天津市新华中学2025-2026学年高三上学期第二次月考英语试卷

标签:
普通文字版答案
切换试卷
2025-12-31
| 17页
| 60人阅读
| 1人下载

内容正文:

2025-2026学年度第1学期高三(英语学科)第2次质量测验 2025年12月 第一部分:听力(共两节,满分20分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When did the meeting begin? A. At 9:00 B. At 9:15 C. At 9:30 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a concert hall. B. In a restaurant. C. In a shop. 3. How will the speakers get home? A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By car. 4. What was the weather like during the woman’s holiday? A. Sunny B. Rainy C. Cloudy. 5. What does the man mean? A. He will meet the woman on Friday. B. He is scheduled to move house on the 13th. C. He would like to invite the woman to his house. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8小题。 6. What did the man do before? A. He worked as a teacher in a commercial school. B. He talked students into attending his school. C. He was in charge of the school paper. 7. What does the woman think is useful for the man to get the job? A. His education. B. His personality. C. His working experience. 8. What does the woman ask the man to do in the end? A. Come to work. B. Wait for further notice. C. Make a phone call to her. 听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11小题。 9. What kind of music does the man like? A. Classical. B. Country. C. Rock. 10. How many records has Zed Hawks sold? A.13 million. B.20 million. C.30 million. 11. How did Zed Hawks behave on TV last night? A. He talked much to his fans. B. He said a lot about his concert. C. He acted badly towards the hostess. 听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15小题。 12. What is the talk mainly about? A. Travel safety. B. Transportation. C. Traffic regulations. 13. How can people know about the bad areas in a city? A. By talking to local people. B. By asking the taxi driver. C. By consulting the hotel. 14. How does the speaker suggest listeners get to the hotel at night? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car. 15. What should the listeners do if their cars are hit from behind? A. Telephone the garage. B. Stop to have a check immediately. C. Drive to public areas and call the police. 第二部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第一节:单项填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —I really can’t thank you enough, sir. — _________ A. That’s the most I could do B. No problem C. I’m glad to have been of help D. With pleasure 2. The panda is ________ China, where it serves as a symbol of the nation’s rich and diverse wildlife. A. native to B. home to C. cruel to D. grateful to 3. He did not regret saying what he did but felt that he _________ it differently. A. could express B. would express C. could have expressed D. must have expressed 4. Our office supplies ______ soon. We must make a purchase right away before there’s none left. A. have run out B. are running out C. have been run out D. are being run out 5. —What’s the common ______ of dealing with youth crime in your country? —Generally, education comes first. A. practice B. procedure C. performance D. process 6. It was reported that a 90-year-old woman ______ under a destroyed house in the earthquake was saved alive at last. A. had been trapped B. being trapped C. was trapped D. trapped 7. I prefer a college in Yunnan to ______ in Sichuan because I like the climate in Yunnan. A. it B. that C. one D. this 8. ______ is most significant is the way ______ people have worked in harmony with nature to make these terraces and grow rice. A. What; in which B. That; in which C. What; which D. Which; that 9. Thanks to the effort made by the government, many farmers in China now have ______ to basic health care. A. entrance B. access C. introduction D. devotion 10. It will be less than three months ______ the first English College Entrance Examination in Tianjin in 2026 comes. A. when B. as C. before D. since 11. True happiness does not ______ the possession of money, but the joy of spiritual satisfaction. A. lie in B. contribute to C. result in D. add to 12. We are supposed to exercise regularly ______ our age and working style. A. in charge of B. instead of C. in place of D. regardless of 13. I am convinced that the print media are usually more ______ and more reliable than the Internet. A. shallow B. ridiculous C. urgent D. accurate 14. —Mum, shall I watch the TV program Singer 2024 today? —______. You have so much homework to do! A. Out of question B. Forget it C. Go ahead D. That’s right 15. Hurricane Sandy, one of the biggest storms ever, hit the East Coast of the US on Oct. 29, ______ the transportation there. A. shut down B. to shut down C. shutting down D. having shut down 第二节:完形填空(共20小题:每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从16~35各题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 In a world where challenges often define us, true beauty and artistry can be expressed in an unexpected way. Since the age of three, Hill had dreamed of becoming a dancer. “The only thing that I loved was dance,” she told CBS News. That ambition nearly ____16____ in 2010. Hill, then a 17-year-old high school senior in Pacific Grove, a small city in California, was in an accident that left her paralyzed from the ____17____ down. For most people, that would have ____18____ any hope of a dancing career. For Hill, it was just the beginning. ____19____ being an obstacle, her wheelchair empowered her. “I wanted to ____20____ to my community — and to myself — that I was still ‘normal’.” Hill danced in her wheelchair alongside her non-disabled school dance team. “Half of my body was ____21____ from me,” Hill told the press, “and it definitely took a lot of learning and ____22____.” After graduation, Hill determined to ____23____ her dance network to include women who had ____24____ various spinal cord (脊髓) injuries but shared her _____25_____. “It was such an amazing experience.” Hoping to reach more people in a _____26_____ city, Hill moved to Los Angeles in 2014 and formed the Rollettes. “I want to _____27_____ the stereotype (模式化的思想) of wheelchair users”. Dancing on wheels, the Rollettes discovered, can be just as fast-paced, artful, and fulfilling as the foot-based _____28_____. In dance competitions, they rocked their bodies to the _____29_____, and struck poses in dynamic routines. They’re having fun, and as the audiences’ reactions _____30_____, the fun is infectious. Hill has _____31_____ what many of us never will: her childhood dream. But the Rollettes have helped her find something else equally _____32_____. Every year she holds a dance camp for wheelchair users to help them find their _____33_____ strength they’ve never seen before. In 2019, 173 participants who used to lead restricted lives attended her camp. For many, it was the first time they’d had a sense of social _____34_____. Hill’s experience proves that limitations are not defined by _____35_____ conditions but by the mindset we choose to adopt. 16. A. initiated B. ended C. withdrew D. quit 17. A. head B. knee C. waist D. ankle 18. A. strengthened B. destroyed C. sharpened D. dominated 19. A. In terms of B. Apart from C. By virtue of D. Far from 20. A. ensure B. justify C. prove D. classify 21. A. taken away B. given away C. put away D. worn away 22. A. patience B. celebrity C. absence D. anxiety 23. A. absorb B. attract C. expose D. expand 24. A. subscribed B. suffered C. submitted D. settled 25. A. definition B. determination C. dimension D. negotiation 26. A. riper B. remoter C. larger D. fresher 27. A. break through B. break up C. break in D. break down 28. A. operation B. variety C. charity D. exchange 29. A. beats B. instructions C. chaos D. directions 30. A. indicate B. decide C. illustrate D. conclude 31. A. determined B. compensated C. attained D. adored 32. A. conventional B. regretful C. controversial D. rewarding 33. A. main B. external C. inner D. domestic 34. A. majority B. stability C. quantity D. identity 35. A. mental B. intellectual C. physical D. universal 第三部分:阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Short Story Competition The V. S. Pritchett Short Story Prize The V. S. Pritchett Short Story Prize held by the Royal Society of Literature (RSL) annually is currently open for entries. Entries from those over 18 years old who are resident in the UK are welcome. Closes: 20 August Word limit: 2,000 — 4,000 words Entry fee: Free Prize: £1,000 and publication in Prospect online The Tasmanian Writers’ Prize Since 2009, Forty South Publishing has awarded writers the Tasmanian Writers’ Prize for the most outstanding short story submitted into this competition. Entries from Australian and New Zealand residents are welcome. Closes: 15 February Word limit: 3,000 — 4,000 words Entry fee: $20 Prize: $500 and publication in Forty South The Nature Writing Prize Created by the Nature Conservancy Australia, the Nature Writing Prize is open for submissions. Writers,18 years and older, are invited to write an essay to explore their relationship and interaction with the Australian landscape. Closes: 19 February Word limit: 3,000 — 5,000 words Entry fee: $25 Prize: $7,500 and publication in Griffith Review online The Stringybark Open Short Story Award Stringybark Publishing is asking writers to enter a short story into the Stringybark Open Short Story Award. The judges are looking for a story written for an audience of 16 years and older. Closes: 31 January Word limit: 1,500 — 1,800 words Entry fee:$14 for 1 story, $26 for 2 stories, $36 for 3 stories (max) Prize: Over $1,000 in cash and books 36. What do we know about the competition held by the RSL? A. It is free for participants. B. Its deadline is 19 February. C. It is open for writers across the world. D. Its entries are for readers of 18 years or older. 37. Which is TRUE about the Tasmanian Writers’ Prize? A. It has an entry fee of $25. B. It has a history of 20 years. C. Its winner can get his story published. D. It welcomes entries from residents in the UK. 38. What is the word limit for stories exploring the human-nature relationship? A. 1,500 — 1,800 words. B. 2,000 — 4,000 words. C. 3,000 — 4,000 words D. 3,000 — 5,000 words. 39. Which competition awards its winners cash and books? A. The Nature Writing Prize. B. The Tasmanian Writers’ Prize. C. The V. S. Pritchett Short Story Prize. D. The Stringybark Open Short Story Award. 40. How many competitions have age requirement for participants? A. 1 B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. B In my first year living in Los Angeles, I worked as a birthday-party clown. which made me struggle with my identity. I saw myself as a filmmaker, but everyone else only saw me as a clown. This job itself involved hiding my true self; I wore makeup and sometimes even masks to cover my face. For some parties, I had to dress as specific characters. The company would drop off costumes in a trash bag at a CVS parking lot, which felt like a bad drug deal. Instead of getting drugs, I received a smelly costume that had been worn by many failed actors. I would be told to dress as “Mickey Mouse” or “Sponge Bob Square Pants,” but since those are trademarked characters, I had to go as “Ricky Mouse” or “Sponge Guy Short Pants.” One night, I was given a costume to be Batman. At the time, I wore a big mustache, which I thought would be a problem for parents. I decided not to shave because I didn’t want to admit I was more of a clown than an artist. The next day, I parked far from the party site, so the kids wouldn’t see Batman arriving in my PT Cruiser. As I walked towards the party, I worried that my lack of surprise would ruin the experience. As I got closer, I regretted not shaving. When the kids finally saw my face, they burst into laughter, and I felt embarrassed. However, their laughter soon turned into cheers and applause, which surprised me. I started to feel warm and supported, something new for me. Inspired, I decided to make an entrance and began running towards the party, which made the kids cheer even louder. In that moment, I truly felt like Batman. When I arrived, the birthday boy’s dad laughed and said, “I told you, son. Batman has a mustache.” I was confused until I saw the birthday cake, which featured a Batman with a thick black mustache just like mine. The kids had initially laughed at the cake, insisting that Batman didn’t have a mustache, but the dad insisted he just shaves it for movies. My mustache accidentally helped convince the kids that I was the real Batman. That day, I realized I might not have been the hero they expected, but I was the hero they needed. I struggled with my identity as a filmmaker or a clown, but at that moment, I knew I was making a difference in those kids’ lives. 41. Why did the author struggle with his identity while working as a clown? A. The author was embarrassed by his clown costume. B. The author felt defined by others’ perceptions. C. The author struggled with the job’s physical demands. D. The author had difficulty balancing two different roles. 42. How did the author feel about wearing the costume provided by the company? A. Disappointed and angry. B. Annoyed and frightened. C. Curious and amused. D. Embarrassed and disgusted. 43. Why didn’t the author shave his mustache before the party? A. To maintain a sense of artistic dignity. B. To keep his clown identity covered. C. To preserve the surprise for children. D. To achieve recognition as a clown. 44. What can be learned from paragraph 4 and 5? A. Mistakes can lead to surprising negative outcomes. B. Being yourself can lead to expected acceptance. C. Laughter can transform into genuine support. D. New identity can be beneficial in amazing ways. 45. What does the author mean by saying he was “the hero they needed” in the last paragraph? A. He met their specific character demands. B. He fulfilled their expectations in a unique way. C. He provided a unique experience for them. D. He taught them to accept imperfections. C Psychiatrists (精神病专家), who work with older parents say that maturity can be an asset (资产) in child raising — older parents are more thoughtful, use less physical discipline and spend more time with children. But raising kids takes money and energy, many older parents find themselves balancing their limited financial resources, declining energy and failing health against the growing demands of an active child. Dying and leaving young children is probably the older parents’ biggest and often unspoken fear. Having late-life children, says an economics professor, often means parents, particularly fathers, “end up retiring much later.” For many, retirement becomes an unobtainable dream. Henry Metcalf, a 54-year-old journalist, knows it takes money to raise kids. But he’s also worried that his energy will give out first. Sure, he can still ride bikes with his athletic fifth grader, but he’s learned that, young at heart doesn’t mean young. Lately he’s been taking afternoon naps to keep up his energy.” My body is aging,” says Metcalf, “You can’t get away from that.” Often, older parents hear the ticking of another kind of biological clock. Therapists who work with middle-aged and older parents say fears about aging are nothing to laugh at. “They worry they’ll be mistaken for grandparents, or that they’ll need help getting up out of those little chairs in nursery school.” Says Joann Galst, a New York psychologist. But at the core of those little fears there is often a much bigger one. “that they will not be alive long enough to support and protect their child, ” she says. Many late-life parents, though, say their children came at just the right time. After marrying late and undergoing years of fertility (受孕) treatment, Marilyn Nolen and her husband, Randy, had twins. “We both wanted children,” says Marilyn, who was 55 when she gave birth. The twins have given the couple what they desired for years, “a sense of family.” Kids of older dads are often smarter, happier and more sociable because their fathers are more involved in their lives. “The dads are older, more mature,” says Dr. Silber, “and more ready to focus on parenting.” 46. Why do psychiatrists regard maturity as an asset in child raising? A. Older parents can better balance their resources against children’s demands. B. Older parents are usually more experienced in bringing up their children. C. Older parents are often better prepared financially. D. Older parents can take better care of their children. 47. What does the author mean by saying “For many, retirement becomes an unobtainable dream”? A They have to go on working beyond their retirement age. B. They can’t get full pension unless they work some extra years. C. They can’t obtain the retirement benefits they have dreamed of. D. They are unwilling to retire when they reach their retirement age. 48. The author gives the examples of Henry Metcalf to show that______. A. many people are young in spirit despite their advanced age B. taking afternoon naps is a good way to maintain energy C. older parents tend to be concerned about their aging bodies D. older parents should exercise more to keep up with their athletic children 49. What’s the biggest fear of older parents according to New York psychologist Joann Galst? A. Being laughed at by other people B. Slowing down of their pace of life C. Being mistaken for grandparents D. Approaching of death 50. What do we learn about Marilyn and Randy Nolen? A. They thought they were an example of successful fertility treatment. B. Not until they had the twins did they feel had formed a family. C. They believe that children born of older parents would be smarter. D. Not until they reached middle age did they think of having children. D Anybody can write. I believe it as much as I believe that nobody is boring. Are people writing more? I believe so. There is a lot of writing going on. All kinds of writing — amateur writing, professional writing, creative writing, boring writing, etc. Enthusiastic reader is hardly a thing anymore. Storyteller, published author and productive blogger are words that decorate people’s bio more often. The trend of listing what one is reading has been replaced by listing self-authored articles. Reading is unavoidable. Reading generates the road map for a society’s progress. But then why write? The most substantial reason could be ease of Expression, Record, and Reach. Enabled by present-day technology, the ease of Record (digitally saved forever) and Reach (to readers anywhere in the world) are undoubtedly the more straightforward motivations to write. But ease of Expression? We perhaps partly owe that to technology too. The social shaping (e. g. messaging behaviors) caused by technology has resulted in the breakdown of structures and rules of writing to a great extent, if not entirely, thus freeing up the technique of writing like music and art. Consequently, writing in all forms (short-long), structures (words-graphics-sound), and shapes (books-blogs-posts-tweets-open letters) has appeared like a movement. Writing is a promise, It is a promise to deliver not just pleasure, information, or inspiration; it is a promise to care. Writing can be intrusive (侵扰的). It can even be rude, as Joan Didion puts it in her essay Why I Write. The readers are the victims of the writer’s thoughts and views. But that’s how writers challenge the readers to think, look around and push back. Even after we have managed to ease the disciplinary demands of good literature, it still wouldn’t take the pain away from writing because thinking is the pain point of writing. We have to make things up or think about things we see. One could be as local, raw, and not remain preoccupied with presenting a stylized piece of sentence and still find a platform to write. But let us ensure we don’t ever give up thinking and never make writing completely painless. 51. What phenomenon is described in paragraph 1? A. Writing has become more popular. B. People no longer enjoy reading books. C. Readers are uninterested in others’ reading lists. D Listing self-authored articles is a new form of social networking. 52. How has technology influenced writing? A. It has made writing more structured and formal. B. It has strengthened the bonds between writing and art. C. It has made writing more accessible and diverse. D. It has decreased the number of professional writers. 53. What is the ultimate purpose of writing according to Joan Didion? A. To entertain and amuse readers. B. To deliver the latest information. C. To impress readers with literary skills. D. To inspire readers to form new thoughts. 54. What does the author expect of writing? A. The challenges of thinking should be valued. B. There will be various platforms to choose from. C. There will be more works focusing on pain in life. D. The disciplinary demands of good literature will stay. 55. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A The relationship between reading and writing. B. The influence of technology on writing. C. The various forms and trends of modern writing. D. The reasons and nature of writing in modern society. 第四部分:写作 第一节:阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读短文,并按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 Everyone told me not to bother applying to medical school. People “like me,” just didn’t go to university, let alone become a doctor. I am deafblind. Until the age of 16 I was training on the GB Swimming Team to participate in the London 2012 Paralympics, when in summer 2010 the surgery on my stomach went terribly wrong. I ended up bedridden in hospital for a year and a half, needing to have another 20 stomach surgeries. My swimming career was over. However, it was during that time of being a patient that my experience strengthened my desire to become a doctor. But getting to that point hasn’t been smooth. I had to restart education and life. I studied by myself for my A-levels and attended a special educational needs school for blind students. Against the suggestions of others, I applied to a medical school and unexpectedly got an offer. But just before moving in, I was informed that they had changed their mind. I could have given up at this point. But a determination to give it one last shot led me to apply again. This time I obtained a place at Cardiff School of Medicine, where I’ve become the first deafblind student to be training towards becoming a doctor here in the UK. Life certainly has its ups and downs, but I try to face all the challenges with a positive attitude and a forward focus. I’ve suffered, and continue to suffer a lot of discrimination though. “Imagine you’re a patient. Would you allow a disabled doctor to treat you?” some people once laughed at me. Another time, when I asked someone to speak louder so that I could hear, he walked away and whispered to his friend, “How do you expect an invalid like her to run the NHS (National Health Service)?” It’s discouraging, but I’m continuing to push through. 56. What does the underlined word mean in Paragraph 3? (no more than 5 words) ________________________________________________________________________________________ 57. What led to the end of the author’s swimming career? (no more than 5 words) ________________________________________________________________________________________ 58. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about? (no more than 10 words) ________________________________________________________________________________________ 59. What does the author do in the face of discrimination? (no more than 10 words) ________________________________________________________________________________________ 60. Would you allow a doctor like the author to treat you? Please explain. (no more than 20 words) ________________________________________________________________________________________ 76.第二节:书面表达(满分25分) 61. 圣诞与新年将至,你作为晨光中学的李津,给刚上大学的笔友Chris写一封信,向对方咨询大学专业的相关建议。信的内容包括: 1.向Chris送上节日的祝福与问候并分享自己的新年愿望(考上理想的大学); 2.询问Chris当初选择专业的依据(兴趣、规划等); 3.说明自己目前倾向的专业及选择理由(如兴趣、父母意愿、就业前景等),请对方给出建议。 注意: 1.词数不少于100; 2.可适当补充细节,使内容自然连贯; 3.开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。 Dear Chris, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes, Lijin 2025-2026学年度第1学期高三(英语学科)第2次质量测验 2025年12月 第一部分:听力(共两节,满分20分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When did the meeting begin? A. At 9:00 B. At 9:15 C. At 9:30 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a concert hall. B. In a restaurant. C. In a shop. 3. How will the speakers get home? A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By car. 4. What was the weather like during the woman’s holiday? A. Sunny B. Rainy C. Cloudy. 5. What does the man mean? A. He will meet the woman on Friday. B. He is scheduled to move house on the 13th. C. He would like to invite the woman to his house. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8小题。 6. What did the man do before? A. He worked as a teacher in a commercial school. B. He talked students into attending his school. C. He was in charge of the school paper. 7. What does the woman think is useful for the man to get the job? A. His education. B. His personality. C. His working experience. 8. What does the woman ask the man to do in the end? A. Come to work. B. Wait for further notice. C. Make a phone call to her. 听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11小题。 9. What kind of music does the man like? A. Classical. B. Country. C. Rock. 10. How many records has Zed Hawks sold? A.13 million. B.20 million. C.30 million. 11. How did Zed Hawks behave on TV last night? A. He talked much to his fans. B He said a lot about his concert. C. He acted badly towards the hostess. 听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15小题。 12. What is the talk mainly about? A. Travel safety. B. Transportation. C. Traffic regulations. 13. How can people know about the bad areas in a city? A. By talking to local people. B. By asking the taxi driver. C. By consulting the hotel. 14. How does the speaker suggest listeners get to the hotel at night? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car. 15. What should the listeners do if their cars are hit from behind? A. Telephone the garage. B. Stop to have a check immediately. C. Drive to public areas and call the police. 第二部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第一节:单项填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A 【6题答案】 【答案】D 【7题答案】 【答案】C 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】C 【11题答案】 【答案】A 【12题答案】 【答案】D 【13题答案】 【答案】D 【14题答案】 【答案】B 【15题答案】 【答案】C 第二节:完形填空(共20小题:每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从16~35各题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【16~35题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. C 第三部分:阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. A 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. B B 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. B C 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. D 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. B D 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. A 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. D 第四部分:写作 第一节:阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. A disabled person. 57. A wrong stomach surgery. 58. The author’s struggle to enter medical school. 59. She faces it positively and keeps pushing through. 60. Yes. Because her determination and ability make her a qualified doctor. 76.第二节:书面表达(满分25分) 【61题答案】 【答案】Dear Chris, Christmas and the New Year are drawing near. I send you my best wishes — may your holidays be joyful and your college life go smoothly! My New Year’s wish is to be admitted to my ideal university, which keeps me motivated in my studies. I’m writing to ask for your advice on college majors. What made you choose your current major? Was it your interest, future career planning, or other factors? I’m now leaning towards English literature. I love reading English novels and have a passion for cross-cultural communication. My parents also support it, thinking it has a broad employment prospect. But I’m still hesitant. Could you share your experience and give me some suggestions? Looking forward to your reply! Best wishes, Lijin 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

资源预览图

天津市新华中学2025-2026学年高三上学期第二次月考英语试卷
1
天津市新华中学2025-2026学年高三上学期第二次月考英语试卷
2
天津市新华中学2025-2026学年高三上学期第二次月考英语试卷
3
相关资源
示范课
由于学科网是一个信息分享及获取的平台,不确保部分用户上传资料的 来源及知识产权归属。如您发现相关资料侵犯您的合法权益,请联系学科网,我们核实后将及时进行处理。