidence growing. From that day on, Jane was more careful and organized, knowing that with effort and support, she could overcome her challenges.
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