甘肃省陇南市2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

2025—2026学年度第一学期期末学业水平抽测卷

七年级英语

注意事项：本试卷不含听力，满分为150分，考试时间为120分钟。所有试题均在答题卡上作答，否则无效。

Ⅰ．单词辨音(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)

从A、B、C、D四个选项中，找出画线部分与其他三个单词画线部分读音不同的选项。

1. A. member B. collect C. let D. me

2. A. whom B. where C. when D. what

3. A. tofu B. most C. locker D. homework

4. A. sad B. those C. tennis D. spend

5. A. already B. seat C. reason D. mean

Ⅱ．语法与情景对话(共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分)

阅读下列各题，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案。

6. —Can you play ________ tennis?

—Yes, I can. But I can’t play ________ piano.

A. the; the B. /; / C. the; / D. /; the

7. Mike is a Grade 7 student, so he is in _________ grade.

A. seven B. seventh C. the seven D. the seventh

8. Look at Frank’s bedroom. There ________ a bed, a desk, a chair and a computer in it.

A. have B. are C. has D. is

9. —How much is the book?

—Sorry, I don’t know the ________. My uncle gives it to me.

A. height B. price C. question D. name

10. In the Picture ________, the girl is making a wish.

A.  B.  C.  D.

11. The tomato plants ________ best in spring.

A. grow B. blow C. list D. mark

12. —Where does your uncle have breakfast every day?

—In a ________ near his house.

A. restaurant B. bottle C. flag D. balloon

13. —Can you play football?

—________. I can play volleyball, too.

A. No, I can’t B. Yes, I can C. No, I am not D. Yes, I am

14. There is a new building ________ the art building and the science building.

A. in B. between C. across D. under

15. It’s a quarter to seven in the morning now. I have to get up and ________.

A. eat dinner B. get dressed C. go to bed D. put up

16. —________ do you have a book sale?

—On 3rd December.

A. How B. What C. When D. Who

17. —Are those your cousins?

—________. They are my friends.

A. Yes they are B. No, they aren’t C. Yes, he is D. No, he isn’t

18. Alice wants ________ the art club.

A. to join B. joining C. join D. joins

19. —Those tennis rackets are cool! Whose are they?

—They’re my ________. They play tennis well.

A. father’s B. sister’s C. brother’s D. grandparents’

20. After Mike ________ his breakfast, he goes to school with his sister.

A. finishes B. looks C. knows D. sounds

21. —Nice to meet you, Tom.

—________.

A. Thank you B. I’m fine C. I am Jim D. Nice to meet you too

22. He usually spends time ________ the violin on weekends.

A. play B. playing C. plays D. to play

23. Steve rides his new bike, takes some money ________ buys a gift for his mother.

A. or B. because C. and D. but

24. —Can I help you?

—________. I want to buy a scarf.

A. Yes, please B. No, thanks C. Here you are D. You’re welcome

25. What can we know from the picture?

A. A pair of shoes is under the chair. B. A schoolbag is on the desk.

C. There is a book on the bed. D. There are two bottles on the desk.

Ⅲ．完形填空(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。

Hello, I’m Li Na. Today is Monday and it is my favourite day. The ___26___ is simple (简单的)—I can have my favourite classes today.

The lessons in the morning are geography, science, and maths. ___27___ is my favourite because I can learn about (了解) the world from it. Science is interesting for me. I think science is like ___28___. That’s because it can make the world better. Maths is ___29___ because we can use (使用) it when we buy things. I want to be a maths teacher in the ___30___. After the morning lessons, it’s time to have lunch. I can eat nice food in the ___31___.

In the afternoon, we have ___32___ lessons—Chinese and PE. The Chinese class lasts (持续) for one hour. I can ___33___ ancient (古代的) poems in class. They can help me know more about the people in the ___34___. I also like PE. I can play basketball with my friends in PE classes. It’s ____35____ and we all have a good time. Mr Zhang is my PE teacher. He can play football well.

26 A. mistake B. job C. reason D. problem

27. A. English B. Maths C. Science D. Geography

28. A. sport B. magic C. music D. love

29. A. useful B. fun C. difficult D. new

30. A. middle B. future C. world D. life

31. A. sports field B. library C. dining hall D. music hall

32. A. two B. three C. four D. five