期末练习卷（金华卷）-2025-2026学年七年级英语上册外研版

保密★启用前 2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（金华市专用） 英 语 （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________ 考生注意： 1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 4.考试难度：0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型] 第一部分 听力 (满分20分) 第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分） 1．Who likes to play the guitar? A．Peter. B．Liu Hui. C．Peter and Liu Hui. 2．How many new animals came to Sunshine Zoo? A．15. B．25. C．35. 3．What animals does Mike want to see? A．Lions. B．Tigers. C．Pandas. 4．How many floors does the building have? A．5. B．6. C．7. 5．When does Lucy have art class? A．On Tuesday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Thursday. 第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分） 听下面一段对话，回答下面小题。 6．What are they talking about? A．Spring Festival. B．Mid-Autumn Festival. C．Tomb-sweeping Day. 7．What do people do on this festival? A．Visit friends. B．Visit the tombs. C．Tidy up the house. 听下面一段对话，回答三个小题。 8．What does Diana want to do? A．Go fishing. B．Go shopping. C．Go to school. 9．What does Diana’s mother do? A．A nurse. B．A teacher. C．A cook. 10．Who is the boy? A．Diana’s friend. B．Diana’s brother. C．Diana’s cousin. 第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。 11．What club is Julie in? A．Chess club. B．Music club. C．Science club. 12．How many members does the club want? A．3 B．4 C．7 13．Where is the art building? A．In front of the music hall. B．Behind the dining hall. C．Next to the student center. 14．How many hours is the club open? A．One hour. B．Two hours. C．Three hours. 15．If you want to join the chess club, you can call them at ________. A．846-7502 B．864-7052 C．648-2057 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Hello! This is my family tree. Bob is my grandpa and Lily is my grandma. They have three children—a daughter and two sons. Their daughter is my mum Kate. She’s 42. Uncle Sam is 39. He has a son. Uncle Jack is 36. He and Aunt Mary have a son and a daughter. They are Dove and Jane. I have a sister. She’s 5. She’s as old as (和……一样大) Uncle Jack’s son. 16．Match (匹配) the names ①—③ with the boxes A—C in the family tree. ①Bob       ②Jack        ③Sam A．①-A; ②-B ③-C B．①-C; ②-A; ③-B C．①-A; ②-C; ③-B D．①-C; ②-B; ③-A 17．Dove has ________ cousins. A．two B．three C．four D．five 18．Which one is NOT right? A．Lily is Kate’s mother. B．Dove is 5 years old. C．Eric is Bob’s son. D．Jack has a brother and a sister. B On New Year’s Eve, people in Italy throw (扔) all the old things out of their houses. So there are chairs, beds, clothes and plates in the streets. In Spain (西班牙), in the evening, people come together to the streets with their families and friends. They all bring a bag of grapes. When twelve o’clock comes, people start eating the grapes. They usually eat twelve grapes because they can bring them good luck for each month of the new year. In Japan, people eat noodles on New Year’s Eve. This food means longevity (长寿). Early the next morning, some families climb Mount Fuji. There they watch the first sunrise (日出) of the new year. In England, some people spend the evening at home with their family, or have a party with friends at their house. Others go to a pub or a large public place to celebrate. 19．Where do people in Spain welcome New Year? A．In their houses. B．In the shops. C．In the parks. D．In the streets. 20．People in ________ like to enjoy the first sunrise of the new year. A．Italy B．Japan C．England D．Spain 21．Some people in England welcome New Year by ________. A．having a party B．eating noodles C．throwing old things D．eating grapes 22．What is the best title of the passage? A．Special Food for New Year’s Eve B．Popular Places to Visit on New Year’s Eve C．New Year’s Eve in Different Countries D．How to Welcome the New Year in Italy C Today is the fifth day of July. It is Judy’s birthday. When she comes back from school, she sees a card on the table. It says, “There’s a gift for you, Judy. Look for it in your bedroom.” Judy runs into her bedroom. Her parents are looking at her and smiling. On the chair, she sees a red box. She thinks her gift must be in it. She opens it, and there is a piece of paper (纸) in it. It says, “Dear Judy, I’m your gift. My first letter (字母) is in the word ‘dear’, but not in ‘pear’. My second letter is in ‘red’, but not in ‘bed’. My third letter is in ‘bus’, but not in ‘car’, and you can find my last letter in both ‘home’ and ‘music’. What am I?” Judy thinks for a minute and says, “Aha, I know. But where is it?” Her father tells her it is in her drawer. 23．When is Judy’s birthday? A．It’s on June 5th. B．It’s on July 5th. C．It’s on July 15th. D．It’s on June 15th. 24．What does the underlined word “smiling” in Paragraph 3 mean in Chinese? A．冷笑 B．嘲笑 C．微笑 D．苦笑 25．What is Judy’s gift? A． B． C． D． 26．What can be the best title of the passage? A．July’s Birthday Party B．Judy’s Birthday Gift C．Judy’s Parents D．Judy’s Bedroom D Book Club! Our Club! Do you like reading books? What do you do on Sunday afternoon? Join our book club and read interesting books together. See you at the school reading room. It is open from 2:00 p.m.  to 4:00 p.m. Call Miss Lu at 13812112378. Shall we dance? Do you want to keep healthy? Do you like dancing? We have super hip hop (说唱) teachers. We have a class every Friday evening at 7:30 p. m. Join our club! Call Jay at 13812808079. Space (太空) Club! Super Club! Are you interested in space? Do you want to learn more about spaceships? Do you want to know more science knowledge and how the astronauts (宇航员) do experiments (实验) in space? What other things do they do? Come and meet us at 9:00 a.m. at our club on Saturday morning. Space@pepe.com _________________ Do you like food? Do you want to cook? Join us! Learn to cook! Different teachers in our club teach different things. Let’s meet every Wednesday afternoon at 4 o’clock in the dining hall. See you there! 27．When does the book club open? A．On Sunday afternoon. B．On Saturday afternoon. C．On Saturday morning. 28．Kate wants to dance. She can________. A．call Miss Lu B．call Jay C．send an email to Space@pepe.com 29．Bob likes science knowledge. He can go to ________ Club. A．Book B．Dancing C．Space 30．Which is the best title (题目) for the fourth notice? A．Let’s eat! B．Let’s cook! C．Let’s teach! 第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答最后小题。 Meg is excited all summer long. She is going to school this autumn. Now Meg is in Mum’s car. They are on the way to her school. “What will my school life be like?” Meg asks. “You will have more lessons every day. ” Mum says. “Can I play games at school?” Meg asks. “Yes, you can. You will make many new friends and you can play games with them. ” Mum says. “I love swimming. Do you think there are students having the same hobby?” Meg goes on. “Maybe (可能). You can also try singing, dancing or playing ball games,” Mum says. Meg is happy after hearing what Mum says. She is ready for her new school life. A．She will be a student in Grade 7. B．You will learn a lot of helpful things. C．Different students have different hobbies. D．Because doing sports is more important to you. E．You will enjoy yourself at school. 31． 32． 33． 34． 35．Do you like your junior high school life? Why? (不超过15个单词) 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分) 阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。 Sally is an 8-year-old girl. She likes 36 very much. She thinks they are people’s friends. Of all the animals, 37 are her favourite. And she goes to the 38 to see them every month. Today, Sally goes to the zoo with her parents by bus. When they arrive there, she runs to the pandas’ house 39 . There are 40 pandas at the zoo. They are Lucy and Lily. They look 41 and cute. Their favourite food is 42 . Sally can’t 43 any food to the pandas because it’s the rule of the zoo. But when Sally gets to the pandas’ house, she 44 lots of people talking in front of the house. And it’s a little noisy. “What’s wrong 45 the pandas?” Sally asks anxiously (焦急地). “Oh! Don’t worry, little girl. The pandas are 46 ,” an old woman answers. Then Sally looks into the house. Lucy and Lily are in the house. They are 47 with a ball. And Sally also 48 another panda in it. “Who is it?” she asks. “It’s Peter. It 49 another zoo,” a man says. “Next year, you may see a small panda here.” “A small panda! I 50 that,” Sally says happily. 36．A．things B．pages C．robots D．animals 37．A．pandas B．tigers C．rabbits D．egrets 38．A．park B．zoo C．shop D．school 39．A．quickly B．quietly C．slowly D．early 40．A．one B．two C．three D．four 41．A．slim B．sick C．funny D．long 42．A．bamboo B．carrot C．cabbage D．apple 43．A．look B．lend C．feed D．teach 44．A．spends B．smells C．sees D．feels 45．A．from B．with C．as D．for 46．A．friendly B．bad C．healthy D．dangerous 47．A．playing B．singing C．dancing D．making 48．A．finds B．misses C．improves D．sounds 49．A．thinks of B．comes from C．hears of D．learns from 50．A．show B．watch C．love D．stay 第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次 each other, he, play, be, she, football Do you know the boy? 51 name is Nick. He is six. He’s in China with his parents. He loves sports. He likes to do difficult movements. He can play football very well. He has three 52 . He wants 53 a football star. His friend Bill is funny and strong. He likes 54 basketball. They always play it every week. They are different, but they love and help 55 . B:阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。 Jack’s good 56 (朋友) is Emily. They like insects (昆虫) because they are 57 (感兴趣的) in them. They like to go 58 (在……外面) to have fun. They live 59 (在……对面) from a park, and it’s a great place for them to find 60 (某物) exciting. They often watch birds, and collect flowers and take 61 (照片). Jack wants to be a 62 (老师) in the future. He doesn’t like geography because it’s 63 (无聊的). Emily wants to be a 64 (歌手). They usually do their 65 (家庭作业) together. 第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。 Hobbies make our lives more colorful. They help us 66 (relax). After a busy day, spending time on a hobby 67 (usual) makes us happy. For example, reading a good book helps us get away from our 68 (problem). Hobbies also help us learn. If we like 69 (take) photos, we will learn new knowledge about it. Also, hobbies like gardening can teach 70 (we) about plants. We can not only learn about how to take care of them, 71 also get beautiful flowers. What’s more, hobbies help us make friends. When we join 72 club or group, we meet new people. Often, our interests may be like 73 (they) interests. When we play basketball 74 our teammates, strong friendships grow. There 75 (be) many benefits of having hobbies. So let’s get some hobbies and have a good time! 第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分) 76．假如你是Helen，你家有一个农场。请你根据下表中的内容，向你的同班同学介绍你家的农场。 My farm a beautiful farm; in the countryside (乡下) Animals: cows, ducks, rabbits, horses… Vegetables: potatoes… Plants: flowers… Activities: … ... 要求：(1)包含表中所给信息，可适当发挥；(2)条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范；(3)60词左右。短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数。 I’m Helen. My family has a big and beautiful farm. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。Do Peter and leave? We like to play soccer and basketball. No, Peter likes to play chess and you how he likes to play the guitar. Do Peter and leave? We like to play soccer, e and basketball. No, Peter likes to play chess and you how he likes to play the guitar. Listen to the next question. Last week, twenty five new animals came to sunshine zoo. Really, let's go and watch them. Last week, twenty five new animals came to . sunshine zoo. Really, lets go and watch them. Listen to the next question. Let's go to the zoo, mike. I want to see the lions. but I don't like lions. I want to see the tigers. Let's go to the zoo, mike. I want to see the lions. but I don't like lions. I want to see the tigers. Listen to the next question. This is White. What is the building there with six floors? Oh, it's the science and art building. This is White. What is the building there with six floors? Oh, it's the science and art building. Listen to the next question. Lucy, how many art classes do you have a week? Only one. It's on wednesday. Lucy, how many art classes do . you have a week? Only one. It's on wednesday. Listen to the next question. 六妹，what are you doing? I'm buying some flowers for two sweeping day. Is tom sweeping day a festival? yes. IT is an important festival . in china. When is the term sweeping day? Is around the April fifth. What do people usually do on this day? They usually visit the tomes, tidy up the tomes and put some flowers there. 刘妹，what are you doing? I'm buying some flowers for a two sweeping day. Is tom sweeping day of festival? Yes, IT is an important festival in china. When is the term sweeping day? Is around April fifth. What do people usually do on this day? They usually visit the tomes, tidy up the tomes and put some flowers there. Listen to the next question. Hi Diana. What do you want to do? I want to go shopping. My parents started home today. Where are they? They are at work. They have no time to go shopping. What your parents do. My father is a cook and my mother is a nurse. Who is this boy? Is he your brother? No. he is my cousin. He wants to help me do some shopping. Hi Diana, what do you want to do? I want to go shopping. My parents started home today. Where are they? They are at work. They have no time to go shopping. What your parents do. My father is a cook and my mother is a nurse. Who is this boy? Is he your brother? No, he is my cousin. He wants to help me do some shopping. Listen to the next . question. Hello, boys and girls. I'm july. I mean, the chess club of our school. I like to play chess very much. If you enjoy playing chess, you come join us. We need three boys and full girls. Our club is on the third floor of the art building. The building is behind the dinning hall. After school, our club will be open from four to six. You can make friends here, and we often play chess with the old men in the park car week. If you want to be one of us, you can call eight four six seven five zero two. Hello, boys and girls, i'm july. I'm in the chess club of our school. I like to play chess very much. If you enjoy playing chess, you can join us. We need three boys and four girls. Our club is on the third floor, the art building, the building is behind the dinning hall. After school, our club will be open from four to six. You can make friends here, and we often play just with the old men in the park cat weekends if you want to be one of us, you can call eight four, six, seven, five zero two. 听力部分到此结束。 保密★启用前 2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（金华市专用） 英 语 （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________ 考生注意： 1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 4.考试难度：0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型] 参考答案 题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 答案 B B B B B C B B A C 题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 答案 A C B B A C B C D B 题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 答案 A C B C A B A B C B 题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 答案 D A B A B C A C C B 题号 46 47 48 49 50 答案 C A A B C 1．B 【原文】A: Do Peter and Liu Hui like to play soccer and basketball? B: No. Peter likes to play chess, and Liu Hui likes to play the guitar. 2．B 【原文】W: Last week, twenty-five new animals came to Sunshine Zoo. M: Really? Let’s go and watch them. 3．B 【原文】W: Let’s go to the zoo, Mike. I want to see the lions. M: But I don’t like lions. I want to see the tigers. 4．B 【原文】A: Mrs White, what is the building there with six floors? B: Oh, it’s the science and art building. 5．B 【原文】A: Lucy, how many art classes do you have a week? B: Only one. It’s on Wednesday. 6．C 7．B 【原文】M: Liu Mei, what are you doing? W: I’m buying some flowers for Tomb-sweeping Day. M: Is Tomb-sweeping Day a festival? W: Yes. It is an important festival in China. M: When is the Tomb-sweeping Day? W: It’s around April the 5th. M: What do people usually do on this day? W: They usually visit the tombs, tidy up the tombs and put some flowers there. 8．B 9．A 10．C 【原文】M: Hi, Diana! What do you want to do? W: I want to go shopping. My parents aren’t at home today. M: Where are they? W: They are at work. They have no time to go shopping. M: What do your parents do? W: My father is a cook. And my mother is a nurse. M: Who is this boy? Is he your brother? W: No, he is my cousin. He wants to help me do some shopping. 11．A 12．C 13．B 14．B 15．A 【原文】 Hello, boys and girls. I’m Julie. I’m in the chess club of our school. I like to play chess very much. If you enjoy playing chess, you can join us. We need 3 boys and 4 girls. Our club is on the third floor of the art building. The building is behind the dining hall. After school, our club will be open from 4:00 to 6:00. You can make friends here and we often play chess with the old men in the park at weekends. If you want to be one of us, you can call 846-7502. 16．C 17．B 18．C 本文介绍了作者的家庭树结构，包括祖父母、父母、叔叔、姑姑以及堂兄弟姐妹之间的关系和年龄信息。 16．细节理解题。根据“Bob is my grandpa and Lily is my grandma.”以及家庭树结构可知，Bob是作者的祖父，所以①对应A；根据“Uncle Jack is 36. He and Aunt Mary have a son and a daughter. They are Dove and Jane.”以及家庭树结构可知，叔叔Jack有一个儿子和女儿，他们是Dove和Jane，所以②对应C；根据“Uncle Sam is 39. He has a son.”以及家庭树结构可知，叔叔Sam有一个儿子Jim，所以③对应B。故选C。 17．细节理解题。根据“I have a sister.”可知，作者有一个妹妹；根据“Uncle Sam is 39. He has a son.”以及家庭树结构可知，叔叔Sam有一个儿子Jim。因此Dove的堂兄弟姐妹包括：Sam的儿子Jim（1个）、Eric（1个）、Eric的妹妹（1个），共三人。故选B。 18．细节理解题。根据“Bob is my grandpa”可知，Bob是Eric的祖父，因此Eric是Bob的孙子（grandson），不是儿子（son），C错误。故选C。 19．D 20．B 21．A 22．C 本文介绍了不同国家的人们是如何度过新年前夜的。 19．细节理解题。根据“In Spain (西班牙), in the evening, people come together to the streets with their families and friends.”可知，在西班牙，人们在街道上庆祝新年。故选D。 20．细节理解题。根据“In Japan, people eat noodles on New Year’s Eve. This food means longevity (长寿). Early the next morning, some families climb Mount Fuji. There they watch the first sunrise (日出) of the new year.”可知，日本人喜欢欣赏新年的第一次日出。故选B。 21．细节理解题。根据“In England, some people spend the evening at home with their family, or have a party with friends at their house.”可知，英国人举办派对来迎接新年。故选A。 22．最佳标题题。通读全文可知，本文介绍了不同国家的人们是如何度过新年前夜的，C项“不同国家的新年前夜”符合最佳标题。故选C。 23．B 24．C 25．A 26．B 本文主要讲述了在Judy生日当天，父母通过谜语的形式让她寻找生日礼物，展现了父母对Judy特别的爱以及寻找生日礼物这一有趣过程。 23．细节理解题。根据“Today is the fifth day of July. It is Judy’s birthday.”可知，今天是七月五日，是Judy的生日，所以Judy的生日在七月五日。故选B。 24．词句猜测题。根据“Her parents are looking at her and smiling.”以及后文父母为Judy准备生日礼物等温馨场景可推测，父母看着她时脸上是带着友好的表情，“smiling”意思是“微笑”。故选C。 25．推理判断题。根据谜语：“第一个字母在‘dear’中但不在‘pear’中”，比较两个单词，dear有d，pear没有d，所以第一个字母是d；第二个字母在‘red’中但不在‘bed’中，red有r，bed没有r，所以第二个字母是r；第三个字母在‘bus’中但不在‘car’中，bus有u，car没有u，所以第三个字母是u；最后一个字母在‘home’和‘music’中都出现，两个单词共同的字母有m，结合前面得到的三个字母d、r、u，可组成单词drum（鼓），因此礼物是鼓。故选A。 26．最佳标题题。文章主要围绕Judy生日时父母通过谜语让她寻找生日礼物展开，所以最佳标题是“Judy’s Birthday Gift”（Judy的生日礼物）。故选B。 27．A 28．B 29．C 30．B 本文是一篇应用文，包含四则俱乐部招募通知，分别介绍了读书、舞蹈、太空探索和烹饪俱乐部的活动时间、联系方式与内容，旨在吸引学生参与课外活动，丰富校园生活。 27．细节理解题。根据“Book Club! Our Club!...What do you do on Sunday afternoon? Join our book club...It is open from 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.”可知，读书俱乐部周日下午开放，故选A。 28．细节理解题。根据“Shall we dance?...Call Jay at 13812808079.”可知，想跳舞可联系Jay，故选B。 29．细节理解题。根据“Space Club! Super Club!...Do you want to learn more about spaceships? Do you want to know more science knowledge...”可知，喜欢科学知识可去太空俱乐部，故选C。 30．最佳标题题。根据第四则通知“Do you want to cook? Join us! Learn to cook!”可知，这则通知的主题是学习烹饪，最佳标题是“Let’s cook!”，故选B。 31．A 32．B 33．E 34．C 35．Yes, because it is full of new challenges and fun. (答案合理即可) 本文讲述了梅格对上学的期待。在去学校的路上，她与妈妈对话，询问学校生活的样子。妈妈告诉她将会学习更多有用的知识、结交朋友、享受学校生活，并提到同学们会有不同的爱好。 31．根据“She is going to school this autumn.”可知，她将去上学，因此将会是七年级的学生。A项“她将是七年级的学生”符合语境，故选A。 32．根据“You will have more lessons every day.”可知，你每天将有更多的课，因此你会学到很多东西，B项“你将学到很多有用的东西”符合语境，故选B。 33．根据“You will make many new friends and you can play games with them.”可知，你会交很多新朋友，你可以和他们一起做游戏，因此你会玩得高兴。E项“你在学校会玩得很开心的”符合语境，故选E。 34．根据““I love swimming. Do you think there are students having the same hobby?” Meg goes on.”可知，此处回答有关于爱好的情况，C项“不同的学生有不同的爱好”符合语境，故选C。 35．开放性试题，言之合理即可。参考答案为Yes, because it is full of new challenges and fun. 36．D 37．A 38．B 39．A 40．B 41．C 42．A 43．C 44．C 45．B 46．C 47．A 48．A 49．B 50．C 本文主要介绍了8岁女孩萨莉的一次动物园之行。 36．她非常喜欢动物。 things事物；pages页码；robots机器人；animals动物。根据“Of all the animals”可知，此处指动物。故选D。 37．在所有动物中，熊猫是她的最爱。 pandas熊猫；tigers老虎；rabbits兔子；egrets白鹭。根据“she runs to the pandas house...”可知，她跑向熊猫馆，说明熊猫是她的最爱。故选A。 38．她每个月都会去动物园看它们。 park公园；zoo动物园；shop商店；school学校。根据“Sally goes to the zoo with her parents by bus.”可知，看动物的地点是动物园。故选B。 39．当他们到达那里时，她快速地跑向熊猫馆。 quickly快地；quietly安静地；slowly慢地；early早的。根据“she runs to the pandas’ house...”可知，此处指她快速地跑向熊猫馆。故选A。 40．这个动物园里有两只熊猫。 one一；two二；three三；four四。根据“They are Lucy and Lily.”可知，Sally已知在动物园的是两只熊猫Lucy和Lily。故选B。 41．它们看起来有趣又可爱。 slim苗条的；sick生病的；funny有趣的；long长的。根据“They look...and cute.”可知，熊猫看起来有趣又可爱。故选C。 42．它们最喜欢的食物是竹子。 bamboo竹子；carrot胡萝卜；cabbage卷心菜；apple苹果。根据常识可知，熊猫的最爱食物是竹子。故选A。 43．萨莉不能给熊猫喂任何食物，因为这是动物园的规定。 look看；lend借；feed喂食；teach教。根据“Sally can’t...any food to the pandas because it’s the rule of the zoo.”可知，feed food to sb.“给某人喂食”。故选C。 44．但是当萨莉到达熊猫馆时，她看到很多人正在馆前交谈。 spends花费；smells闻起来；sees看；feels感觉。根据“she...lots of people talking in front of the house.”可知，see sb. doing sth.“看到某人正在做某事”。故选C。 45．“熊猫们怎么了？”萨莉焦急地问道。 from来自；with和；as作为；for为了。根据“ What’s wrong...the pandas?”可知，What’s wrong with sb./sth.?“某人/某物怎么了？”。故选B。 46．“哦！别担心，小姑娘。熊猫们很健康。”一位老奶奶回答道。 friendly友好的；bad坏的；healthy健康的；dangerous危险的。根据“ Don’t worry, little girl. The pandas are...”可知，老奶奶说别担心，说明熊猫是健康的。故选C。 47．它们正在玩球。 playing玩；singing唱歌；dancing跳舞；making制作。根据“They are...with a ball.”可知，play with a ball“玩球”。故选A。 48．萨莉还在里面发现了另一只熊猫。 finds发现；misses错过；improves提高；sounds听起来。根据“And Sally also...another panda in it.”可知，此处指萨莉还在里面发现了另一只熊猫。故选A。 49．“它来自另一个动物园。”一个男人说道。 thinks of思考；comes from来自；hears of听说；learns from向……学习。根据“It...another zoo”可知，它来自另一个动物园。故选B。 50．“一只小熊猫！我太喜欢了！” 萨莉开心地说道。 show展示；watch观看；love爱；stay停留。根据“Sally says happily.”可知，萨莉开心地说道，说明她很喜欢。故选C。 51．His 52．footballs 53．to be 54．playing 55．each other 本文主要介绍了Nick和他的朋友Bill的个人信息和爱好。 51．他的名字叫Nick。根据“Do you know the boy?”以及“...name...”可知，空处指“他的”，备选词he符合，空处需he的形容词性物主代词his修饰名词name，放句首时，首字母大写。故填His。 52．他有三个足球。根据“He can play football very well. He has three...”可知，他踢足球踢得好，他有三个“足球”，备选词football符合句意，数词three后名词复数。故填footballs。 53．他想成为一名足球明星。根据“He wants...a football star.”可知，他想成为一名足球明星。备选词be符合。want to do sth.表示“想要做某事”，故空处需不定式to be，故填to be。 54．他喜欢打篮球。根据“He likes...basketball.”可知，他喜欢打篮球。备选词play符合。like doing sth.表示“喜欢做某事”，故空处需动名词。故填playing。 55．他们不同，但他们互相爱护、互相帮助。根据“They are different, but they love and help...”及备选词可知，空处指“彼此”，备选词each other符合。故填each other。 56．friend 57．interested 58．outside 59．across 60．something 61．photos/pictures 62．teacher 63．boring 64．singer 65．homework 本文是记叙文。主要讲述了Jack和他的好朋友Emily的共同爱好、生活环境，以及两人的未来理想和日常习惯。 56．Jack的好朋友是Emily。根据汉语提示“朋友”，对应的英文单词是“friend”；由“is”可知主语是单数。故填friend。 57． 他们喜欢昆虫，因为他们对昆虫感兴趣。“感兴趣的”对应的英文是“interested”，“be interested in”是固定短语，意为“对……感兴趣”。故填interested。 58． 他们喜欢去外面玩耍。“在……外面”对应的英文是“outside”，“go outside”表示“去外面”。故填outside。 59．他们住在公园对面，那是他们找到有趣事物的好地方。“在……对面”对应的英文是“across”，“live across from”是固定短语，意为“住在……对面”。故填across。 60．他们住在公园对面，那是他们找到有趣事物的好地方。“某物”对应的英文是“something”，用于肯定句中修饰形容词时，形容词后置。故填something。 61．他们经常观察鸟类、收集花朵并拍照。“照片”对应的英文是“photo/picture”，“take photos/pictures”是固定短语，意为“拍照”，这里用复数形式表泛指。故填photos/pictures。 62．Jack未来想成为一名老师。“老师”对应的英文是“teacher”，由“a”可知用单数形式。故填teacher。 63．他不喜欢地理，因为它很无聊。“无聊的”对应的英文是“boring”，用来描述事物（geography）的特点。故填boring。 64．Emily想成为一名歌手。“歌手”对应的英文是“singer”，由“a”可知用单数形式。故填singer。 65．他们通常一起做家庭作业。“家庭作业”对应的英文是“homework”，是不可数名词。故填homework。 66．relax/to relax 67．usually 68．problems 69．to take/taking 70．us 71．but 72．a 73．their 74．with 75．are 本文主要介绍了爱好给我们带来的好处。 66．它们帮助我们放松。help sb. (to) do sth.“帮助某人做某事”，是固定用法。故填relax/to relax。 67．忙碌了一天之后，把时间花在一个爱好上通常会让我们很开心。此处应用副词修饰动词makes，应用usually“通常”。故填usually。 68．例如，读一本好书可以帮助我们摆脱我们的问题。根据“our”可知，此处应用复数名词problems，表泛指。故填problems。 69．如果我们喜欢拍照，我们会学到关于它的新知识。like to do sth./like doing sth.“喜欢做某事”，动词短语。故填to take/taking。 70．此外，像园艺这样的爱好可以教会我们关于植物的知识。此处应用we的宾格us，作动词teach的宾语。故填us。 71．我们不仅可以学习如何照顾它们，还可以得到美丽的花朵。not only…but also…“不但……而且……”，是固定用法。故填but。 72．当我们加入一个俱乐部或团体时，我们会认识新的人。此处泛指一个俱乐部，空后club是以辅音音素开头，空处应用不定冠词a。故填a。 73．通常，我们的兴趣可能和他们的兴趣一样。此处应用they的形容词性物主代词，作定语，修饰名词interests。故填their。 74．当我们和队友一起打篮球时，深厚的友谊就会成长。play sth. with sb.“和某人一起玩……”，是固定用法。故填with。 75．有爱好有很多好处。there be句型遵循“就近原则”，句子时态为一般现在时，空后为“many benefits”，be动词用are。故填are。 76．例文： I’m Helen. My family has a big and beautiful farm. It is in the countryside. There are many animals here, like cows, horses, rabbits and ducks. We grow potatoes, tomatoes and carrots. Colorful flowers grow near the house.   I often help feed animals and water vegetables. Sometimes I collect eggs and ride horses. On weekends, my friends come to play with rabbits. I love the fresh air and peaceful life here. Welcome to my farm! [总体分析] ①题材：这是一篇材料作文，为记叙文。 ②时态：一般现在时。 ③提示：需包含农场位置、动植物种类和日常活动。 [写作步骤] 第一步，介绍农场位置和环境； 第二步，描述动物和植物种类； 第三步，说明日常活动； 第四步，表达感受并发出邀请。 [亮点词汇] ①in the countryside 在乡下 ②colorful flowers 五彩鲜花 ③feed animals 喂养动物 ④fresh air 新鲜空气 [高分句型] There are many animals here, like cows, horses, rabbits and ducks.（There be句型） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2025-2026学年七年级上册外研版期末练习卷（金华卷） 英语·答题卡 姓名： 准考证号 条码粘贴处 缺考标记 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 考生禁止填涂 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的条码粘贴处]的方框内。 缺考标记！只能 3. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 由监考老师负 4. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 责用黑色字迹 5. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 的签字笔填涂。 6 填涂样例正确■]错误-][√][×] 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 第一部分（听力）（第1-5每小题1分，6-15每小题1.5分，共20分） 1[A][B][C][D] 6.[A][B][C][D] 11.A][B][C1[D1 2.[A][B][C][D] 7.A][BI[C1[D] 12.A1[B][CJ[D1 3A][B1[C1[D] 8.[A][B][C][D] 13.[AJ[B1[C1[D1 4.[A][B][C][D] 9.[A][B][C][D] 14.[A][B][C][D] 5.[A][B][C][D] 10.[AJ[B1[CJ[D] 15.AJ[B][C][D1 第二部分（阅读理解)（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 16.A1[B1[CJ[D1 21A[B][C1[D] 26.[A][BJ[C][D] 31.[AJ[B1[c1[D] 17.A1[B1IC1[D1 22.A1[B1IC1[D1 27.[A][B1[C1[DJ 32.[AJ[B1[C1[D1 18.[A][B][C][D] 23[A][B][C][D] 28.[A][B][C1[DJ 33.AJ[B][C1[D1 19.[A][B][C][D] 24.[A1[B1IC][D] 29.[A][BJ[C1[D1 34.[AI[B][C][D] 20.[A][B][C][D] 25.A][B]【C][DJ 30.AJ[B][C][D1 35 第三部分第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 36.A1[B1[C1[D1 41.A1IB1[C][D1 46.[A][B][C][D] 37.AJ[B1[C][D] 42[A][B][C][D] 47.A][B][CJ[D] 38.A][B][C][D] 43.[AJ[B][C][D] 48.A][B1[C1ID1 39.AJ[B1[C][D] 44.[A][B][C][D] 49.[A][B][C][D] 40.[A][B][C][D] 45.[A][B][C][D] 50.[A][B][C][D] 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形迈框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A:51. 52. 53. 54 55. B:56. 57. 58. 59 60. 61. 62. 63. 64 6的 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 66. 67. 68. 69 70. 71. 72. 73. 74 75. 第四部分语言运用（共一节，满分20分） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！