七年级英语上学期期末模拟卷02（新教材鲁教版五四学制）

2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末模拟卷01 英 语·参考答案 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 第一部分听力（共4节，满分30分） 【听力答案】 1．A 2．A 3．C 4．A 5．A 6．B 7．A 8．A 9．C 10．B 11．B 12．B 13．B 14．C 15．A 16．A 17．B 18．C 19．C 20．A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. A 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. E 45. B 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5题，每小题1分，满分5分） 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. A 第二节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. D 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. A 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66. easily 67. First 68. for 69. and 70. their 71. to make 72. thankful 73. something 74. a 75. asking 第四部分 写作（共2节，满分35分） 第一节 情景运用（共5题，每小题2分，满分10分） 【参考答案】 76. I am taking notes. 77. How’s the weather? 78.How was your summer vacation? 79. Did you read Little Women? 80.Could you hang up photos? 第二节作文（满分25分） 【参考范文】 Hello, everyone! I am glad to share my last holiday journey with you. Last summer, I traveled to Guilin with my parents. We took a boat ride on the Li River. The mountains there were strange and the water was clear. We also visited Reed Flute Cave, which was full of amazing rock formations. The beautiful scenery made me feel relaxed and happy. I hope I can visit it again next year. 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。Don't eat . in class. Listen to the next . question. Can you play the drums? Listen to the next question. Where did he go yesterday? Listen to the next question. Did you go to the zoo? Listen to the next question. Where's the hotel? Listen to the next question. Does your sister like lions? Jack, no, he doesn't. SHE likes giraffe. Does your sister like lions? jack? No, he doesn't. SHE likes giraffe. Listen to the next question. How long does IT take Frank to go to school every day? IT takes him ten minutes to get to . school on foot. How long . does IT take Frank to go to school every day? IT takes him ten minutes to get to school on foot. Listen to the next question. Is your father reading a newspaper now? Allen, let me see. Oh, no, mom, he is watching T. V. My cousin is reading a newspaper. Is your father reading a newspaper now? Allen, let me see. Oh, no, mom, he is watching T, V. My cousin is reading a newspaper. Listen to the next question. What time do you get up, Julie. at seven o'clock. Then I eat breakfast at seven thirty. What time do . you get up? You at seven o'clock. then I eat breakfast at seven thirty. Listen to the next question. Can you play tennis? rick? No, I can't, but I can play basketball. Can you play tennis? Rick, no, I can't, but I can play basketball. Listen to the next question. Hi jane. How's your day at your new school? It's great, but I am so busy. Why are you so busy? Because I go to the art club twice a week and I practice drawing every day. What club are you in? I am in the science club. You know, it's my favorite subject. Oh, would you like to visit the science museum with you this saturday? Oh, i'd love to. I am interested in science too. What can we see there? There will be all kinds of model plants and robots. That sounds fun. How far is IT from your home to the museum? About three kilometers is not very far. Maybe we can take the bus. How long does IT take by boss? IT takes about fifteen minutes. Then let's meet at your home at seven o'clock. see. Then. hi jane. How's . your day and your new school? It's great, but I am so busy. Why are you so busy? Because I go to the art club twice a week, and I practice drawing every day. What club are you in? I am in the science club. You know, it's my favorite subject. Oh, would you like to visit the science museum with you this saturday? Oh, i'd love to. I am interested in science too. What can we see there? There will be all kinds of model plants and robots. That sounds fun. How far is IT from your home to the museum? About three kilometers is not very far. Maybe we can take the bus. How long does IT take by boss? IT takes about fifteen minutes. Then let's meet at your home at seven o'clock. see. then. Listen to the next . question. Today is sunday. It's nine o'clock in the morning. The White family are all at home. They are all very busy. The grandfather is exercising. The grandmother is reading a newspaper. Mister White brushing his shoes in the bathroom because these shoes are very dirty. mrs. White is a writer. SHE is using her computer to write a book. Their son tom is talking on the phone. He is talking with one of his friends. He loves swimming. He wants to go swimming in a swimming pool with his friends. Their daughter Helen is only three years old. He loves delicious food. She's eating a big ice cream. Today is sunday. It's nine o'clock in the morning. The White family are all at home. They're all very busy. The grandfather is exercising. The grandmother is reading a newspaper. Mr, why is brushing his shoes in the bathroom? Because his shoes are very dirty. mrs. White is a writer. SHE is using her computer to write a book. Their son tom is talking on the phone. He is talking with one of his friends. He loves swimming. He wants to go swimming a swimming pool with his friends. Their daughter Helen is only three years old. SHE loves delicious food. SHE is eating a big ice cream. 听力部分到此结束。 2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末模拟卷02 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共4节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．Don’t eat in class. B．We must be on time. C．She has to follow the rules. 2． A．Can you play the drums? B．Does Lisa walk to school? C．Are you doing your homework? 3．A．What did you do yesterday? B．Who visited her grandma? C．Where did she go yesterday? 4．A．Did you go to the zoo? B．Did you see any cows? C．Did you feed chickens? 5．A．Where’s the hotel? B．Where are the pay phones? C．Where are the restaurants? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．What animals does Jack’s sister like? A．Lions. B．Giraffes. C．Pandas. 7．How does Frank go to school every day? A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus. 8．Who is watching TV? A．Alan’s father. B．Alan’s mother. C．Alan’s cousin. 9．What time does Julie eat breakfast? A．At six thirty. B．At seven. C．At seven thirty. 10．What can Rick play? A．Tennis. B．Basketball. C．Baseball. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What club is Jane in? A．In the Science Club. B．In the Art Club. C．In the Singing Club. 12．How often does the Jane go to the club? A．Every day. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 13．What’s Mike’s favorite subject? A．Chinese. B．Science. C．Art. 14．What will they do this weekend? A．They will go to the zoo. B．They will go shopping. C．They will visit the science museum. 15．How far is it from Mike’s home to the science museum? A．It is about 3 kilometers. B．It is about 6 kilometers. C．It is about 16 kilometers. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．When is it? A．Sunday morning. B．Sunday afternoon. C．Sunday evening. 17．What is Mr. White brushing? A．His teeth. B．His shoes. C．His car. 18．What’s Mrs. White doing? A．She is cooking. B．She is watching TV. C．She is using the computer. 19．Where does Tom want to go with his friend? A．To the park. B．To the library. C．To the swimming pool. 20．What is Helen doing? A．Eating. B．Reading. C．Drawing. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kids' Life Skills Club Learn and grow through housework! Want to take care of yourself and make your home a better place?Join the Kids' Life Skills Club! Who can join Kids aged 6-12 When 2:00 PM-4:00 PM Every Saturday in September Where School Activity Room 3Price $80 each kid (10% off before 31 August) We will teach... 》Week 1:Fold clothes and make the bed 》Week 2: Do the laundry 》Week 3:Sweep and mop（拖地）the floor 》Week 4: Cook meals We will prepare everything for you. Just bring your smile! +For more information info@kidslifeskills.com 256994 www.kidslifeskills.com 21.How long is each class? A.1 hour. B.2 hours. C.3 hours D.4 hours. 22.Which skill will kids learn in Week 3? A. Washing clothes. B. Packing up things. C. Cleaning the floor. D. Making sandwiches. 23.If John plans to join the club,how much does he have to pay on 30 August? A.$70. B.$72. C.$80. D.$88. 24.What can we learn from the reading? A. 13-year-old kids can join the club. B. Kids can call to know more about the club. C. Kids need to bring food to take the cooking class. D. Kids have classes in different classrooms every week. 25.Where can we find the reading? A. In a storybook. B. In a travel guide. C. On a supermarket poster. D.On a school noticeboard. B Do you have good friends? How do you become good friends? Long ago, there was a boy and his name was Paul. He made friends with three animals. One day, Paul was lost(迷路) in the snow. Then he met a cow. The cow helped him find his way home and they became good friends. On the way, they found a rabbit in a snare(陷阱). The rabbit wasn’t friendly to them at first, but they still helped the rabbit. To show his thanks, the rabbit shared his food with them. When the three friends went on walking, they met a thirsty(口渴的) horse. They shared their water with the horse and the horse joined them too. The four became good friends and they were happy to get together. At last, Paul knew true friends don’t just have fun together, and they also help each other in difficult times. 26.How does the writer start the passage? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling stories. C. By asking questions. D. By giving examples. 27. What did the cow do for Paul? A. The cow built a snowman for him. B. The cow helped him find the way home. C. The cow looked for his friends. D. The cow gave him some food. 28. Why did the rabbit share his food? A. To make new friends. B. To get some water. C. To help the lost boy. D. To show his thanks. 29. What is the right order(顺序) according to the story? a. Paul and his friends gave a horse some water. b. Paul and the cow helped a rabbit get out of a snare. c. Paul met a cow. A. a−b−c B. a−c−b C. c−a−b D. c−b−a 30. What does the underlined sentence mean in Chinese? A. 患难见真情。 B. 众人拾柴火焰高。 C. 己所不欲，勿施于人。 D. 赠人玫瑰，手有余香。 C My grandmother's house is really important in my life. She lives in a small village in the south. I go to visit my grandmother every summer. I can get away from the city and relax. The village is just a group of white houses on a hillside with some small shops. But it's really peaceful. Why do I like the village? Because it's a beautiful place. My grandmother has a lovely garden and we can sit under the trees, drinking sweet tea and chatting. It's so pleasant. But the main reason why this place is so important to me is my grandmother herself. She is so kind to me and wonderful to talk to. Also, she's a great cook and she prepares simple, but fresh and delicious meals. And she's always giving me snacks during the day, so f always return home feeling calm and refreshed（清凉的）and fat！ I really love visiting my grandmother for the holidays. I admit that I probably couldn't live somewhere like that all the time. It would be hard to live in a small village and everybody knows each other there. I'd rather live in a busy and exciting place. But I think this small village is the best place for me to take a break and stay with my grandmother. 31.When does the writer visit his/her grandmother? A. At weekends. B. Every summer. C. In winter. D. After lunch. 32.What can the writer do in the village? A. Go fishing with friends. B. Go shopping for his/her grandmother. C. Live in a busy and exciting place. D. Take a break and relax. 33.What is Grandmother good at? A. Singing. B. Cooking. C.Dancing. D.Painting. 34.What is the main reason for the importance of the village to the writer? A. His/her grandmother herself. B. The lovely garden. C. The group of white houses. D. The refreshing snacks. 35.What does the passage talk about? A. The village where my grandmother lives is relaxing. B. My grandmother and I live in a village. C. I love the lovely garden best. D. The village is a small but beautiful pace. D It is a good idea to give school trips to students. Many people know that students sometimes need to learn outside. Studying and learning are more than books! Some school trips make students see more about nature. The students visit many places such as zoos, mountains, forests or farms. The teachers want the students not only to know about nature, but also to learn to love it and take care of it. Other school trips are for students to learn about their city or interesting jobs. They take students to visit a police station or a fire station. These kinds of school trips help students learn about jobs and help them to be thankful to the people who work for their city. Students usually love school trips! They can go out of the classroom and have fun. The teachers know that students can learn a lot when they relax and have fun. School trips can please both teachers and students! Teachers tell the students not to throw rubbish anywhere during the trip. Today our environment is getting better and better. It is important for us to protect the environment. 41. What can students learn from school trips? A. How to love nature. B. How to protect the environment. C. How to take care of nature. D. A, B and C. 42. Why do the students visit a police station or a fire station? A. To learn more about mountains. B. To visit old people in the hospital. C. To help people in the office. D. To learn about jobs and to be thankful. 43. What does the underlined word “please” in the fourth paragraph mean? A. Make somebody feel happy. B. Make somebody feel worried. C. Make somebody feel sorry.、 D. Make somebody feel terrible. 44. What’s the purpose of the last paragraph? A. To tell us to have a school trip. B. To tell us to pick up rubbish. C. To tell us to protect the environment. D. To tell us to take care of animals. 45. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. School trips can help students learn more. B. Students like to learn more about nature. C. School leaders know about their students. D. Students usually love school trips. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Every year, thousands of people get hurt（受伤）or die（死）when they are crossing the road.41.____ Old people often get hurt or die because they can't see or hear very well. Children usually meet with accidents（事故）because of their carelessness（粗心）.42．_______ How can we lessen（减少） traffic accidents? All of us must follow the traffic rules.43._____ If they drive too quickly, it will be very difficult to stop the cars in a very short time. For the walkers, it's very important to be careful when they are walking on the road. So when we walk across the road, we must try to walk along the pavements（人行道）.44________Look left first, next look right, and then look left again. When we are sure that the road is clear, we can cross it. The right way to cross the road is to walk quickly. 45. ________If people run across the road, they may fall down. Teens should try to help children, old people or blind people to cross the road, and never play in the street. A. Drivers shouldn't drive too fast. B. It's not safe to run. C. They forget to look and listen before they cross the road. D. Most of these people are old people and children. E. We must stop and look both ways before crossing the road. F. Safety comes first. G.Be danger, slow down. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Hi, Mario. Could you go shopping with us this afternoon? B: 46. ______ I have to clean the room after a while. A: Do you like cleaning the room? B: 47. ______ But my parents are too busy with their work these days. I have to help them do something at home. A: I don’t like it either. 48. ______ B: I like sweeping the floor and doing some washing. How about you? A: I like cooking a lot. B: 49. ______ A: Because I think it’s very interesting. B: Really? Could you please teach me how to cook? A: 50. ______ You can come to my house when you’re free. Then I will teach you. B: OK. Thank you very much. 46.A. Sorry, I can’t go with you. B. Yes, sure. C.You like shopping. D. Nothing much 47. A. It’s interesting. B. No, I don’t like it at all. C.Yes, I like it very much. D. Don’t you like it? 48. A.How do you do housework? B. Who teach you to do housework? C.How often do you do housework? D. What kind of housework do you like? 49.A. What do you think of cooking? B. Why do you like it? C. Could I cook for your mother? D. Do you often cook for your family 50. A . Of course. B. Your room is really clean. C. You’re welcome D. Cooking can make you relaxed. 第二节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。 During this winter vacation,I went to work in a hotel so that I could get some working experience(经验). Although it took only two 51 ,I made some friends there. During my first night,I found there were so many people in the hotel.At the beginning,I just felt I was a little 52 because I did not know what to do.Other waiters all looked very happy and were busy working with smiling faces.At that time,a strong boy came up to me and showed me 53 to work. During supper,the boy who helped me sat 54 my side and said to me,"My name is Paul.This afternoon you didn't do those 55 enough,and I think you should call me ‘teacher'."I said,“Thank you for 56 me, and I think we can be friends,do you think so?”The first day ended,I was so 57 that I fell asleep as soon as I lay down on the bed. As the days went by,I was used to the life there. One day,I made a mistake（犯错）while working.The boss(老板)58____so angry with me that I felt very sorry.This time,a little boy named Eric walked up to me and said,"Don't be scared!Just be more careful next time!"Thank you very much,"I said.After that,we also became 59 _ · Two weeks flew by,and I must 60____there,because I had to go back to school. 61 my friends all came to say goodbye to me.I would remember everyone's 62 ,John,Eric,Paul and so on.At that moment I felt so touched that I 63 cried. I learned much and got some 64 of working in the hotel.My friends brought wonderful and colorful memories（记忆） to my life.Wherever I am,I will be 65 of them,for they are my good friends. 51.A.days B.weeks C.months D.years 52.A.active B.relaxed C.worried D.interested 53.A.where B.why C.how D.when 54.A.by B.onto C.across D.off 55.A.finally B.carefully C.luckily D.easily 56.A.teaching B.visiting C.showing D.catching 57.A.strange B.excited C.tired D.hard 58.A.get B.got C.make D.made 59.A.waiters B.bosses C.friends D.teachers 60.A.stay B.get C.live D.leave 61.A.But B.Though C.Or D.So 62.A.diary B.name C.plan D.birthday 63.A.almost B.only C.hardly D.still 64.A.results B.ideas C.money D.experience 65.A.thinking B.talking C.hearing D.dreaming 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于3个单词）或括号内词的正确形式。 Dear Mike, How are things going with you? In your last email, you asked me how to get permission (许可) from your parents more 66 ______ (easy). Here is some advice. 67 ______ (one) of all, be clear about what you’re asking for. The more specific (具体的) you are, the easier it will be 68 ______ your parents to understand and decide what they can do for you. Secondly, could you please be polite 69 ______ understanding? Of course. Remember, you’re asking for 70 ______ (they) help, and they may have their own work and worries. So try 71 ______ (make) your needs as easy as possible. Thirdly, always be 72 ______ (thank) and keep your promises. If they agree to help you, thank them and offer to do 73 ______ (anything) in return. This will help build 74 ______ good relationship. If you follow my advice, 75 ______ (ask) for permission won’t be so difficult. Yours, Tyler 第四部分 写作（共2节，满分35分） 第一节 情景运用（共5题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76 77 78 79 80 76. A: What are you doing at the moment? B: __________________________________________________________________________. 77. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B:It’s rainy. 78. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: It was fantastic. 79. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: Yes,I did. I read it last week. 80. A:____________________________________________________________________________? B: No problem.I’ll do it at once. 第二节作文（满分25分） 你去过中国哪些地方旅游？请你写一篇以“我的旅游经历”为主题的英语演讲稿，在英语课堂与同学们分享。 内容包括： 1. 介绍你记忆中最深刻的一次旅游； 2. 描述这次旅游的经历； 3. 你的感受。 要求：1. 不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。 2.语句连贯，词数70词左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 Hello, everyone! I am glad to share my last holiday journey with you. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope I can visit it again next year. 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末模拟卷02 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共4节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．Don’t eat in class. B．We must be on time. C．She has to follow the rules. 2． A．Can you play the drums? B．Does Lisa walk to school? C．Are you doing your homework? 3．A．What did you do yesterday? B．Who visited her grandma? C．Where did she go yesterday? 4．A．Did you go to the zoo? B．Did you see any cows? C．Did you feed chickens? 5．A．Where’s the hotel? B．Where are the pay phones? C．Where are the restaurants? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．What animals does Jack’s sister like? A．Lions. B．Giraffes. C．Pandas. 7．How does Frank go to school every day? A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus. 8．Who is watching TV? A．Alan’s father. B．Alan’s mother. C．Alan’s cousin. 9．What time does Julie eat breakfast? A．At six thirty. B．At seven. C．At seven thirty. 10．What can Rick play? A．Tennis. B．Basketball. C．Baseball. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What club is Jane in? A．In the Science Club. B．In the Art Club. C．In the Singing Club. 12．How often does the Jane go to the club? A．Every day. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 13．What’s Mike’s favorite subject? A．Chinese. B．Science. C．Art. 14．What will they do this weekend? A．They will go to the zoo. B．They will go shopping. C．They will visit the science museum. 15．How far is it from Mike’s home to the science museum? A．It is about 3 kilometers. B．It is about 6 kilometers. C．It is about 16 kilometers. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．When is it? A．Sunday morning. B．Sunday afternoon. C．Sunday evening. 17．What is Mr. White brushing? A．His teeth. B．His shoes. C．His car. 18．What’s Mrs. White doing? A．She is cooking. B．She is watching TV. C．She is using the computer. 19．Where does Tom want to go with his friend? A．To the park. B．To the library. C．To the swimming pool. 20．What is Helen doing? A．Eating. B．Reading. C．Drawing. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kids' Life Skills Club Learn and grow through housework! Want to take care of yourself and make your home a better place?Join the Kids' Life Skills Club! Who can join Kids aged 6-12 When 2:00 PM-4:00 PM Every Saturday in September Where School Activity Room 3Price $80 each kid (10% off before 31 August) We will teach... 》Week 1:Fold clothes and make the bed 》Week 2: Do the laundry 》Week 3:Sweep and mop（拖地）the floor 》Week 4: Cook meals We will prepare everything for you. Just bring your smile! +For more information info@kidslifeskills.com 256994 www.kidslifeskills.com 21.How long is each class? A.1 hour. B.2 hours. C.3 hours D.4 hours. 22.Which skill will kids learn in Week 3? A. Washing clothes. B. Packing up things. C. Cleaning the floor. D. Making sandwiches. 23.If John plans to join the club,how much does he have to pay on 30 August? A.$70. B.$72. C.$80. D.$88. 24.What can we learn from the reading? A. 13-year-old kids can join the club. B. Kids can call to know more about the club. C. Kids need to bring food to take the cooking class. D. Kids have classes in different classrooms every week. 25.Where can we find the reading? A. In a storybook. B. In a travel guide. C. On a supermarket poster. D.On a school noticeboard. B Do you have good friends? How do you become good friends? Long ago, there was a boy and his name was Paul. He made friends with three animals. One day, Paul was lost(迷路) in the snow. Then he met a cow. The cow helped him find his way home and they became good friends. On the way, they found a rabbit in a snare(陷阱). The rabbit wasn’t friendly to them at first, but they still helped the rabbit. To show his thanks, the rabbit shared his food with them. When the three friends went on walking, they met a thirsty(口渴的) horse. They shared their water with the horse and the horse joined them too. The four became good friends and they were happy to get together. At last, Paul knew true friends don’t just have fun together, and they also help each other in difficult times. 26.How does the writer start the passage? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling stories. C. By asking questions. D. By giving examples. 27. What did the cow do for Paul? A. The cow built a snowman for him. B. The cow helped him find the way home. C. The cow looked for his friends. D. The cow gave him some food. 28. Why did the rabbit share his food? A. To make new friends. B. To get some water. C. To help the lost boy. D. To show his thanks. 29. What is the right order(顺序) according to the story? a. Paul and his friends gave a horse some water. b. Paul and the cow helped a rabbit get out of a snare. c. Paul met a cow. A. a−b−c B. a−c−b C. c−a−b D. c−b−a 30. What does the underlined sentence mean in Chinese? A. 患难见真情。 B. 众人拾柴火焰高。 C. 己所不欲，勿施于人。 D. 赠人玫瑰，手有余香。 C My grandmother's house is really important in my life. She lives in a small village in the south. I go to visit my grandmother every summer. I can get away from the city and relax. The village is just a group of white houses on a hillside with some small shops. But it's really peaceful. Why do I like the village? Because it's a beautiful place. My grandmother has a lovely garden and we can sit under the trees, drinking sweet tea and chatting. It's so pleasant. But the main reason why this place is so important to me is my grandmother herself. She is so kind to me and wonderful to talk to. Also, she's a great cook and she prepares simple, but fresh and delicious meals. And she's always giving me snacks during the day, so f always return home feeling calm and refreshed（清凉的）and fat！ I really love visiting my grandmother for the holidays. I admit that I probably couldn't live somewhere like that all the time. It would be hard to live in a small village and everybody knows each other there. I'd rather live in a busy and exciting place. But I think this small village is the best place for me to take a break and stay with my grandmother. 31.When does the writer visit his/her grandmother? A. At weekends. B. Every summer. C. In winter. D. After lunch. 32.What can the writer do in the village? A. Go fishing with friends. B. Go shopping for his/her grandmother. C. Live in a busy and exciting place. D. Take a break and relax. 33.What is Grandmother good at? A. Singing. B. Cooking. C.Dancing. D.Painting. 34.What is the main reason for the importance of the village to the writer? A. His/her grandmother herself. B. The lovely garden. C. The group of white houses. D. The refreshing snacks. 35.What does the passage talk about? A. The village where my grandmother lives is relaxing. B. My grandmother and I live in a village. C. I love the lovely garden best. D. The village is a small but beautiful pace. D It is a good idea to give school trips to students. Many people know that students sometimes need to learn outside. Studying and learning are more than books! Some school trips make students see more about nature. The students visit many places such as zoos, mountains, forests or farms. The teachers want the students not only to know about nature, but also to learn to love it and take care of it. Other school trips are for students to learn about their city or interesting jobs. They take students to visit a police station or a fire station. These kinds of school trips help students learn about jobs and help them to be thankful to the people who work for their city. Students usually love school trips! They can go out of the classroom and have fun. The teachers know that students can learn a lot when they relax and have fun. School trips can please both teachers and students! Teachers tell the students not to throw rubbish anywhere during the trip. Today our environment is getting better and better. It is important for us to protect the environment. 41. What can students learn from school trips? A. How to love nature. B. How to protect the environment. C. How to take care of nature. D. A, B and C. 42. Why do the students visit a police station or a fire station? A. To learn more about mountains. B. To visit old people in the hospital. C. To help people in the office. D. To learn about jobs and to be thankful. 43. What does the underlined word “please” in the fourth paragraph mean? A. Make somebody feel happy. B. Make somebody feel worried. C. Make somebody feel sorry.、 D. Make somebody feel terrible. 44. What’s the purpose of the last paragraph? A. To tell us to have a school trip. B. To tell us to pick up rubbish. C. To tell us to protect the environment. D. To tell us to take care of animals. 45. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. School trips can help students learn more. B. Students like to learn more about nature. C. School leaders know about their students. D. Students usually love school trips. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Every year, thousands of people get hurt（受伤）or die（死）when they are crossing the road.41.____ Old people often get hurt or die because they can't see or hear very well. Children usually meet with accidents（事故）because of their carelessness（粗心）.42．_______ How can we lessen（减少） traffic accidents? All of us must follow the traffic rules.43._____ If they drive too quickly, it will be very difficult to stop the cars in a very short time. For the walkers, it's very important to be careful when they are walking on the road. So when we walk across the road, we must try to walk along the pavements（人行道）.44________Look left first, next look right, and then look left again. When we are sure that the road is clear, we can cross it. The right way to cross the road is to walk quickly. 45. ________If people run across the road, they may fall down. Teens should try to help children, old people or blind people to cross the road, and never play in the street. A. Drivers shouldn't drive too fast. B. It's not safe to run. C. They forget to look and listen before they cross the road. D. Most of these people are old people and children. E. We must stop and look both ways before crossing the road. F. Safety comes first. G.Be danger, slow down. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Hi, Mario. Could you go shopping with us this afternoon? B: 46. ______ I have to clean the room after a while. A: Do you like cleaning the room? B: 47. ______ But my parents are too busy with their work these days. I have to help them do something at home. A: I don’t like it either. 48. ______ B: I like sweeping the floor and doing some washing. How about you? A: I like cooking a lot. B: 49. ______ A: Because I think it’s very interesting. B: Really? Could you please teach me how to cook? A: 50. ______ You can come to my house when you’re free. Then I will teach you. B: OK. Thank you very much. 46.A. Sorry, I can’t go with you. B. Yes, sure. C.You like shopping. D. Nothing much 47. A. It’s interesting. B. No, I don’t like it at all. C.Yes, I like it very much. D. Don’t you like it? 48. A.How do you do housework? B. Who teach you to do housework? C.How often do you do housework? D. What kind of housework do you like? 49.A. What do you think of cooking? B. Why do you like it? C. Could I cook for your mother? D. Do you often cook for your family 50. A . Of course. B. Your room is really clean. C. You’re welcome D. Cooking can make you relaxed. 第二节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。 During this winter vacation,I went to work in a hotel so that I could get some working experience(经验). Although it took only two 51 ,I made some friends there. During my first night,I found there were so many people in the hotel.At the beginning,I just felt I was a little 52 because I did not know what to do.Other waiters all looked very happy and were busy working with smiling faces.At that time,a strong boy came up to me and showed me 53 to work. During supper,the boy who helped me sat 54 my side and said to me,"My name is Paul.This afternoon you didn't do those 55 enough,and I think you should call me ‘teacher'."I said,“Thank you for 56 me, and I think we can be friends,do you think so?”The first day ended,I was so 57 that I fell asleep as soon as I lay down on the bed. As the days went by,I was used to the life there. One day,I made a mistake（犯错）while working.The boss(老板)58____so angry with me that I felt very sorry.This time,a little boy named Eric walked up to me and said,"Don't be scared!Just be more careful next time!"Thank you very much,"I said.After that,we also became 59 _ · Two weeks flew by,and I must 60____there,because I had to go back to school. 61 my friends all came to say goodbye to me.I would remember everyone's 62 ,John,Eric,Paul and so on.At that moment I felt so touched that I 63 cried. I learned much and got some 64 of working in the hotel.My friends brought wonderful and colorful memories（记忆） to my life.Wherever I am,I will be 65 of them,for they are my good friends. 51.A.days B.weeks C.months D.years 52.A.active B.relaxed C.worried D.interested 53.A.where B.why C.how D.when 54.A.by B.onto C.across D.off 55.A.finally B.carefully C.luckily D.easily 56.A.teaching B.visiting C.showing D.catching 57.A.strange B.excited C.tired D.hard 58.A.get B.got C.make D.made 59.A.waiters B.bosses C.friends D.teachers 60.A.stay B.get C.live D.leave 61.A.But B.Though C.Or D.So 62.A.diary B.name C.plan D.birthday 63.A.almost B.only C.hardly D.still 64.A.results B.ideas C.money D.experience 65.A.thinking B.talking C.hearing D.dreaming 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于3个单词）或括号内词的正确形式。 Dear Mike, How are things going with you? In your last email, you asked me how to get permission (许可) from your parents more 66 ______ (easy). Here is some advice. 67 ______ (one) of all, be clear about what you’re asking for. The more specific (具体的) you are, the easier it will be 68 ______ your parents to understand and decide what they can do for you. Secondly, could you please be polite 69 ______ understanding? Of course. Remember, you’re asking for 70 ______ (they) help, and they may have their own work and worries. So try 71 ______ (make) your needs as easy as possible. Thirdly, always be 72 ______ (thank) and keep your promises. If they agree to help you, thank them and offer to do 73 ______ (anything) in return. This will help build 74 ______ good relationship. If you follow my advice, 75 ______ (ask) for permission won’t be so difficult. Yours, Tyler 第四部分 写作（共2节，满分35分） 第一节 情景运用（共5题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76 77 78 79 80 76. A: What are you doing at the moment? B: __________________________________________________________________________. 77. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B:It’s rainy. 78. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: It was fantastic. 79. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: Yes,I did. I read it last week. 80. A:____________________________________________________________________________? B: No problem.I’ll do it at once. 第二节作文（满分25分） 你去过中国哪些地方旅游？请你写一篇以“我的旅游经历”为主题的英语演讲稿，在英语课堂与同学们分享。 内容包括： 1. 介绍你记忆中最深刻的一次旅游； 2. 描述这次旅游的经历； 3. 你的感受。 要求：1. 不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。 2.语句连贯，词数70词左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 Hello, everyone! I am glad to share my last holiday journey with you. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope I can visit it again next year. 试题 第3页（共6页） 试题 第4页（共6页） 试题 第1页（共6页） 试题 第2页（共6页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末模拟卷02 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共4节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．Don’t eat in class. B．We must be on time. C．She has to follow the rules. 2． A．Can you play the drums? B．Does Lisa walk to school? C．Are you doing your homework? 3．A．What did you do yesterday? B．Who visited her grandma? C．Where did she go yesterday? 4．A．Did you go to the zoo? B．Did you see any cows? C．Did you feed chickens? 5．A．Where’s the hotel? B．Where are the pay phones? C．Where are the restaurants? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．What animals does Jack’s sister like? A．Lions. B．Giraffes. C．Pandas. 7．How does Frank go to school every day? A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus. 8．Who is watching TV? A．Alan’s father. B．Alan’s mother. C．Alan’s cousin. 9．What time does Julie eat breakfast? A．At six thirty. B．At seven. C．At seven thirty. 10．What can Rick play? A．Tennis. B．Basketball. C．Baseball. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What club is Jane in? A．In the Science Club. B．In the Art Club. C．In the Singing Club. 12．How often does the Jane go to the club? A．Every day. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 13．What’s Mike’s favorite subject? A．Chinese. B．Science. C．Art. 14．What will they do this weekend? A．They will go to the zoo. B．They will go shopping. C．They will visit the science museum. 15．How far is it from Mike’s home to the science museum? A．It is about 3 kilometers. B．It is about 6 kilometers. C．It is about 16 kilometers. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．When is it? A．Sunday morning. B．Sunday afternoon. C．Sunday evening. 17．What is Mr. White brushing? A．His teeth. B．His shoes. C．His car. 18．What’s Mrs. White doing? A．She is cooking. B．She is watching TV. C．She is using the computer. 19．Where does Tom want to go with his friend? A．To the park. B．To the library. C．To the swimming pool. 20．What is Helen doing? A．Eating. B．Reading. C．Drawing. 【听力答案】 1．A 2．A 3．C 4．A 5．A 6．B 7．A 8．A 9．C 10．B 11．B 12．B 13．B 14．C 15．A 16．A 17．B 18．C 19．C 20．A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kids' Life Skills Club Learn and grow through housework! Want to take care of yourself and make your home a better place?Join the Kids' Life Skills Club! Who can join Kids aged 6-12 When 2:00 PM-4:00 PM Every Saturday in September Where School Activity Room 3Price $80 each kid (10% off before 31 August) We will teach... 》Week 1:Fold clothes and make the bed 》Week 2: Do the laundry 》Week 3:Sweep and mop（拖地）the floor 》Week 4: Cook meals We will prepare everything for you. Just bring your smile! +For more information info@kidslifeskills.com 256994 www.kidslifeskills.com 21.How long is each class? A.1 hour. B.2 hours. C.3 hours D.4 hours. 22.Which skill will kids learn in Week 3? A. Washing clothes. B. Packing up things. C. Cleaning the floor. D. Making sandwiches. 23.If John plans to join the club,how much does he have to pay on 30 August? A.$70. B.$72. C.$80. D.$88. 24.What can we learn from the reading? A. 13-year-old kids can join the club. B. Kids can call to know more about the club. C. Kids need to bring food to take the cooking class. D. Kids have classes in different classrooms every week. 25.Where can we find the reading? A. In a storybook. B. In a travel guide. C. On a supermarket poster. D.On a school noticeboard. 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. D 【解析】 【导语】本文是儿童生活技能俱乐部的招募海报，介绍报名信息、课程内容及咨询方式。 21. 句意为每节课时长是多久。依据为文中“When”部分标注“2:00 PM-4:00 PM”，计算可知时长为2小时，故为B。 22. 句意为孩子们在第三周会学习什么技能。依据为“We will teach”部分写明“Week 3: Sweep and mop the floor”，即清洁地板，对应选项C，故为C。 23. 句意为John8月30日报名俱乐部需支付多少钱。依据为价格部分“$80 each kid (10% off before 31 August)”，计算$80 - $80×10% = $72，故为B。 24. 句意为从文章中能了解到什么。依据为“For more information”部分有电话号码256994，说明可打电话咨询俱乐部信息，选项B表述正确；A项13岁孩子超出6-12岁的报名年龄，C项文中说俱乐部会准备一切，无需带食物，D项上课地点是School Activity Room 3，并非每周换教室，故为B。 25. 句意为在哪里能看到这篇文章。依据为文章是关于学校的生活技能俱乐部招募，发布地点最可能是学校布告栏，对应选项D；A项故事书、B项旅游指南、C项超市海报均不符合语境，故为D。 B Do you have good friends? How do you become good friends? Long ago, there was a boy and his name was Paul. He made friends with three animals. One day, Paul was lost(迷路) in the snow. Then he met a cow. The cow helped him find his way home and they became good friends. On the way, they found a rabbit in a snare(陷阱). The rabbit wasn’t friendly to them at first, but they still helped the rabbit. To show his thanks, the rabbit shared his food with them. When the three friends went on walking, they met a thirsty(口渴的) horse. They shared their water with the horse and the horse joined them too. The four became good friends and they were happy to get together. At last, Paul knew true friends don’t just have fun together, and they also help each other in difficult times. 26.How does the writer start the passage? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling stories. C. By asking questions. D. By giving examples. 27. What did the cow do for Paul? A. The cow built a snowman for him. B. The cow helped him find the way home. C. The cow looked for his friends. D. The cow gave him some food. 28. Why did the rabbit share his food? A. To make new friends. B. To get some water. C. To help the lost boy. D. To show his thanks. 29. What is the right order(顺序) according to the story? a. Paul and his friends gave a horse some water. b. Paul and the cow helped a rabbit get out of a snare. c. Paul met a cow. A. a−b−c B. a−c−b C. c−a−b D. c−b−a 30. What does the underlined sentence mean in Chinese? A. 患难见真情。 B. 众人拾柴火焰高。 C. 己所不欲，勿施于人。 D. 赠人玫瑰，手有余香。 【答案】26. C 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. A 【解析】 【导语】保罗在雪地迷路后遇牛、救兔、助马，四人成友，懂得真朋友应互帮互助。 26. 作者以“Do you have good friends?…”提问开篇，故选C。 27. 奶牛帮保罗找到回家的路，原文有明确表述，故选B。 28. 兔子分享食物是为了感谢保罗和奶牛的帮助，故选D。 29. 故事顺序是保罗遇奶牛→救兔子→给马水喝，即c−b−a，故选D。 30. 句子表真朋友不仅同享乐，还会共患难，对应“患难见真情”，故选A。 C My grandmother's house is really important in my life. She lives in a small village in the south. I go to visit my grandmother every summer. I can get away from the city and relax. The village is just a group of white houses on a hillside with some small shops. But it's really peaceful. Why do I like the village? Because it's a beautiful place. My grandmother has a lovely garden and we can sit under the trees, drinking sweet tea and chatting. It's so pleasant. But the main reason why this place is so important to me is my grandmother herself. She is so kind to me and wonderful to talk to. Also, she's a great cook and she prepares simple, but fresh and delicious meals. And she's always giving me snacks during the day, so f always return home feeling calm and refreshed（清凉的）and fat！ I really love visiting my grandmother for the holidays. I admit that I probably couldn't live somewhere like that all the time. It would be hard to live in a small village and everybody knows each other there. I'd rather live in a busy and exciting place. But I think this small village is the best place for me to take a break and stay with my grandmother. 31.When does the writer visit his/her grandmother? A. At weekends. B. Every summer. C. In winter. D. After lunch. 32.What can the writer do in the village? A. Go fishing with friends. B. Go shopping for his/her grandmother. C. Live in a busy and exciting place. D. Take a break and relax. 33.What is Grandmother good at? A. Singing. B. Cooking. C.Dancing. D.Painting. 34.What is the main reason for the importance of the village to the writer? A. His/her grandmother herself. B. The lovely garden. C. The group of white houses. D. The refreshing snacks. 35.What does the passage talk about? A. The village where my grandmother lives is relaxing. B. My grandmother and I live in a village. C. I love the lovely garden best. D. The village is a small but beautiful pace. 【答案】31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. A 【解析】 【导语】作者讲述祖母居住的南方小村，说明村子的宁静及对自己的重要意义。 31. 句意为作者什么时候去看望祖母。依据为原文“I go to visit my grandmother every summer”，与选项B表述一致，故为B。 32. 句意为作者在村子里能做什么。依据为原文“I can get away from the city and relax”和“this small village is the best place for me to take a break”，对应选项D，故为D。 33. 句意为祖母擅长什么。依据为原文“she's a great cook and she prepares simple, but fresh and delicious meals”，可知祖母擅长烹饪，故为B。 34. 句意为这个村子对作者来说很重要的主要原因是什么。依据为原文“But the main reason why this place is so important to me is my grandmother herself”，直接点明原因是祖母本人，故为A。 35. 句意为这篇文章主要讲了什么。依据为全文围绕祖母居住的村子展开，强调村子能让自己远离城市、放松身心，选项A能概括主旨，故为A。 D It is a good idea to give school trips to students. Many people know that students sometimes need to learn outside. Studying and learning are more than books! Some school trips make students see more about nature. The students visit many places such as zoos, mountains, forests or farms. The teachers want the students not only to know about nature, but also to learn to love it and take care of it. Other school trips are for students to learn about their city or interesting jobs. They take students to visit a police station or a fire station. These kinds of school trips help students learn about jobs and help them to be thankful to the people who work for their city. Students usually love school trips! They can go out of the classroom and have fun. The teachers know that students can learn a lot when they relax and have fun. School trips can please both teachers and students! Teachers tell the students not to throw rubbish anywhere during the trip. Today our environment is getting better and better. It is important for us to protect the environment. 41. What can students learn from school trips? A. How to love nature. B. How to protect the environment. C. How to take care of nature. D. A, B and C. 42. Why do the students visit a police station or a fire station? A. To learn more about mountains. B. To visit old people in the hospital. C. To help people in the office. D. To learn about jobs and to be thankful. 43. What does the underlined word “please” in the fourth paragraph mean? A. Make somebody feel happy. B. Make somebody feel worried. C. Make somebody feel sorry.、 D. Make somebody feel terrible. 44. What’s the purpose of the last paragraph? A. To tell us to have a school trip. B. To tell us to pick up rubbish. C. To tell us to protect the environment. D. To tell us to take care of animals. 45. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. School trips can help students learn more. B. Students like to learn more about nature. C. School leaders know about their students. D. Students usually love school trips. 【答案】36. D 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. A 【解析】 【导语】 学校旅行是课外学习的好方式，能学自然、职业知识，还需注意保护环境。 36. 文中提到学生能学会热爱自然、爱护自然，也被教导要保护环境，A、B、C内容均包含，故选D。 37. 参观警局或消防站是为了让学生了解职业，并对城市工作者心怀感恩，原文有明确表述，故选D。 38. “please”所在句指学校旅行能让师生都感到愉悦，“make somebody feel happy”符合此意，故选A。 39. 最后一段强调旅行中不扔垃圾、保护环境的重要性，核心目的是呼吁保护环境，故选C。 40. 文章围绕学校旅行能让学生在课外学到更多知识展开，A项概括了主旨，其他项仅为细节，故选A。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Every year, thousands of people get hurt（受伤）or die（死）when they are crossing the road.41.____ Old people often get hurt or die because they can't see or hear very well. Children usually meet with accidents（事故）because of their carelessness（粗心）.42．_______ How can we lessen（减少） traffic accidents? All of us must follow the traffic rules.43._____ If they drive too quickly, it will be very difficult to stop the cars in a very short time. For the walkers, it's very important to be careful when they are walking on the road. So when we walk across the road, we must try to walk along the pavements（人行道）.44________Look left first, next look right, and then look left again. When we are sure that the road is clear, we can cross it. The right way to cross the road is to walk quickly. 45. ________If people run across the road, they may fall down. Teens should try to help children, old people or blind people to cross the road, and never play in the street. A. Drivers shouldn't drive too fast. B. It's not safe to run. C. They forget to look and listen before they cross the road. D. Most of these people are old people and children. E. We must stop and look both ways before crossing the road. F. Safety comes first. G.Be danger, slow down. 【答案】41. D 42. C 43. A 44. E 45. B 【解析】 【导语】本文分析老人、儿童过马路易出事故的原因，介绍遵守交规、安全过马路的方法。 41. 句意为每年成千上万的人过马路时受伤或死亡，______。依据为后句分别介绍老人和孩子出事故的原因，此句应衔接两类人群，选项D符合语境，故为D。 42. 句意为儿童常因粗心出事故，______。依据为前句点明儿童事故的诱因是粗心，选项C说明他们过马路前忘看忘听，是粗心的具体表现，故为C。 43. 句意为我们都必须遵守交通规则，______。依据为后句讲开车太快很难短时间停车，此句应是对司机的要求，选项A符合逻辑，故为A。 44. 句意为所以过马路时我们必须尽量走人行道，______。依据为后句讲左右看的具体步骤，此句应是提出过马路前要观察路况的要求，选项E衔接恰当，故为E。 45. 句意为______，如果人们跑着过马路，可能会摔倒。依据为后句说明跑过马路的危害，此句应点明跑过马路不安全，选项B符合语境，故为B。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Hi, Mario. Could you go shopping with us this afternoon? B: 46. ______ I have to clean the room after a while. A: Do you like cleaning the room? B: 47. ______ But my parents are too busy with their work these days. I have to help them do something at home. A: I don’t like it either. 48. ______ B: I like sweeping the floor and doing some washing. How about you? A: I like cooking a lot. B: 49. ______ A: Because I think it’s very interesting. B: Really? Could you please teach me how to cook? A: 50. ______ You can come to my house when you’re free. Then I will teach you. B: OK. Thank you very much. 46.A. Sorry, I can’t go with you. B. Yes, sure. C.You like shopping. D. Nothing much 47. A. It’s interesting. B. No, I don’t like it at all. C.Yes, I like it very much. D. Don’t you like it? 48. A.How do you do housework? B. Who teach you to do housework? C.How often do you do housework? D. What kind of housework do you like? 49.A. What do you think of cooking? B. Why do you like it? C. Could I cook for your mother? D. Do you often cook for your family 50. A . Of course. B. Your room is really clean. C. You’re welcome D. Cooking can make you relaxed. 【答案】 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. A 【解析】 46. 问句邀请Mario下午去购物，答句提到要打扫房间，可知是拒绝邀请，故选A。 47. 问句询问是否喜欢打扫房间，后文说父母忙才帮忙，且A也说不喜欢，可知Mario完全不喜欢，故选B。 48. 答句说喜欢扫地和洗衣服，可知问句是询问喜欢的家务类型，故选D。 49. 答句用Because回答原因，可知问句是询问喜欢做饭的原因，故选B。 50. 问句请求教做饭，答句邀请对方有空来家里教，可知是同意请求，故选A。 第二节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。 During this winter vacation,I went to work in a hotel so that I could get some working experience(经验). Although it took only two 51 ,I made some friends there. During my first night,I found there were so many people in the hotel.At the beginning,I just felt I was a little 52 because I did not know what to do.Other waiters all looked very happy and were busy working with smiling faces.At that time,a strong boy came up to me and showed me 53 to work. During supper,the boy who helped me sat 54 my side and said to me,"My name is Paul.This afternoon you didn't do those 55 enough,and I think you should call me ‘teacher'."I said,“Thank you for 56 me, and I think we can be friends,do you think so?”The first day ended,I was so 57 that I fell asleep as soon as I lay down on the bed. As the days went by,I was used to the life there. One day,I made a mistake（犯错）while working.The boss(老板)58____so angry with me that I felt very sorry.This time,a little boy named Eric walked up to me and said,"Don't be scared!Just be more careful next time!"Thank you very much,"I said.After that,we also became 59 _ · Two weeks flew by,and I must 60____there,because I had to go back to school. 61 my friends all came to say goodbye to me.I would remember everyone's 62 ,John,Eric,Paul and so on.At that moment I felt so touched that I 63 cried. I learned much and got some 64 of working in the hotel.My friends brought wonderful and colorful memories（记忆） to my life.Wherever I am,I will be 65 of them,for they are my good friends. 51.A.days B.weeks C.months D.years 52.A.active B.relaxed C.worried D.interested 53.A.where B.why C.how D.when 54.A.by B.onto C.across D.off 55.A.finally B.carefully C.luckily D.easily 56.A.teaching B.visiting C.showing D.catching 57.A.strange B.excited C.tired D.hard 58.A.get B.got C.make D.made 59.A.waiters B.bosses C.friends D.teachers 60.A.stay B.get C.live D.leave 61.A.But B.Though C.Or D.So 62.A.diary B.name C.plan D.birthday 63.A.almost B.only C.hardly D.still 64.A.results B.ideas C.money D.experience 65.A.thinking B.talking C.hearing D.dreaming 【答案】51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. D 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. A 【解析】 【导语】寒假我在酒店打工两周，从手足无措到适应工作，收获了宝贵经验和真挚友谊，这段经历令人难忘。 51. 句意为尽管只待了两______，我在那里交了一些朋友。依据为后文“Two weeks flew by”，可知是两周，故为B。 52. 句意为一开始，我只是觉得有点______，因为我不知道该做什么。依据为“不知道该做什么”的语境，应是感到担忧，故为C。 53. 句意为这时，一个强壮的男孩走向我，教我______工作。依据为男孩是指导工作的方式，用how表“如何”，故为C。 54. 句意为晚饭时，帮助我的那个男孩坐在我身边。依据为固定搭配“by one's side”表示“在某人身边”，故为A。 55. 句意为今天下午你做这些事不够______，我觉得你应该叫我‘老师’。依据为男孩指出工作中的问题，应是不够仔细，故为B。 56. 句意为谢谢你______我，我觉得我们可以成为朋友。依据为男孩教作者工作，用teaching表“教导”，故为A。 57. 句意为第一天结束了，我太______了，一躺在床上就睡着了。依据为“一躺就睡”的表现，可知是疲惫的，故为C。 58. 句意为老板对我如此生气，我感到非常抱歉。依据为全文用一般过去时，“get angry”的过去式为got angry，故为B。 59. 句意为在那之后，我们也成了______。依据为前文作者和Paul成为朋友，此处和Eric也成为朋友，故为C。 60. 句意为两周过得很快，我必须______那里，因为我得回学校了。依据为“回学校”的原因，应是离开，故为D。 61. 句意为______我的朋友们都来和我道别。依据为前文作者要离开，后文朋友们来送别，是因果关系，用So表“因此”，故为D。 62. 句意为我会记住每个人的______，约翰、埃里克、保罗等等。依据为后文列举的是名字，故为B。 63. 句意为那一刻我深受感动，几乎哭了出来。依据为“touched”的情绪，almost表“几乎”符合语境，故为A。 64. 句意为我在酒店里学到了很多，也获得了一些工作______。依据为文章开头“get some working experience”，故为D。 65. 句意为无论我在哪里，我都会想起他们。依据为固定搭配“think of”表示“想起”，故为A。 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于3个单词）或括号内词的正确形式。 Dear Mike, How are things going with you? In your last email, you asked me how to get permission (许可) from your parents more 66 ______ (easy). Here is some advice. 67 ______ (one) of all, be clear about what you’re asking for. The more specific (具体的) you are, the easier it will be 68 ______ your parents to understand and decide what they can do for you. Secondly, could you please be polite 69 ______ understanding? Of course. Remember, you’re asking for 70 ______ (they) help, and they may have their own work and worries. So try 71 ______ (make) your needs as easy as possible. Thirdly, always be 72 ______ (thank) and keep your promises. If they agree to help you, thank them and offer to do 73 ______ (anything) in return. This will help build 74 ______ good relationship. If you follow my advice, 75 ______ (ask) for permission won’t be so difficult. Yours, Tyler 【答案】66. easily 67. First 68. for 69. and 70. their 71. to make 72. thankful 73. something 74. a 75. asking 【解析】 【导语】这封邮件给迈克提供获得父母许可的建议，包括明确需求、礼貌体谅、感恩守信等要点。 66. 句意为“你问我如何更轻松地得到父母的许可”，用副词修饰动词get，故为easily。 67. 句意为“首先，要清楚自己想要什么”，first of all是固定搭配，故为First。 68. 句意为“你越具体，父母就越容易理解”，it's easy for sb. to do是固定句型，故为for。 69. 句意为“你能礼貌且体谅人吗”，polite和understanding为并列形容词，故为and。 70. 句意为“你是在寻求他们的帮助”，用形容词性物主代词修饰名词help，故为their。 71. 句意为“所以尽量让你的需求变得容易满足”，try to do是固定搭配，故为to make。 72. 句意为“要一直心怀感恩并信守承诺”，be动词后接形容词作表语，故为thankful。 73. 句意为“主动提出做些事作为回报”，肯定句中用something代替anything，故为something。 74. 句意为“这有助于建立良好的关系”，relationship为可数名词单数，故为a。 75. 句意为“请求许可就不会那么难了”，动名词作句子主语，故为asking。 第四部分 写作（共2节，满分35分） 第一节 情景运用（共5题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76 77 78 79 80 76. A: What are you doing at the moment? B: __________________________________________________________________________. 77. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B:It’s rainy. 78. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: It was fantastic. 79. A:___________________________________________________________________________? B: Yes,I did. I read it last week. 80. A:____________________________________________________________________________? B: No problem.I’ll do it at once. 【参考答案】 76. I am taking notes. 77. How’s the weather? 78.How was your summer vacation? 79. Did you read Little Women? 80.Could you hang up photos? 第二节作文（满分25分） 你去过中国哪些地方旅游？请你写一篇以“我的旅游经历”为主题的英语演讲稿，在英语课堂与同学们分享。 内容包括： 1. 介绍你记忆中最深刻的一次旅游； 2. 描述这次旅游的经历； 3. 你的感受。 要求：1. 不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。 2.语句连贯，词数70词左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 Hello, everyone! I am glad to share my last holiday journey with you. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope I can visit it again next year. 【参考范文】 Hello, everyone! I am glad to share my last holiday journey with you. Last summer, I traveled to Guilin with my parents. We took a boat ride on the Li River. The mountains there were strange and the water was clear. We also visited Reed Flute Cave, which was full of amazing rock formations. The beautiful scenery made me feel relaxed and happy. I hope I can visit it again next year. 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $