2025-2026学年人教版八年级英语上学期期末测试（五）（湖北武汉专用)

2025-2026学年八年级英语上学期期末测试（五） （湖北武汉专用，人教版2024） 学校 班级 姓名 考号 第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共80分） 第一部分 听力部分 （略) 第二部分 笔试部分 二、选择填空（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案。 1．If it __________ tomorrow, we __________ a picnic. A．doesn’t rain; will have B．won’t rain; have C．doesn’t rain; have D．won’t rain; will have 【答案】A 【详解】句意：如果明天不下雨，我们将去野餐。 考查条件状语从句的时态。根据“If it ... tomorrow, we ... a picnic.”可知，句子为if 引导的条件状语从句，时态遵循“主将从现”原则：从句 (if 引导的部分) 用一般现在时，表示未来可能发生的条件，主语“it”为单数，应用助动词doesn’t+动词原形；主句用一般将来时 (will +动词原形)，表示条件满足后会发生的结果。故选A。 2．To achieve higher efficiency, we have to organize the event with ________ money and ________ people. A．less; fewer B．fewer; less C．fewer; more D．more; less 【答案】A 【详解】句意：为了实现更高的效率，我们必须用更少的钱和更少的人来组织这次活动。 考查形容词辨析。less更少的，修饰不可数名词；fewer更少的，修饰可数名词复数；more更多的，更少的，修饰可数名词或不可数名词。根据“achieve higher efficiency”可知，实现更高的效率应减少投入，用更少的钱和更少的人，money是不可数名词，应用less修饰，people是可数名词，用fewer修饰。故选A。 3．There is ________ more important than health. A．anything B．nothing C．something D．everything 【答案】B 【详解】句意：没有什么比健康更重要。 考查不定代词辨析。anything任何东西，常用于否定句或疑问句；nothing没有东西，表达否定含义；something某些东西，常用于肯定句中；everything所有东西，常用于肯定句。根据“There is...more important than health.”可知，本句使用了“nothing+比较级+than+名词/代词”的固定用法，意为“没有什么比……更……”，用比较级的形式表达最高级的含义，结合本句“没有什么比健康更重要”相当于“健康是最重要的”。故选B。 4．There ______ a fashion show in the museum tomorrow afternoon. A．is going to have B．is going to be C．are going to have D．are going to be 【答案】B 【详解】句意：明天下午在博物馆将有一场时装秀。 考查there be句型的一般将来时。根据“There ... a fashion show ...”可知，此处考查there be句型，表示“某地有某物”；再根据“tomorrow afternoon”可知，句子时态为一般将来时，其结构为There will be或There is/are going to be...；主语“a fashion show”为单数，be动词用is，即There is going to be或There will be。故选B。 5．We’ll have a school trip next week. ______ great news it is! A．What B．What a C．How D．How a 【答案】A 【详解】句意：我们下周要进行学校旅行。多么棒的消息啊！ 考查感叹句的引导词。此处是一个感叹句，句中“great news”是名词短语，news是不可数名词，应该用What引导感叹句，使用“What+形容词+不可数名词+主语+谓语！”的结构。因此使用What，故选A。 6．In my opinion, many people ________ in outer space in 20 years. A．live B．is living C．will live D．lived 【答案】C 【详解】句意：在我看来，许多人在20年后将生活在太空。 考查时态。时间状语“in 20 years”表示将来时间，因此句子需用一般将来时描述动作。故选C。 7．The teachers warn us ________ attention to our ________ while crossing the roads. A．paying; safe B．pay; safely C．to pay; safe D．to pay; safety 【答案】D 【详解】句意：老师们提醒我们过马路时要注意安全。 考查非谓语动词及名词辨析。paying支付，现在分词；safe安全的，形容词；pay支付，动词原形；safely安全地，副词；to pay支付，动词不定式；safety安全，名词。warn sb. to do sth.是固定结构，意为“提醒某人做某事”，第一空需用动词不定式，pay attention to关注，注意，为动词短语；第二空前有形容词性物主代词our，需接名词。故选D。 8．More subway lines are being built in our city. Next year, it _________ easier for us to go to school. A．was B．is C．will D．will be 【答案】D 【详解】句意：我们城市正在修建更多的地铁线路。明年，我们上学将会更方便。 考查时态。was是，过去时；is是，现在时；will将要，情态动词；will be将是，一般将来时。根据时间状语“Next year”可知，句子描述的是将来的情况，且表语是形容词“easier”，故应用一般将来时“will be”。故选D。 9．—________ you going to have a picnic tomorrow afternoon? —Yes, I ________. I am going to have a picnic with my family. A．Are; am B．Do; do C．Were; was D．Did; did 【答案】A 【详解】句意：——你明天下午打算去野餐吗？ ——是的，我打算去。我要和家人一起野餐。 考查一般将来时和一般疑问句。Are是，现在时；Were是，are的过去时；am是，现在时，用于第一人称I；was是，am/is的过去时，用于第一人称I；Do/do无实际意义，助动词，现在时；Did/did无实际意义，助动词，过去时。根据“...you going to have a picnic tomorrow afternoon?”可知，本句使用了一般将来时“am/is/are going to+动词原形”的结构。第一个空的主语为you，所以be动词用are，回答的时候也需要用相应的be动词；第二个空的主语为I，所以be动词用am。故选A。 10．—_________ I borrow your glue to stick the photos? —Sure, here you are. A．Must B．Should C．Could D．Need 【答案】C 【详解】句意：——我可以借你的胶水来贴照片吗？——当然，给你。 考查情态动词。Must必须；Should应该；Could可以；Need需要。根据答语“Sure, here you are.”可知，表示同意请求，此处应该是礼貌地请求许可，Could常用于委婉表达请求，故选C。 三、完形填空（共15小题, 每小题1分, 满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Many people are interested in talking about life in the future. Some people 11 that life in the future will be easier and more comfortable. But others believe that it will be 12 and more difficult than now. As for me, I 13 the first idea. First, people will have better 14 . This is because of technology. E-books will replace common books. Robots will replace 15 , and students will not have to go to school every day. They will 16 at home through online teaching and will find learning more interesting. Second, people’s health will 17 . Technology will also play a very important role. New medicine will help sick people get better 18 . Robots will help doctors and sometimes replace them. Also, doctors will be able to cure more diseases (疾病), 19 people will live longer. Third, housing problems will end. People will 20 houses under the sea. Also, some people will 21 to the moon. Then everyone will have a place to live. Fourth, hunger will stop all over the world. People will grow crops everywhere 22 on the top of buildings. Fifth, the world will be at peace. This is the 23 of all the above changes. People don’t need to fight to get anything. They will have better education, health, housing and so on, so they will be 24 and love will be everywhere. Now what about you? What do you think 25 in the future will be like? 11．A．find B．decide C．believe D．promise 12．A．shorter B．busier C．poorer D．worse 13．A．agree with B．care about C．bring out D．write down 14．A．sleep B．future C．education D．information 15．A．teachers B．schools C．parents D．computers 16．A．play B．study C．shop D．exercise 17．A．start B．grow C．show D．improve 18．A．seriously B．luckily C．quickly D．carefully 19．A．but B．so C．or D．if 20．A．sell B．clean C．lose D．build 21．A．move B．jump C．run D．listen 22．A．only B．even C．still D．never 23．A．plan B．rule C．problem D．result 24．A．lazy B．happy C．rich D．bored 25．A．life B．people C．world D．intelligence 【答案】 11．C 12．D 13．A 14．C 15．A 16．B 17．D 18．C 19．B 20．D 21．A 22．B 23．D 24．B 25．A 【导语】本文探讨了人们对未来生活的不同看法，作者通过五个方面阐述了未来生活将变得更美好、更便捷的观点。 11．句意：有些人认为未来的生活会更容易、更舒适。 find发现；decide决定；believe相信；promise承诺。根据“But others believe that…”可知，此处表示一些人“相信”这一看法。故选C。 12．句意：但其他人相信它会比现在更糟糕、更困难。 shorter更短；busier更忙；poorer更穷；worse更糟。与前文“easier and more comfortable”形成对比，且“more difficult”提示应选贬义词。故选D。 13．句意：至于我，我同意第一个想法。 agree with同意；care about关心；bring out拿出；write down写下。根据“the first idea”及作者后文论述的五项观点可知，作者赞同第一种观点——将来的生活将更容易更舒适。故选A。 14．句意：首先，人们将会有更好的教育。 sleep睡眠；future未来；education教育；information信息。后文提到电子书、机器人、在线学习等，均属于教育领域。故选C。 15．句意：机器人将取代教师。 teachers教师；schools学校；parents父母；computers电脑。根据“students will not have to go to school”及“Robots will replace”可知，机器人替代的是教学角色。故选A。 16．句意：他们将通过在线教学在家学习。 play玩耍；study学习；shop购物；exercise锻炼。根据“students will not have to go to school every day”和“at home through online teaching”可知，此处指学生们不用每天去学校，在家里就可以在线学习。故选B。 17．句意：人们的健康将会改善。 start开始；grow成长；show展示；improve改善。后文提到“New medicine will help sick people get better”和“doctors will be able to cure more diseases”，新药物帮助病人病情转好，医生能够治愈更多疾病，所以段落标题指健康水平提升。故选D。 18．句意：新药物将帮助病人更快康复。 seriously严肃地；luckily幸运地；quickly快速地；carefully仔细地。此处强调医疗技术进步带来的康复速度提升。故选C。 19．句意：医生将能治愈更多疾病，所以人们会更长寿。 but但是；so所以；or或者；if如果。空格前后为因果关系，表示“治愈更多疾病”导致“寿命更长”。故选B。 20．句意：人们将在海底建造房屋。 sell卖；clean清洁；lose失去；build建造。根据“housing problems will end”及“under the sea”可知，指日后人们将在海底建造新住所。故选D。 21．句意：此外，一些人将搬到月球上。 move搬迁；jump跳；run跑；listen听。“to the moon”表示一些人可能搬到月球，move to搬到。故选A。 22．句意：人们甚至会在楼顶种植庄稼。 only只有；even甚至；still仍然；never从不。此处强调种植范围的扩大，“even”加强语气，表示“连楼顶都可以”。故选B。 23．句意：这是所有以上变化的结果。 plan计划；rule规则；problem问题；result结果。根据“of all the above changes”可知，世界和平是前述变化带来的结果。故选D。 24．句意：因此他们会很快乐，爱将无处不在。 lazy懒惰的；happy快乐的；rich富有的；bored无聊的。前文提到更好的教育、健康等，自然会导致幸福感的提升。故选B。 25．句意：你认为未来的生活会是什么样子？ life生活；people人们；world世界；intelligence智力。全文围绕“life in the future”展开讨论，此处为总结性提问。故选A。 四、阅读理解（共15小题, 每小题2分, 满分30分） 阅读下面三篇材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。 A Many students like bubble tea (珍珠奶茶) because it’s delicious. But do you know how to make it at home? What you need ★water        ★tapioca pearls (木薯珍珠) ★black tea leaves    ★white sugar        ★milk How to make it Put 1/2 cup of water and 1/2 cup of sugar in a pot. Then cook them for 5 minutes. After that, you will get some syrup (糖浆). Put the syrup in a cup and let it cool down. Add half a cup of tapioca pearls into hot water and cook them for 8 minutes. Then put the pearls in cold water. After 2 minutes, take the pearls out of the cold water, and mix them with half of the syrup. Add some black tea leaves into hot water and cook them for 10 minutes. Then take out the tea leaves. Pour the tea water, the rest (剩余部分) of the syrup, and 1/4 cup of milk into a glass. Then add the tapioca pearls on top of the drink. Just enjoy your delicious bubble tea! 26．Which of the following do we need to make bubble tea? A．Butter. B．Yogurt. C．Black tea leaves. 27．To make bubble tea, we should first ________. A．make the syrup B．wash tapioca pearls C．pour the tea water into a glass 28．How long should tapioca pearls be in cold water? A．For 2 minutes. B．For 5 minutes. C．For 8 minutes. 29．How much milk do we need? A．1 cup. B．1/2 cup. C．1/4 cup. 30．The passage is probably from a ________. A．storybook B．food magazine C．guidebook 【答案】26．C 27．A 28．A 29．C 30．B 【导语】本文介绍珍珠奶茶受欢迎的原因，以及制作珍珠奶茶所需的材料和步骤，教读者在家制作珍珠奶茶。 26．细节理解题。根据“What you need”中的“black tea leaves”可知，制作珍珠奶茶需要红茶茶叶，故选C。 27．细节理解题。根据“How to make it”的第一步“Put 1/2 cup of water and 1/2 cup of sugar in a pot...you will get some syrup”可知，制作珍珠奶茶首先要做糖浆，故选A。 28．细节理解题。根据“Then put the pearls in cold water. After 2 minutes, take the pearls out of the cold water”可知，木薯珍珠要在冷水中放2分钟，故选A。 29．细节理解题。根据“Pour the tea water...and 1/4 cup of milk into a glass”可知，需要1/4杯牛奶，故选C。 30．推理判断题。全文是关于珍珠奶茶的制作方法，文章可能来自美食杂志，故选B。 B Doing chores is very important. According to a survey (调查), children who often do chores will be more successful. Here is the result of a survey this year. How many hours do kids do chores at home every day? Luckily, our country has realized the importance of labor (劳动) education. People’s Daily also gives us a chore form for kids of different ages. Chores by Age Kids aged 5 to 6 years old ●Make the bed. ●Put their own things back. ●Learn to group things. ●… Kids aged 7 to 9 years old ●Do the dishes. ●Clean their rooms. ●Get things ready for school. ●… Kids aged 12 years old and up ●Deep clean their rooms. ●Shop for the festivals. ●Make plans for the family trips. ●… So, when you have time, try to do as many chores as possible. 31．In which country do kids spend the most time doing chores? A．In China. B．In England. C．In America. D．In Japan. 32．What does “group things” for 5—6-year-old kids mean? A．Put similar things together. B．Buy things for the family. C．Play with all their toys. D．Read books about things. 33．Which chore might a 7-year-old kid NOT do according to the form? A．Make the bed. B．Do the dishes. C．Shop for the festivals. D．Clean their rooms. 34．Why was the text written? A．To show us chores by age. B．To encourage children to do chores. C．To explain why doing chores is pleasant. D．To tell us the importance of doing chores. 35．Where can we probably find the text? A．In a storybook. B．In a shopping list. C．In a travel guide. D．In a newspaper. 【答案】31．C 32．A 33．C 34．B 35．D 【导语】本文展示了不同国家孩子每天做家务的时长调查结果，并给出了不同年龄段孩子的家务清单。 31．细节理解题。根据“不同国家孩子每天做家务时长”的调查数据 (韩国0.2小时、日本0.4小时、法国0.5小时、英国0.6小时、中国0.7小时、美国1.2小时) 可知，美国孩子花在做家务上的时间最多。故选C。 32．词句猜测题。“group things”意为“给物品分类”，即把相似的物品整理到一起，对应选项A“Put similar things together”。故选A。 33．细节理解题。根据“Chores by Age”表格中“Kids aged 7 to 9 years old ●Do the dishes. ●Clean their rooms. ●Get things ready for school. ●…”可知， 7岁孩子不会做的是“Shop for the festivals”。故选C。 34．主旨大意题。根据“So, when you have time, try to do as many chores as possible.”并通读全文可知，文章意在鼓励孩子多做家务。故选B。 35．推理判断题。这篇文章包含关于孩子做家务的调查数据、不同年龄段孩子的家务建议，属于生活类的资讯内容。通常会出现在报纸中；而故事书、购物清单和旅行指南都和文章内容类型不符。故选D。 C Our teacher did a survey about what his students did during the summer holidays in class, and here are their answers to the questions. For my summer holiday I went to a summer camp. At the summer camp I made a lot of new friends and tried boating, rock climbing and jogging. It was the best summer of my life. —Effia I spent time with my cousins Emily and Diego. One day we went to an amusement park (游乐园) and rode the big roller coaster five times. We watched films and ate pizza together. I love my cousins so much! —Sofia During the summer holidays I went on holiday with my family to Greece. We flew in an airplane for three hours and stayed at a big hotel for 15 days. The hotel was so fun! I ate lots of delicious Greek food. I can’t wait to go on holiday again! —Petru My goal during the summer holiday was to watch as many films as possible. In total, I watched thirty films, and I watched all of my favorite action movies. I don’t like romance movies. My mom said that I spent too much time indoors (室内), but I don’t care. —Hao 36．According to the passage, Effia didn’t try ________ at the summer camp. A．boating B．rock climbing C．jogging D．swimming 37．What did Sofia do during the summer holiday? A．She stayed with her grandma. B．She visited a foreign country. C．She went to an amusement park. D．She watched TV in the hotel. 38．How did Petru go to Greece? A．By boat. B．By air. C．By sea. D．By train. 39．Which movie may Hao like best? A． B． C． D． 40．Which is right according to the text? A．Sofia didn’t like spending time with Emily. B．Hao’s mother wanted him to stay indoors. C．Petru stayed at the hotel for half a month. D．Effia took a lot of photos at the summer camp. 【答案】36．D 37．C 38．B 39．B 40．C 【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍了四位同学是怎么度过暑假的。 36．细节理解题。根据第一位同学Effia所述“At the summer camp I made a lot of new friends and tried boating, rock climbing and jogging.”可知，Effia去划了船、攀岩和慢跑，并没有去游泳。故选D。 37．细节理解题。根据第二位同学Sofia所述“One day we went to an amusement park”可知，Sofia去了游乐园玩。故选C。 38．细节理解题。根据第三位同学Petru所述“We flew in an airplane for three hours…”可知，Petru是坐飞机去的。故选B。 39．细节理解题。根据第四位同学Hao所述“I watched thirty films, and I watched all of my favorite action movies.可知，Hao很喜欢看动作片。故选B。 40．细节理解题。根据第三位同学Petru所述“We flew in an airplane for three hours and stayed at a big hotel for 15 days.”可知，Petru在酒店住了半个月。故选C。 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共 40 分） 五、词与短语填空（共5小题, 每小题2分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在方框内选择最佳选项将短文补充完整。其中有2个多余选项。 A． attend    B．sense    C． thanks to    D．lends me a hand     E. personality    F. make a mistake My best friend Lily and I have many things in common, especially our love for music. In many ways, I am similar to her because we both care about our studies and are very hardworking. However, our 41 is different. I am quiet, but she is outgoing. 42 her, I now feel free to talk to new people. When we have to perform in class, she always helps me prepare. She often 43 with my homework, and our good grades are connected to our teamwork. We also 44 the school art club together in our spare time. It’s wonderful to have such a good friend. 【答案】41．E 42．C 43．D 44．A 【导语】本文主要讲述了“我”和好朋友莉莉有很多共同之处，在很多方面相似，但也有不同，“我”安静，莉莉外向，在莉莉帮助下“我”有了改变，莉莉还常帮“我”做作业，两人还一起参加学校艺术俱乐部。 41．句意：然而，我们的性格不同。根据“I am quiet, but she is outgoing.”可知，此处说的是两人性格不同，E选项“personality”意为“性格”，符合语境。故填E。 42．句意：多亏了她，我现在可以自由地和新认识的人交谈了。根据“her, I now feel free to talk to new people”可知，此处表达的是“多亏了”她，“我”才能和新认识的人交谈，C选项“thanks to”意为“多亏，由于”，符合语境。故填C。 43．句意：她经常帮我做作业，我们的好成绩与我们的团队合作有关。根据“When we have to perform in class, she always helps me prepare.”以及“with my homework”可知，此处表达的是她经常在作业方面帮助“我”，D选项“lends me a hand”意为“帮我一把，帮助我”，符合语境。故填D。 44．句意：我们在业余时间还一起参加学校艺术俱乐部。根据“the school art club”可知，此处表达的是“参加”学校艺术俱乐部，A选项“attend”意为“参加”，符合语境。故填A。 六、综合填空（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 As the new year began, I decided to make some resolutions. My first step was to write 45 introduction to my goals in a notebook. I used different colors for each goal to make them clear (清楚的). I wanted 46 (achieve) the following three things: get physically stronger, live more healthily, and become 47 (organized). At first, the goals seemed 48 (possible). How could I possibly keep on 49 (take) exercise every day? I tried many times, but I always stopped after a few days. Later, I realized that planning 50 (wise) was the key. I needed specific (具体的) plans 51 I wanted to really get fit. So, I decided to run for 20 minutes every morning. The first month was quite difficult. I almost 52 (fail) when I missed two days of running. I felt a little sad but decided not to give up. I reminded 53 (I) that progress isn’t about perfection; it’s about persistence (坚持). After three months, I was able to see real progress. My clothes fit better, and I felt stronger. My biggest achievement was running 5 kilometers 54 stopping! This progress filled me with growing confidence. The journey also taught me that good plans need clear steps and persistence. 【答案】 45．an 46．to achieve 47．more organized 48．impossible 49．taking 50．wisely 51．if 52．failed 53．myself 54．without 【导语】本文是一篇新媒体语篇，以第一人称讲述了作者在新年伊始制定并努力实现三项个人目标（强身健体、健康生活、更有条理）的过程，重点描述了在坚持每日跑步计划中遇到的困难、心态调整以及最终取得的进步和感悟。 45．句意：我的第一步是在笔记本上为我的目标写一个介绍。根据“write...introduction”可知，此处泛指“一个介绍”，用不定冠词a/an；introduction以元音音素开头，用an。故填an。 46．句意：我想要实现以下三件事：身体更强壮，生活更健康，变得更有条理。want to do sth.“想要做某事”。故填to achieve。 47．句意：我想要实现以下三件事：身体更强壮，生活更健康，变得更有条理。根据“become... (organized)”及上下文并列结构可知，此处是三个目标之一，与前两个一样，应用比较级形式。organized的比较级为more organized。故填more organized。 48．句意：起初，这些目标似乎不可能。根据“How could I possibly keep on...”可知，作者起初觉得目标“不可能”实现，impossible“不可能的”，形容词作表语。故填impossible。 49．句意：我怎么可能坚持每天锻炼呢？keep on doing sth.“继续/坚持做某事”。故填taking。 50．句意：后来，我意识到明智地规划是关键。此处修饰动词planning，需用副词形式，wise的副词是wisely。故填wisely。 51．句意：我需要具体的计划，如果我真的想变得健康。根据“I needed specific plans...I wanted to really get fit.”可知，后句“我真的想变健康”是前句“需要计划”的条件，用if“如果”引导条件状语从句。故填if。 52．句意：当我错过两天跑步时，我几乎失败了。根据“when I missed two days of running”可知，描述过去动作，fail“失败”用过去式failed。故填failed。 53．句意：我提醒自己进步不在于完美；而在于坚持。根据“reminded... (I) that progress isn’t...”可知，主语和宾语是同一人，应用反身代词，I的反身代词是myself。故填myself。 54．句意：我最大的成就是跑了5公里而没有停下！根据“running 5 kilometers...stopping!”可知，表示“没有停止”，without“没有”。故填without。 七、书面表达（共1大题, 满分20分） 55．在人际交往中，积极的态度，正向的表达和巧妙的技巧能帮助我们有效沟通和解决问题。 校报英语栏目正在开展以“用心交流，有效沟通”为主题的征文活动。假设你是李华，请你根据以下提示和要求，用英语写一篇短文投稿，分享你生活中一次有效沟通的经历以及你的感受。 Effective communication My experience                                              My feeling ◆I traveled with a friend.                          ◆learn to get on well with others ◆I made a plan, but he disagreed.                  ◆learn to be a good listener ◆His plan was better.                             ◆… ◆… 要求： 1. 短文应包括提示中的所有内容，可适当发挥； 2. 文中不得出现真实的校名、地名和人名； 3. 词数80左右，短文标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Effective communication Effective communication plays an important role in solving problems and building relationships. Now let me share one of my experiences with you. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Effective communication Effective communication plays an important role in solving problems and building relationships. Now let me share one of my experiences with you. Last summer, I traveled to a city with my friend, Tom. Before the trip, I made a plan carefully, but he disagreed. At first, I was a little unhappy. Instead of arguing, I decided to listen to his ideas patiently. It turned out that his plan was much better because he had been there before. We had a wonderful time following his plan. From this experience, I have learned it is important to learn to get on well with others and to be a good listener. Effective communication is really helpful. 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：主要为“一般过去时”和“一般现在时”； ③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不得遗漏，可适当添加细节，以使行文连贯。 [写作步骤] 第一步：简述一次与朋友旅行的经历，点出遇到的沟通问题； 第二步：描述如何通过有效沟通解决分歧，并说明结果； 第三步：总结这次经历带来的感受和启示。 [亮点词汇] ①disagree不同意 ②instead of代替 ③patiently耐心地 ④wonderful精彩的 ⑤experience经历 [高分句型] ①It turned out that his plan was much better because he had been there before. (because引导的原因状语从句) ②From this experience, I have learned it is important to learn to get on well with others and to be a good listener. (省略that的宾语从句) 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年八年级英语上学期期末测试（五） （湖北武汉专用，人教版2024） 学校 班级 姓名 考号 第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共80分） 第一部分 听力部分 （略) 第二部分 笔试部分 二、选择填空（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案。 1．If it __________ tomorrow, we __________ a picnic. A．doesn’t rain; will have B．won’t rain; have C．doesn’t rain; have D．won’t rain; will have 2．To achieve higher efficiency, we have to organize the event with ________ money and ________ people. A．less; fewer B．fewer; less C．fewer; more D．more; less 3．There is ________ more important than health. A．anything B．nothing C．something D．everything 4．There ______ a fashion show in the museum tomorrow afternoon. A．is going to have B．is going to be C．are going to have D．are going to be 5．We’ll have a school trip next week. ______ great news it is! A．What B．What a C．How D．How a 6．In my opinion, many people ________ in outer space in 20 years. A．live B．is living C．will live D．lived 7．The teachers warn us ________ attention to our ________ while crossing the roads. A．paying; safe B．pay; safely C．to pay; safe D．to pay; safety 8．More subway lines are being built in our city. Next year, it _________ easier for us to go to school. A．was B．is C．will D．will be 9．—________ you going to have a picnic tomorrow afternoon? —Yes, I ________. I am going to have a picnic with my family. A．Are; am B．Do; do C．Were; was D．Did; did 10．—_________ I borrow your glue to stick the photos? —Sure, here you are. A．Must B．Should C．Could D．Need 三、完形填空（共15小题, 每小题1分, 满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Many people are interested in talking about life in the future. Some people 11 that life in the future will be easier and more comfortable. But others believe that it will be 12 and more difficult than now. As for me, I 13 the first idea. First, people will have better 14 . This is because of technology. E-books will replace common books. Robots will replace 15 , and students will not have to go to school every day. They will 16 at home through online teaching and will find learning more interesting. Second, people’s health will 17 . Technology will also play a very important role. New medicine will help sick people get better 18 . Robots will help doctors and sometimes replace them. Also, doctors will be able to cure more diseases (疾病), 19 people will live longer. Third, housing problems will end. People will 20 houses under the sea. Also, some people will 21 to the moon. Then everyone will have a place to live. Fourth, hunger will stop all over the world. People will grow crops everywhere 22 on the top of buildings. Fifth, the world will be at peace. This is the 23 of all the above changes. People don’t need to fight to get anything. They will have better education, health, housing and so on, so they will be 24 and love will be everywhere. Now what about you? What do you think 25 in the future will be like? 11．A．find B．decide C．believe D．promise 12．A．shorter B．busier C．poorer D．worse 13．A．agree with B．care about C．bring out D．write down 14．A．sleep B．future C．education D．information 15．A．teachers B．schools C．parents D．computers 16．A．play B．study C．shop D．exercise 17．A．start B．grow C．show D．improve 18．A．seriously B．luckily C．quickly D．carefully 19．A．but B．so C．or D．if 20．A．sell B．clean C．lose D．build 21．A．move B．jump C．run D．listen 22．A．only B．even C．still D．never 23．A．plan B．rule C．problem D．result 24．A．lazy B．happy C．rich D．bored 25．A．life B．people C．world D．intelligence 四、阅读理解（共15小题, 每小题2分, 满分30分） 阅读下面三篇材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。 A Many students like bubble tea (珍珠奶茶) because it’s delicious. But do you know how to make it at home? What you need ★water        ★tapioca pearls (木薯珍珠) ★black tea leaves    ★white sugar        ★milk How to make it Put 1/2 cup of water and 1/2 cup of sugar in a pot. Then cook them for 5 minutes. After that, you will get some syrup (糖浆). Put the syrup in a cup and let it cool down. Add half a cup of tapioca pearls into hot water and cook them for 8 minutes. Then put the pearls in cold water. After 2 minutes, take the pearls out of the cold water, and mix them with half of the syrup. Add some black tea leaves into hot water and cook them for 10 minutes. Then take out the tea leaves. Pour the tea water, the rest (剩余部分) of the syrup, and 1/4 cup of milk into a glass. Then add the tapioca pearls on top of the drink. Just enjoy your delicious bubble tea! 26．Which of the following do we need to make bubble tea? A．Butter. B．Yogurt. C．Black tea leaves. 27．To make bubble tea, we should first ________. A．make the syrup B．wash tapioca pearls C．pour the tea water into a glass 28．How long should tapioca pearls be in cold water? A．For 2 minutes. B．For 5 minutes. C．For 8 minutes. 29．How much milk do we need? A．1 cup. B．1/2 cup. C．1/4 cup. 30．The passage is probably from a ________. A．storybook B．food magazine C．guidebook B Doing chores is very important. According to a survey (调查), children who often do chores will be more successful. Here is the result of a survey this year. How many hours do kids do chores at home every day? Luckily, our country has realized the importance of labor (劳动) education. People’s Daily also gives us a chore form for kids of different ages. Chores by Age Kids aged 5 to 6 years old ●Make the bed. ●Put their own things back. ●Learn to group things. ●… Kids aged 7 to 9 years old ●Do the dishes. ●Clean their rooms. ●Get things ready for school. ●… Kids aged 12 years old and up ●Deep clean their rooms. ●Shop for the festivals. ●Make plans for the family trips. ●… So, when you have time, try to do as many chores as possible. 31．In which country do kids spend the most time doing chores? A．In China. B．In England. C．In America. D．In Japan. 32．What does “group things” for 5—6-year-old kids mean? A．Put similar things together. B．Buy things for the family. C．Play with all their toys. D．Read books about things. 33．Which chore might a 7-year-old kid NOT do according to the form? A．Make the bed. B．Do the dishes. C．Shop for the festivals. D．Clean their rooms. 34．Why was the text written? A．To show us chores by age. B．To encourage children to do chores. C．To explain why doing chores is pleasant. D．To tell us the importance of doing chores. 35．Where can we probably find the text? A．In a storybook. B．In a shopping list. C．In a travel guide. D．In a newspaper. C Our teacher did a survey about what his students did during the summer holidays in class, and here are their answers to the questions. For my summer holiday I went to a summer camp. At the summer camp I made a lot of new friends and tried boating, rock climbing and jogging. It was the best summer of my life. —Effia I spent time with my cousins Emily and Diego. One day we went to an amusement park (游乐园) and rode the big roller coaster five times. We watched films and ate pizza together. I love my cousins so much! —Sofia During the summer holidays I went on holiday with my family to Greece. We flew in an airplane for three hours and stayed at a big hotel for 15 days. The hotel was so fun! I ate lots of delicious Greek food. I can’t wait to go on holiday again! —Petru My goal during the summer holiday was to watch as many films as possible. In total, I watched thirty films, and I watched all of my favorite action movies. I don’t like romance movies. My mom said that I spent too much time indoors (室内), but I don’t care. —Hao 36．According to the passage, Effia didn’t try ________ at the summer camp. A．boating B．rock climbing C．jogging D．swimming 37．What did Sofia do during the summer holiday? A．She stayed with her grandma. B．She visited a foreign country. C．She went to an amusement park. D．She watched TV in the hotel. 38．How did Petru go to Greece? A．By boat. B．By air. C．By sea. D．By train. 39．Which movie may Hao like best? A． B． C． D． 40．Which is right according to the text? A．Sofia didn’t like spending time with Emily. B．Hao’s mother wanted him to stay indoors. C．Petru stayed at the hotel for half a month. D．Effia took a lot of photos at the summer camp. 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共 40 分） 五、词与短语填空（共5小题, 每小题2分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在方框内选择最佳选项将短文补充完整。其中有2个多余选项。 A． attend    B．sense    C． thanks to    D．lends me a hand     E. personality    F. make a mistake My best friend Lily and I have many things in common, especially our love for music. In many ways, I am similar to her because we both care about our studies and are very hardworking. However, our 41 is different. I am quiet, but she is outgoing. 42 her, I now feel free to talk to new people. When we have to perform in class, she always helps me prepare. She often 43 with my homework, and our good grades are connected to our teamwork. We also 44 the school art club together in our spare time. It’s wonderful to have such a good friend. 六、综合填空（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 As the new year began, I decided to make some resolutions. My first step was to write 45 introduction to my goals in a notebook. I used different colors for each goal to make them clear (清楚的). I wanted 46 (achieve) the following three things: get physically stronger, live more healthily, and become 47 (organized). At first, the goals seemed 48 (possible). How could I possibly keep on 49 (take) exercise every day? I tried many times, but I always stopped after a few days. Later, I realized that planning 50 (wise) was the key. I needed specific (具体的) plans 51 I wanted to really get fit. So, I decided to run for 20 minutes every morning. The first month was quite difficult. I almost 52 (fail) when I missed two days of running. I felt a little sad but decided not to give up. I reminded 53 (I) that progress isn’t about perfection; it’s about persistence (坚持). After three months, I was able to see real progress. My clothes fit better, and I felt stronger. My biggest achievement was running 5 kilometers 54 stopping! This progress filled me with growing confidence. The journey also taught me that good plans need clear steps and persistence. 七、书面表达（共1大题, 满分20分） 55．在人际交往中，积极的态度，正向的表达和巧妙的技巧能帮助我们有效沟通和解决问题。 校报英语栏目正在开展以“用心交流，有效沟通”为主题的征文活动。假设你是李华，请你根据以下提示和要求，用英语写一篇短文投稿，分享你生活中一次有效沟通的经历以及你的感受。 Effective communication My experience                                              My feeling ◆I traveled with a friend.                          ◆learn to get on well with others ◆I made a plan, but he disagreed.                  ◆learn to be a good listener ◆His plan was better.                             ◆… ◆… 要求： 1. 短文应包括提示中的所有内容，可适当发挥； 2. 文中不得出现真实的校名、地名和人名； 3. 词数80左右，短文标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Effective communication Effective communication plays an important role in solving problems and building relationships. Now let me share one of my experiences with you. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $