期末模拟预测卷（浙江杭州专用）-2025-2026学年人教版八年级上册英语

2025-2026学年人教版八年级上学期期末考试（浙江杭州专用）答案解析 第二部分 阅读理解 第一节 阅读理解（16-30题） 16. C 解析：根据短文A第一段“At the beginning of human history, people took their food from the world around them. They ate all that they could find”可知，人类历史初期，人们从周围环境中寻找食物。A（学习耕种获取食物）是约1万年前的方式，B（烹饪不同食物）、D（从其他国家获取食物）均未提及，故选C。 17. A 解析：根据短文A第二段“But in Central Europe, people live far away from the sea. So they don’t eat so much fish”可知，中欧人不吃太多鱼是因为住得离海远。B（喜欢吃面条）、C（有足够的肉吃）、D（受不了鱼）均不符合原文，故选A。 18. B 解析：根据短文A第二段“People eat different food in different places”（不同地方的人吃不同的食物）和第三段“People eat food with different tools in different places”（不同地方的人用不同工具吃饭），可推断“饮食与居住地点相关”，B正确。A（农业在人类历史中起重要作用）原文未强调；C（中国人从不用刀叉）过于绝对；D（随时能吃任何想吃的食物）原文未提及“任何时间”，仅提到“任何地点”，故选B。 19. B 解析：根据短文B第二段“robots will do most work. People will use robots to make cars, do the housework, look after sick people and teach students”可知，机器人会造车、做家务、照顾病人、教学生，未提及“开车”，故选B。 20. C 解析：根据短文B第三段“cars will become very small and computers will control their speed”可知，50年后电脑会控制车速，C正确。A（每家都有车）、B（人们不需要工作）原文未提及；D（地球会拥挤吵闹）与第四段“The earth won’t be crowded or noisy”矛盾，故选C。 21. A 解析：根据短文B第五段“if people don’t save water now, there will be water wars”（如果现在不节水，未来会有水资源战争），可推断“shortage”指“短缺”，故选A。 22. A 解析：短文B为“总-分”结构：①段总起“50年后生活与现在不同，弟弟吉姆有一些预测”；②-⑤段分别从“机器人、交通、居住、水资源”四个方面分述预测，对应“总-分”结构的选项A。 23. B 解析：短文B第二段主要讲“有癌症等问题的人养宠物会活得更长、恢复更快，养宠物能降血压、减少焦虑，动物对治疗老年记忆衰退有帮助”，核心是“养宠物对有身体问题的人的好处”，B正确。A（很多人患癌症）、C（针对身体问题的新医学研究）、D（人们有身体问题的原因）均非该段核心，故选B。 24. A 解析：短文B第三段通过“约翰是哑巴，因与鹦鹉互动开始说话”这一具体例子，说明动物的益处，主要通过举例子展开，A正确。B（讲感人故事）、C（对比两种产品）、D（展示作者经历）均不符合，故选A。 25. D 解析：短文结构为：①②段总起“动物友谊（宠物）对人的益处”；③④段分别通过“约翰与鹦鹉”“学校中动物的作用”两个例子分述；⑤段总结“如何了解动物帮助项目，呼吁做志愿者”，即①②/③④/⑤，故选D。 26. D 解析：短文围绕“动物帮助人们改善健康（如癌症患者恢复、哑巴说话、帮助有问题的孩子）”展开，核心是“借助动物变得更健康”，D正确。A（如何治疗疾病）范围过广，B（人类的朋友——动物）未突出“帮助健康”，C（保护动物）与主题无关，故选D。 27. A 解析：短文D第一段以“你妈妈问你早餐想吃什么，你在心里思考”为例，引出“自我沟通”话题，开头方式是“举例子”，C正确。A（提问题）、B（列数字）、D（讲故事）均不符合，故选C。 28. B 解析：短文D第三段开头“Intrapersonal communication has many good points in our lives”明确该段讲“自我沟通的优点”，B正确。A（方式）、C（问题）、D（规则）均未提及，故选B。 29. B 解析：根据短文D第四段“Understanding your thoughts and feelings better allows you to put yourself in others’ shoes when you talk to or listen to others”（更好地理解自己的想法和感受，能让你在与他人交谈或倾听时设身处地为他人着想），可推断“put yourself in others’ shoes”意为“换位思考”，B正确。 30. B 解析：短文结构为：①段举例子引出“自我沟通”；②段定义“自我沟通”；③段讲“自我沟通的优点”；④段总结“自我沟通有助于与他人沟通”，即①/②③/④，故选B。 第二节 任务型阅读（31-35题） 31. C 解析：后句“Therefore, we became friends on the first day of middle school”（因此开学第一天就成了朋友），需说明成为朋友的原因，“We have a lot of common interests and we both love playing basketball”（有很多共同爱好，都爱打篮球）符合语境，故选C。 32. B 解析：后句讲述“我担心历史考试，丽萨帮我复习”，体现“朋友间的帮助”，“True friends help each other when they are in trouble”（真正的朋友在困境中互相帮助）总起该段，故选B。 33. D 解析：前句“丽萨帮我复习历史”，后句应说明结果，“Thanks to her help, I did well in the exam”（多亏她的帮助，我考得很好）衔接自然，故选D。 34. A 解析：后句“Sometimes we have fights about small things”（有时因小事吵架），与前文“友好相处”形成转折，“However, not everything is always perfect”（但并非一切都完美）符合语境，故选A。 35. F 解析：后句“We plan to go to the same high school. I believe our friendship will last forever”（计划上同一所高中，相信友谊长存），体现对未来友谊的期待，“I hope we can always be friends in the future”（希望未来一直是朋友）衔接自然，故选F。 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 完形填空（36-50题） 36. A 解析：后句讲述“身高1.4米，比同学矮，被嘲笑”，可知是“最大的问题”，“problem”（问题）符合语境。B（承诺）、C（练习）、D（奖品）均不符合，故选A。 37. B 解析：根据“Being just 1.4 meters tall”（只有1.4米高），可知“比其他同学矮一头”，“shorter”（更矮的）符合语境。A（更高的）、C（更强壮的）、D（更弱的）均不符合，故选B。 38. D 解析：“An unfriendly boy even called me ‘the Dwarf Dora’”（一个不友好的男孩甚至叫我“小矮人朵拉”），“even”（甚至）加强语气，体现对方的不友好。A（仍然）、B（几乎不）、C（已经）均不符合，故选D。 39. C 解析：被人叫“小矮人”，应感到“失望”，“disappointed”（失望的）符合语境。A（严肃的）、B（极好的）、D（奇怪的）均不符合，故选C。 40. A 解析：“She came over and said”（她走过来对我说），“come over”（走过来）是固定搭配，符合语境。B（看）、C（思考）、D（落下）均不符合，故选A。 41. C 解析：“What really matters is your thoughts”（真正重要的是你的想法），“matter”（重要）符合语境。A（享受）、B（使感兴趣）、D（打架）均不符合，故选C。 42. B 解析：“Her words were like a silver lining breaking through the dark sky”（她的话像一缕曙光冲破黑暗的天空），“break through”（冲破）符合语境。A（看）、C（放）、D（落下）均不符合，故选B。 43. B 解析：前文围绕“身高”被嘲笑，此处“someone said something terrible about my height”（有人说我身高的坏话）符合语境。A（健康）、C（力量）、D（体重）均不符合，故选B。 44. A 解析：“I would think of Lily’s kind words”（我会想起莉莉友善的话），前文莉莉说了鼓励的话，“words”（话语）符合语境。B（笑话）、C（微笑）、D（希望）均不符合，故选A。 45. D 解析：“With my hard work and Lily’s care, I improved myself a lot”（凭借努力和莉莉的关心，我进步了很多），“improve”（改善，进步）符合语境。A（准备）、B（邀请）、C（帮助）均不符合，故选D。 46. C 解析：“Ben... had problems with his math homework”（本的数学作业有问题），“Seeing his trouble”（看到他的困难）符合语境。A（到达）、B（胜利）、D（事故）均不符合，故选C。 47. B 解析：“I explained step by step, talked with him and he finally understood”（我一步步解释，和他讨论，他最终明白了），“understand”（理解，明白）符合语境。A（回复）、C（出现）、D（意识到）均不符合，故选B。 48. D 解析：本之前嘲笑“我”，现在道歉，“I am really sorry for what I said before”（我对之前说的话很抱歉），“sorry”（抱歉的）符合语境。A（无聊的）、B（累的）、C（难过的）均不符合，故选D。 49. A 解析：“After that, nobody laughed at me and I became quite popular with my classmates”（之后没人嘲笑我，我在同学中变得很受欢迎），“popular”（受欢迎的）符合语境。A（生气的）、C（忙的）、D（仔细的）均不符合，故选A。 50. C 解析：“If we stay true to ourselves, people will be glad to make friends with us”（如果我们忠于自己，人们会乐意和我们交朋友），“make friends with”（和……交朋友）是固定搭配，符合语境。A（购物）、B（记笔记）、D（确保）均不符合，故选C。 第二节 词汇运用 A. 用方框单词适当形式填空（51-55题） 51. myself 解析：“it feels like I am looking at myself in a mirror”（感觉像在镜子里看到自己），“myself”（我自己）是反身代词，符合语境。 52. differences 解析：“some”后接名词复数，“differences”（不同之处）是“difference”的复数形式，符合“我们看起来一样，但有不同之处”的语境。 53. outgoing 解析：“more outgoing than me”（比我更外向），“outgoing”（外向的）是形容词，符合“她话多、声音大”的描述。 54. Though 解析：“Though she is also a kid, she often cares about me”（虽然她也是个孩子，但经常关心我），“though”（虽然）引导让步状语从句，首字母大写，符合语境。 55. cares about 解析：“she often cares about me”（她经常关心我），“care about”（关心）是固定搭配，主语“she”是第三人称单数，用“cares about”。 B. 根据汉语注释写单词（56-65题） 56. social 解析：“social media”（社交媒体）是固定搭配，“social”（社交的）符合语境。 57. popular 解析：“become very popular”（变得非常受欢迎），“popular”（受欢迎的）符合语境。 58. explore 解析：“encourage sb. to do sth.”（鼓励某人做某事），“explore”（探索）用原形，符合语境。 59. create 解析：“may”后接动词原形，“create”（创造）符合“用落叶、果实做手工艺品”的语境。 60. seriously 解析：“take it more seriously”（更认真地对待它），“seriously”（认真地）是副词，修饰动词“take”。 61. videos 解析：“make videos”（制作视频），“video”是可数名词，用复数“videos”表泛指。 62. purpose 解析：“Their purpose is to...”（他们的目的是……），“purpose”（目的）符合语境，根据“is”可知用单数。 63. fun 解析：“bring sb. much fun”（给某人带来很多乐趣），“fun”（乐趣）是不可数名词，符合语境。 64. themselves 解析：“relax themselves”（放松他们自己），“themselves”（他们自己）是反身代词，符合语境。 65. share 解析：“encourage sb. to do sth.”（鼓励某人做某事），“share”（分享）用原形，符合语境。 第三节 语法填空（66-75题） 66. finishing 解析：“have difficulty in doing sth.”（做某事有困难）是固定搭配，“finish”（完成）用动名词“finishing”。 67. an 解析：“have an argument with sb.”（和某人吵架）是固定搭配，“argument”以元音音素开头，用不定冠词“an”。 68. with 解析：“get on well with sb.”（和某人相处融洽）是固定搭配，填“with”。 69. playing 解析：“see sb. doing sth.”（看到某人正在做某事），“play the violin”（拉小提琴），用“playing”表动作正在进行。 70. Though/Although 解析：“Though/Although Alice didn’t know what music he was playing, it made her feel better”（虽然爱丽丝不知道他在拉什么曲子，但这让她感觉好些了），“though/although”（虽然）引导让步状语从句，首字母大写。 71. really 解析：“the really bad mood”（非常糟糕的心情），“really”（非常）是副词，修饰形容词“bad”。 72. surprise 解析：“to one’s surprise”（令某人惊讶的是）是固定搭配，“surprise”（惊讶）是名词。 73. relaxed 解析：“make people feel relaxed”（让人们感到放松），“relaxed”（放松的）修饰人，符合语境。 74. listen 解析：“why not do sth.”（为什么不做某事）是固定句型，“listen”（听）用原形。 75. yourself 解析：“Believe in yourself”（相信你自己），“yourself”（你自己）是反身代词，符合语境。 第四部分 书面表达（76题） A better me in 2026 New Year’s Day is coming soon and I have some plans to be a better me. First, in study, I’ll listen carefully in class and do homework on time. I’ll ask teachers for help when I meet difficult problems, because I want to get better grades. Second, for health, I’ll get up early every morning and do sports like running or swimming. I’ll also eat more vegetables and less junk food to keep fit. Third, in daily life, I’ll help my parents with housework, such as cleaning the room and washing dishes. I’ll also be more friendly to my classmates and share my things with them. I believe these plans will help me become a better person in 2026. 解析： 1. 涵盖全部要点：学习（认真听课、问老师）、健康（早起运动、健康饮食）、生活（帮父母做家务、友好待同学）； 2. 层次清晰：用“First, Second, Third”衔接，逻辑连贯； 3. 符合词数要求（80词左右），语句通顺，无语法错误，未出现真实信息。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分） 1 -5 A A A C B 1.【答案】A W: Jack, who dances better, Lily or you? M: Lily does. But she doesn’t sing as well as I do. 2.【答案】A W: Do you think you are different from your sister, Paul? M: Yes. She is more hard-working. 3.【答案】A A: Tom, could you help me clean up the bathroom? B: Okay, I’ll do it right now, mom. Question: Where does this conversation probably take place? 4.【答案】C A: I’m really interested in painting. I want to draw new pictures in the future. B: So you want to be an artist. A: Yeah. 5.【答案】B A: The population in New York will be 23.6 million by the year 2025. B: Yes. But it will also be 17 million in Beijing by then. Question: Which city has the larger population by the year 2025? 第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分） 听对话，回答以下各小题。 【答案】6.A 7.B A: I’m hungry, Bill. What’s for dinner? B: We can cook noodles, dumplings or sandwiches. Which do you like best, Lisa? A: Hmmm. Noodles are my favorite. Let’s cook together. B: OK, we need two tomatoes and some beef. A: Yes, and some salt and vegetables. Oh, we don’t have any salt. I must go and buy some now. B: Well, I’ll cut up the tomatoes and beef. A: I think you should put the noodles into the pot first. B: You’re right, Lisa, but where are the noodles? A: Oh, I think they’re in the shop. B: Just wait for me. 听下面一段较长对话，回答小题。 【答案】8.B 9.A 10.B M: Sally, I guess Edward must be very disappointed with me. W: Why do you say that? You two are the best friends. M: Well, he asked me to lend him a hand with decorating his new room, but I was busy studying for an exam and didn’t go. W: Did you tell him why you couldn’t help? M: No, I just said I couldn’t make it. And he didn’t answer my message. W: Why don’t you call him now? You should explain the reason and say sorry. M: What if that doesn’t work? W: Then show him you mean it! Maybe buy some cool posters for his room. Actions speak louder than words! 第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。 【答案】11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A An old man lived in the country. He had two sons and one daughter. They were Jim, Bob and Alice. They left home to make money and became rich soon. This year, they came back together on Father’s Day. Each of them had a gift for their dad. Jim bought a big and beautiful house for Dad. Bob sent him a car and Alice’s gift was a parrot. The parrot could speak to Dad. After a big dinner, they left. Their dad was very happy. A few days later, Dad sent them letters of thanks: “Jim,” he wrote to one son, “the house is so large. I live in only one room, but I have to clean the whole house.” “Bob,” he wrote to the other, “I am too old to travel. I spend most of the time at home, so I don’t use the car.” “Dear Alice,” he wrote to his daughter, “you really know what I like. The chicken tasted good. Thanks.” 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $请听下面一段音乐并调试音量。听力测试现在开始。第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题请，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。One, jack who . does is Better living, or you. lily does, but he doesn't think as well as I do. Two, do you think . you are different from your sister? paul? Yes, SHE is more hardworking. Three. tom, could you help me clean . up the bathroom? Okay, i'll do IT right now, mom. for i'm really interested . in painting. I want to draw new pictures in the future. so you want . to be a notice. yeah. Five. the population in new york will be twenty three point six million by the year twenty twenty five. yes, but IT will also be seventeen million in beijing by then. One, jack. who does is Better living, or you. lily does, but he doesn't think as well as I do. Two, do you think . you are different from your sister? paul? Yes, SHE is more . hardworking. Three. tom, could you help me clean . up the bathroom? Okay, i'll do IT right now, mom. for i'm really interested . in painting. I want to draw new pictures in the future. so you want . to be a notice. yeah. Five. the population in new york will be twenty three point six million by the year twenty twenty five. yes, but IT will also be seventeen million in beijing by then. 第二节听下面两段对话，每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。听对话回答6至7小题。I'm hungry, bill, what's for dinner? We can cook noodles. dumplings or Sanders, which do you like best? Lisa, noodles are my favorite. Let's cook . together. okay? We need two tomatoes and some beef. yes, and some salt and vegetables. Oh, we don't have any salt. I must go and buy . some now. Well, i'll cut up the tomatoes and beef. I think you should put the noodles into the pot. You're right, lisa, but we're other noodles. Oh, I think they are in the shop. Just wait for me. I'm hungry, bill. What's for dinner? We can cook noodles, dumplings or sandwich. Which do you like best? Lisa. um noodles are my favorite. Let's cook together. okay? We need two tomatoes and . some beef, yes, and some salt and vegetables. Oh, we don't have any salt. I must go and buy some now. Well, i'll cut up the tomatoes and beef. I think you should put the noodles into the pot first. You're right, lisa, but we're other noodles. Oh, I think they are in the shop. Just wait for me. 听下面一段较长对话，回答8至10小题。Sally, I guess that would must be very disappointed with me. Why do you say that you too were the best friends? Well, he asked me to let him a hand with decorating his new room, but I was busy studying for an exam and didn't go. Did you tell me why you couldn't help? No, I just said I couldn't make IT and he didn't answer . my message. Why don't you call him? now? You should explain the reason, say, sorry. what if doesn't work? Then show him, you mean IT, maybe buy some cool posters for his room. Action, speak louder than words. Sally, I guess I would must be very disappointed with me. Why do you say that you too were the best friends? Well, he asked me to let him a hand with decorating his new room, but I was busy studying for an exam and didn't go. Did you tell me why you couldn't help? No, I just said I couldn't make IT and he didn't answer . my message. Why don't you call him? now? You should explain the reason, say, sorry. what if that doesn't work? Then show him, you mean IT maybe buy some cool posters for his room action, speak louder than words. 第三节，听下面一段独白，独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。An old man lived in the country. He had two sons and one daughter. They were gym bob and dollars. They left home to make money and became rich. Soon this year, they came back together. On father's day, each of them had a gift for their dad. Jim bought a big and beautiful house for dad bob. Sending ma delicate gift was a, the party could speak to that. After a big dinner, they left that that was very happy. A few days later, god sent them, let us a thanks, jim. He wrote to one son, the house is so large, I live in only one room, but I have to clean the whole house, bob, he wrote to the other, I am too old to travel. I spend most of the time at home, so I don't use the car. Dear Alice, he wrote his daughter, you really know what I like? The chicken tasted good. thanks. An old man lived in the country. He had two sons and one daughter. They were jim bob and dallas. They left home to make money and became rich. Soon this year, they came back together. On father's day, each of them had a gift for their dad. Jim bought a bigger, beautiful house for dad bob. Sending ma delicate gift was a, the party could speak to that. After a big dinner, they left that. That was very happy. A few days later, god sent them, let us a thanks, jim. He wrote to one son, the house is so large, I live in only one room, but I have to clean the whole house. Bob, he wrote the other, I am too old to travel. I spend most of the time at home, so I don't use the car. Dear Alice, he wrote his daughter, you really know what I like? The chicken taste good. thanks. 2025 -2026学年人教版八年级上学期期末考试(浙江杭州专用） 英 语 （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________ 考生注意： 1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 4.考试难度：0.75 第一部分 听力 (满分20分) 第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分） 1．What does the man mean? A．He sings better than Lily. B．He dances better than Lily. C．He is good at singing and dancing. 2．Who is more hard-working? A．Paul’s sister. B．Paul. C．Paul’s brother. 3．Where does this conversation probably take place? A．At home. B．In the classroom. C．In a supermarket. 4．What does the boy want to be when he grows up? A．A doctor. B．A scientist. C．An artist. 5．Which city has the larger population by the year 2025? A．Beijing. B．New York. C．Shenzhen. 第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分） 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6．Where do they probably have the conversation? A．At home. B．In a restaurant. C．In a shop. 7．What does the woman need to buy? A．Only salt. B．Salt and noodles. C．Only noodles. 听下面一段较长对话，回答小题。 8．How does the boy probably feel now? A．Happy. B．Worried. C．Excited. 9．What did Edward need to help? A．To decorate the room. B．To clean the house. C．To prepare for the exam. 10．What does Sally advise the boy to do now? A．To send a message. B．To make a call. C．To buy some gifts. 第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。 11．How many children did the old man have? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 12．Which gift did Jim give his dad? A．A beautiful car. B．A big house. C．A clever parrot. 13．A parrot was sent to Dad because it could ________. A．sing for Dad B．dance for Dad C．speak to Dad 14．How did Dad like the car? A．He liked it a lot. B．He didn’t like it at all. C．He thought it was the best. 15．What happened to the parrot finally? A．Dad cooked and ate it. B．It read books for Dad. C．Dad played happily with it. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A At the beginning of human history, people took their food from the world around them. They ate all that they could find, and then moved on. About 10,000 years ago people started learning to farm. People eat different food in different places. In China, rice is the main food for people in the south and the people in the north eat noodles. People who live in European countries near the sea eat lots of fish. But in Central Europe, people live far away from the sea. So they don’t eat so much fish. They eat more special meat. People eat food with different tools (工具) in different places. In North America, Australia, and Europe, people eat with knives and forks (刀和叉). In China, people eat with chopsticks (筷子). In parts of India and the Middle East, people use their hands to pick up food. Now people can eat different food from different places. Today it is possible that food is sent easily from one part of the world to another. We can almost eat whatever we like at any place of the world. For example, people in Britain can eat bananas from Africa and rice from India. Food is becoming a very big business now. 16．How did people get food at the beginning of human history? A．They learned to farm for food. B．They cooked different kinds of food. C．They found food around them. D．They got food from another country. 17．People living in Central Europe don’t eat so much fish because ________. A．they live far from the sea B．they like eating noodles C．they have enough meat to eat D．they can’t stand fish 18．Which of the following is true according to (根据) the passage? A．Farm plays an important role in human history. B．What we eat has to do with where we live. C．Chinese people never use knives and forks. D．We can eat whatever we like at any time of the year. B ①What will our life be like in 50 years? No one knows the answer exactly (确切地), but we are sure that it will be very different from the life today. My brother Jim Green makes some predictions. Here are some of his ideas. ②First, people will have less work to do, and robots will do most work. People will use robots to make cars, do the housework, look after sick people and teach students. People will spend most of their time playing sports and traveling. So people will become stronger and healthier, and they will live to be about 200 years old. ③Second, cars will become very small and computers will control (控制) their speed. So there will be fewer accidents on the road. Planes will be very popular and most people would like to take them to travel. ④Third, people will be able to live in the sea, on the moon or on Mars. The earth won’t be crowded or noisy. So there will be more space for people to plant trees. There will be less pollution, and the air will become much fresher. ⑤Finally, water shortage will become one of the most serious problems. If people don’t save water now, there will be water wars in 50 years. 19．Jim Green thinks that in 50 years robots will help people do the following things EXCEPT (除了) ________. A．looking after sick people B．driving cars C．teaching students D．doing the housework 20．According to Jim Green, ________ in 50 years. A．every family will have a car B．people won’t need to work C．computers will control the cars’ speed D．the earth will become crowded and noisy 21．The underlined word “shortage” means ________ in the passage. A．短缺 B．丰富 C．清澈 D．浑浊 22．What is the structure of this passage? A． B． C． D． C ①In today’s world of modern science and medicine, a more traditional treatment is once again becoming popular-animal friendship. ②It is now well-known that people with problems such as cancer (癌症) live longer and get better more quickly if they have pets. Keeping pets lowers blood pressure (血压) and makes people less worried. Animals are increasingly important in treating older people who have memory loss and other brain problems. These people often feel nervous and upset. Activities with animals help them improve their health and also give them happiness, and loving friendship. ③Here is an example that shows the benefits of animals. John was a six-year-old mute (哑巴). He had no physical (身体) problems. He didn’t want to say anything at all. His older cousin, Ned, had a parrot called Sally, and John used to visit it. When he arrived, Ned used to say, “Hi, John!” We all know parrots copy what they hear. After a few visits, Sally began saying “Hi, John!” when John came into the room. Then, one day John turned to the parrot and replied “Hi, Sally!” Talking with the parrot encouraged John to begin speaking. ④Another use of animal helpers is in schools. Animals are used to help children with physical or personal problems. In addition, they are used to teach children to get on and share with others, and even to teach them about animals. ⑤If you want to know more about animal helper programs, you can get in touch with organizations like Riding for the Disabled or do a survey on the Internet. You don’t have to be an animal trainer or a doctor to join in. You can work as a volunteer (志愿者). People there will welcome you. 23．What does the second paragraph mainly tell us? A．Many people are suffering from diseases like cancer. B．The benefits of keeping pets for people with physical problems. C．Some new medical researches on people with physical problems. D．The reasons why so many people nowadays have physical problems. 24．How is the third paragraph mainly developed? A．By giving several examples. B．By telling some moving stories. C．By comparing two products. D．By showing the writer’s experiences. 25．What would be the best structure for this text? (Paragraph 1=① Paragraph 2=② Paragraph 3=③ Paragraph 4=④ Paragraph 5=⑤) A．①/②/③/④⑤ B．①②/③/④/⑤ C．①/②/③④/⑤ D．①②/③④/⑤ 26．What would be the best title for this text? A．How to Treat Diseases. B．Humans’ Friends—Animals. C．Let’s Protect Animals! D．Get Healthy with Animal Helpers. D Do you know that we also communicate with ourselves from time to time? Picture this: Your mom asks you what you would like for breakfast. Many foods come to your mind: pancakes, bread, porridge… You think that it would be great to have pancakes. Until you tell your mom what you want to eat, you are communicating with yourself. We call this kind of communication intrapersonal communication (自我沟通). This can be talking to ourselves, reading, writing, thinking, understanding and remembering something. Intrapersonal communication has many good points in our lives. Good intrapersonal communication allows you to understand yourself better. When you’re comfortable with who you are, and you know what you want, you can better get on with yourself. Also, intrapersonal communication helps you to keep an eye on your thoughts and feelings. When you find that your mind is full of negative (负面的) thoughts and feelings, and that they make you sad, you will try to cheer up and get rid of these bad thoughts and feelings. All in all, intrapersonal communication helps with your communication with others. Understanding your thoughts and feelings better allows you to put yourself in others’ shoes when you talk to or listen to others. Then, you can better understand and get on with them. 1. How does the writer begin the topic in Paragraph 1? A．By asking a question. B．By listing numbers. C．By giving an example. D．By telling stories. 2. From Paragraph 3, we can learn about the ________ of intrapersonal communication. A．ways B．good points C．problems D．rules 3. What’s the meaning of the underlined phrase “put yourself in others’ shoes” in paragraph 4? A．坚持不懈 B．换位思考 C．唇亡齿寒 D．顾此失彼 4. What is the structure of the text? (①=Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2…) A．①/②/③④ B．①/②③/④ C．①/②③④ D．①②/③④ 第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Friendship is one of the most important things in our school life. A good friend can make your days at school happy and full of laughter. When I think about my school life, I always think about my best friend, Lisa. We are in the same class and we sit next to each other. 31．______ Therefore (因此), we became friends on the first day of middle school. We always share our lunch, our stories, and even our secrets. 32．______ Last month, I was very worried about the history exam. I couldn’t remember all the dates and facts. Lisa is very good at history. She spent two afternoons after school helping me review history. 33．______ 34．______ Sometimes we have fights about small things. But we never stay angry for long. Usually, the next day, we forget about it and laugh together again. 35．______ We plan to go to the same high school. I believe our friendship will last forever, and my school life will always be beautiful because of her. School life is not just about studying from books. It’s also about learning how to be a good friend and understanding the people around you. A．However, not everything is always perfect. B．True friends help each other when they are in trouble. C．We have a lot of common interests and we both love playing basketball. D．Thanks to her help, I did well in the exam. E．She often cheers me up when I am feeling down. F．I hope we can always be friends in the future. 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分) I became a middle school student, full of excitement and a little worry. Soon, my biggest 36 came. Being just 1.4 meters tall, I was a head 37 than other classmates. In the busy hallways, I’m often pushed away. An unfriendly boy 38 called me “the Dwarf (小矮人) Dora”. It made me really 39 . One day, I sat in the classroom crying, and my friend saw that. She 40 over and said, “Hey, don’t let it affect you. I am always with you because you are kind and nice. What really 41 is your thoughts. It’s amazing that you’re just being yourself.” Her words were like a silver lining 42 through the dark sky. From then on, whenever someone said something terrible about my 43 , I didn’t mind it at all. I would think of Lily’s kind 44 . I threw myself into studies and took up the violin and swimming. With my hard work and Lily’s care, I 45 myself a lot. One day, Ben, the boy who called me the Dwarf Dora, had problems with his math homework. Seeing his 46 , I decided to help him after thinking for a while. I explained step by step, talked with him and he finally 47 . His face turned red and he said, “Dora, thank you for your help. And, hmm, I am really 48 for what I said before. You are very nice and great.” “It’s OK.” I smiled. After that, nobody laughed at me and I became quite 49 with my classmates. Now I understand “We are amazing just being ourselves.” If we stay true to ourselves, people will be glad to 50 with us. It’s our mind that matters. 36．A．problem B．promise C．practice D．prize 37．A．taller B．shorter C．stronger D．weaker 38．A．still B．hardly C．already D．even 39．A．serious B．fantastic C．disappointed D．strange 40．A．came B．looked C．thought D．fell 41．A．enjoys B．interests C．matters D．fights 42．A．looking B．breaking C．putting D．falling 43．A．health B．height C．strength D．weight 44．A．words B．jokes C．smiles D．hopes 45．A．prepared B．invited C．helped D．improved 46．A．arrival B．victory C．trouble D．accident 47．A．replied B．understood C．appeared D．realized 48．A．bored B．tired C．sad D．sorry 49．A．popular B．angry C．busy D．careful 50．A.go shopping B．take notes C．make friends D．make sure 第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次 difference I outgoing care about though I have a twin sister. She is just ten minutes older than me. Every time I see her, it feels like I am looking at 51．______ in a mirror. We look the same, but there are some 52．______ between us. My sister is more 53．______ than me. When we play, she talks a lot and speaks loudly. 54．______ she is also a kid, she often 55．______ me. She wakes me up in the morning and helps me with my homework. When I’m unhappy, she tries to make me laugh. I love my sister. B:阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。 On recent 56．______ (社交的) media, many young people put autumn leaves and fruits into different kinds of displays to show off their autumn fruits. This activity, known as “picking up autumn” or jiǎn qiū, has become very 57．______ (受欢迎的) in China. It encourages many people to 58．______ (探索) the natural beauty of the season. So, what do people pick up? Traditionally, jiǎn qiū meant farmers collecting leftover crops after harvest. Now, it means city people going to parks and other outdoor places to collect fallen leaves, fruits, and other natural things. They may 59．______ (创造) lovely handicrafts with them. Some people simply search for dried leaves in a park, while others take it more 60．______ (认真地). People who like science make 61． ______(视频) to teach about common plants found outdoors. Their 62．______ (目的) is to enjoy nature, discover seasonal changes, and keep memories of autumn. Besides, this activity aims to encourage families to go outside and learn about nature in ways they might not usually experience. It brings people so much 63．______ (乐趣). This activity is good for economic growth. It can increase park visits because the popularity of jiǎn qiū has helped local tourism (旅游业). Tourism offices call on people to visit parks and gardens to relax 64．______ (他们自己). Some media encourage people to 65． ______(分享) their own autumn collections. Now, jiǎn qiū becomes a fun way for people to take a break from the busy world. 第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。 Alice and Judy are best friends. Last Sunday, Alice had difficulty in 66．______ (finish) her homework and wanted to copy Judy’s. But Judy refused. Alice had 67．______ argument with Judy. They didn’t talk to each other for a few days. Alice didn’t know how to solve her maths problem and she wondered if she could get on well 68．______ her friend again. Yesterday afternoon, she saw a cool boy 69．______ (play) the violin happily by the road. The music sounded so nice that she stopped. 70．______ Alice didn’t know what music he was playing, it made her feel better. After he finished the music, Alice walked over to him and said, “Thank you for your beautiful music. It gets me out of the 71．______ (real) bad mood (心情).” Then she took out some money and gave it to him. To her 72．______ (surprised), the boy asked her to take the money back. He explained that he wasn’t making money by playing the violin. He just wanted to help others. He hoped that the wonderful music could make people feel 73．______ (relax) and happy. Then Alice told him about her trouble. He said, “You should learn to smile even if you are in difficulty. Listening to music is helpful. So why not 74．______ (listen) to music as often as possible? Never lose heart. Believe in your friend. She has her reasons. Believe in 75．______ (you), everything will go well.” Hearing these words, Alice went home with a smile. She believed she could make it. 第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分) 76．假定你是刘丽，你校即将开展以“A better me in 2026”为题的英语征文活动，请你结合以下图示信息，写一篇英语短文，向校园英语报社投稿。 内容提示： 写作要求： 1. 层次清晰，语言流畅，包含全部要点，适当发挥。 2. 文章中不得出现真实姓名、班级、学校等信息。 3. 词数80词左右。书写规范，卷面整洁。开头已给出，不计入总词数。 A better me in 2026 New Year’s Day is coming soon and I have some plans to be a better me. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $浙江省杭州市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试 英语·答题卡 姓名： 准考证号 条码粘贴处 缺考标记 注意事项 ▣ 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 考生禁止填涂 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的条码粘贴处]的方框内。 缺考标记！只能 3. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 由监考老师负 4. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 责用黑色字迹 5. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 的签字笔填涂。 6 填涂样例正确■]错误-][√][×] 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 第二部分（听力）（第1-5每小题1分，6-15每小题1.5分，共20分） 1.A1[B1[C1[D1 6.[A][B][C][D] 11.A][B][C1[D1 2.[A][B][C][D] 7.A][BI[C1[D] 12.A1[B][CJ[D1 3A][B1[C1[D] 8.[A][B][C][D] 13.[AJ[B1[C1[D1 4.[A][B][C][D] 9.[A][B][C][D] 14.[A][B][C][D] 5.[A][B][C][D] 10.[AJ[B1[CJ[D] 15.AJ[B][C][D1 第二部分（阅读理解)（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 16.A1[B1[CJ[D1 21A[B][C1[D] 26.[A][BJ[C][D] 31.[AJ[B1[c1[D] 17.A1[B1IC1[D1 22.A1[B1IC1[D1 27.[A][B1[C1[DJ 32.[AJ[B1[C1[D1 18.[A][B][C][D] 23[A][B][C][D] 28.[A][B][C1[DJ 33.AJ[B][C1[D1 19.[A][B][C][D] 24.[A1[B1IC][D] 29.[A][BJ[C1[D1 34.[AI[B][C][D] 20.[A][B][C][D] 25.A][B]【C][DJ 30.AJ[B][C][D1 35 第三部分第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 36.A1[B1[C1[D1 41.A1IB1[C][D1 46.[A][B][C][D] 37.AJ[B1[C][D] 42[A][B][C][D] 47.A][B][CJ[D] 38.A][B][C][D] 43.[AJ[B][C][D] 48.A][B1[C1ID1 39.AJ[B1[C][D] 44.[A][B][C][D] 49.[A][B][C][D] 40.[A][B][C][D] 45.[A][B][C][D] 50.[A][B][C][D] 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形迈框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A:51. 52. 53. 54 55. B:56. 57. 58. 59 60. 61. 62. 63. 64 6的 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 66. 67. 68. 69 70. 71. 72. 73. 74 75. 第四部分语言运用（共一节，满分20分） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！