内容正文:
七年级上学期期末综合能力评估试题。第一题关键词语选择,你将听到五个句子,请在每小题所给的abc三个选项中选出一个你所听到的单词或短语,每个句子读两遍。Number one, where are the races? Where are the races? Number two, does he have a baseball game? Does SHE have a baseball game? Number three, lets play basketball. Let's play basketball. Number four is your birthday in december. Is your birthday in december? Number five, thank you for your help. Thank you for . your help. 第二题短对话理解。你将听到10段对话,每段对话后有一个小题请,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。Number six, what fruit do you like? strawberries. What fruit do you like? strawberries. Number seven, what's your favourite sport. tom basketball? What's your favourite sport. tom basketball? Number eight, hamburgers are my favorite food. I like them too. Hamburgers are my favorite food. I like them too. Number nine, how much is the skirt? Is only eighteen dollars on sale. How much is the skirt . is only eighteen dollars on sale. Number ten, Sandy always has vegetables for dinner. She's healthy. Sandy always has vegetables for dinner. She's healthy. Number eleven, why do you like chinese? Because IT is easy for me. Why do you like . chinese? Because IT is easy . for me. Number twelve is lind's birthday in march. Yes, IT is. Is lind's birthday in march? Yes, IT is. Number thirteen, what vegetables does your mother like? He likes tomatoes, but he likes care its best. What vegetables does your mother like? He likes tomatoes, but he likes care its best. Number fourteen, I have a soccer ball. Let's play soccer now. Okay, let's go. I have a soccer ball. Let's play soccer now. Okay, let's go. Number fifteen, I don't like milk. What about you? Oh, I like milk very much. I don't like milk. What about you? Oh, I like milk very much. 第三题长对话理解。你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题请,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第16至17小题。What's that on the . chair is a blue jacket. Is IT yours? No, it's James. Where's he now? He is in the music room. What's that on the . chair is a blue jacket. Is IT yours? No, it's James. Where's he now? He is in the music room. 听下面一段对话,回答第18至20小题。Hi, don was in the box. My shirt. What color is your shirt . is White and blue? Oh, what's on your bed? I think it's my jacket. Oh, yes, but where is your volleyball? It's on the sofa. I play volleyball in P. E class. I love volleyball very much. Hi don, what's in the box? My shirt. What color is your shirt is? White and blue? Oh, what's on your bed? I think it's my jacket. Oh, yes. But where is your volleyball? It's on the sofa. I play volleyball in P. E. class. I love volleyball very much. 第四题。短文理解。你将听到一篇短文,文后有五个小题请,根据短文内容,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项,短文读两遍。This is a photo of mister White's family luck. The two boys are his sons. Their chinese names are how chang and how gone. They are students in a middle school. They are in Green shorts. Mister White is in a blue t shirt. He likes watching T, V everyday. mrs. White is in a red skirt. The girl with long hair is the boy's sister. Her name is Alice. Her chinese name is how j. She's in a yellow t shirt and a black skirt. She's next to her mom. This is a photo of mister White's family. Look, the two boys are his sons. Their chinese names are how chang and how gone they are. Students in a middle school, they are in Green shorts. Mister White is in a blue t shirt. He likes watching T. V. everyday. mrs. White is in a red skirt. The girl with long hair is the boy's sister. Her name is Alice. Her chinese name is hugging. She's in a yellow t shirt and a black skirt. She's next to her mom. 第五题,信息转换。你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空只填一词,短文读两遍。My name is bob. There are three people in my family, my father, my mother and die. My father likes vegetables and milk. My mother likes fruit and eggs. I like hamburgers. We all like sports. My father's favorite sports is soccer. He plays IT every afternoon. Volleyball is my mother's favorite sport. SHE plays IT on weekends. I like tennis best. I often watch tennis games on T. V. My name is bob. There are three people in my family, my father, my mother, and die. My father likes vegetables and milk. My mother likes fruit and eggs. I like hamburger gers. We all like sports. My father's favorite sports is soccer. He plays IT every afternoon. Volleyball is my mother's favorite sport. SHE plays IT on weekends. I like tennis best. I often watch tennis games on T, V. 听力部分到此结束,请同学们继续答题。
2024-2025学年度第一学期期末监测试卷
七年级英语
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共四部分,十一大题,满分120分。考试时间为100分钟。
2. 全卷包括试题卷8页、答题卷2页。
3. 请务必在答题卷上答题,在试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力 (共五大题,满分20分)
一、关键词语选择 (共5小题;每小题0. 5分,满分2. 5分)
你将听到五个句子。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个你所听到的单词或短语。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. erasers B. eraser C. events
2. A. a football game B. a basketball game C. a baseball game
3. A. play basketball B. play volleyball C. play tennis
4. A. in September B. in December C. in November
5. A. your B. yours C. you
二、短对话理解 (共10小题;每小题0. 5分,满分5分)
你将听到十段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
6. What fruit doesn't the man like?
A. Strawberry. B. Strawberries. C. Small apples.
7. What's Tom's favorite sport?
A. Ping-pong. B. Swimming. C. Basketball.
8. What food does the woman like?
A. Pies. B. Sushi. C. Hamburgers.
9. How much is the skirt?
A. 18 dollars. B. 80 dollars. C. 8 dollars.
10. What does Sandy have for dinner?
A. Bread. B. Vegetables. C. Noodles.
11. Why does the girl like Chinese?
A. Because it is useful for her. B. Because it is interesting for her. C. Because it is easy for her. 12.
12. When is Linda's birthday?
A. In May. B. In April. C. In March.
13. What vegetables does the boy's mother like?
A. Tomatoes. B. Carrots and tomatoes. C. Carrots.
14. What will they do?
A. They will play soccer. B. They will play basketball. C. They will watch TV.
15. What does the man like?
A. Fish. B. Meat. C. Milk.
三、长对话理解 (共5小题;每小题0. 5分,满分2. 5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第16至17小题
16. What colour is the jacket?
A. Blue. B. Green. C. Black.
17. where is Jim?
A. In the art room. B. In the computer room. C. In the music room.
听下面一段对话,回答第18至20小题
18. Where is the shirt?
A. On the bed. B. In the box. C. On the box.
19. What colour is the shirt?
A. White. B. White and blue. C. Blue.
20. When does Dale play Volleyball?
A. In class. B. After class. C. In P. E. class.
四、短文理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
21. How many people are there in Mr. White's family?
A. 5. B. 4. C. 3.
22. What are the two boys' Chinese names?
A. Hao Gang and Hao Jing. B. Hao Qiang and Hao Jing. C. Hao Qiang and Hao Gang.
23. What colour are the two boys' shorts?
A. Blue. B. Green. C. Yellow.
24. Where is the girl?
A. Next to her brother. B. Near Mr. White. C. Beside Mrs. White.
25. What does Mr White like?
A. Watching TV. B. Seeing a film. C. Playing computer games.
五、信息转换 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空填一词。短文读两遍。
My name is Bob. There are 26 people in my family— my father, my mother, and I.
My father likes vegetables and milk. My mother likes fruit and 27 . I like hamburgers.
We 28 like sports. My father's favorite sport is soccer. He plays it every afternoon. Volleyball is my mother's favorite sport. She plays it on 29 . I like. tennis 30 . I often watch tennis games on TV.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共两大题,满分30分)
六、单项填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
31. — Look! There __________ some flowers on the table.
— So beautiful!
A. is B. has C. are D. have
32. — Mom, can I play basketball with my friends this Sunday?
— Sure. It's a good __________.
A. subject B. lesson C. activity D. club
33. — What's your favorite food, Ya Ming?
— Tofu. I think it's __________.
A. cold B. bad C. cheap D. delicious
34. — Would you __________ me some photos of yours? I miss you very much.
— Sure.
A. greet B. spell C. take D. send
35. Taiwan is a __________ of China. We have the same history and culture (文化) .
A. part B. city C. country D. club
36. My pet dog is very __________. He can help me find the lost key.
A. well B. glad C. small D. smart
37. Go to bed early, __________ you'll have enough energy for the next day.
A. or B. and C. but D. because
38. Teachers' Day is __________ 10th September. And we should say “thank you” to our teachers.
A. in B. on C. at D. for
39. The shirt is too small for me. Could you show me __________ one?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
40. I like __________ best, because I want to learn more about living things and nature.
A. music B. maths C. history D. biology
41. — __________ pets do you have?
— Three. A dog, a cat and a rabbit.
A. How old B. How many C. How much D. How far
42. I can't __________ early on weekdays. I think I need an alarm clock on my bedside table.
A. give up B. get up C. put up D. stand up
43. John is interested __________ sports, and he is good __________ high jump.
A. in; in B. in; at C. at; in D. at; at
44. — Oh, we have a basketball match with Class 5 at 9: 00 this morning.
— __________
A. Good idea B. Good job C. Good luck D. Good morning
45. —Do you think it will rain tomorrow?
— __________. Because farmers need rain very much.
A. I think so B. I hope so C. I'm afraid so D. I think not
七、完形填空 (共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
On the morning of every Tuesday, two of my kids get ready for school. They 46 carry a large bag with some clothes, a pair of shoes, lots of food and water, so there aren't 47 books in it.
Then I take them to a nearby park in my car. This is where they are going to spend the day and 48 . Right, my boys go to a forest school once a week. It is from 8: 30 a. m to 3: 30 p. m. A group of kids study the forests, lakes and animals in 49 together.
I love the idea of the forest school, but I am still 50 about a few things at first. Would the teachers let the kids play freely? Would my kids be safe outside? Would they enjoy themselves?
The fact is that my boys get used to the school life 51 . Most of the time, they plan their own play, make fires, 52 tall trees for fruit, and do many other interesting things. The teachers never tell them that their play is too high, too fast or too dangerous. They only follow the kids and 53 when something goes wrong.
When I pick the boys up at the end of the afternoon, their clothes and shoes look so dirty but on their faces, I can see that they are lively, happy and never want to 54 . In the forest school, they learn how to take care of themselves and get along well with nature. I think that is 55 . what's your idea? Please tell us.
46. A. all B. every C. each D. whole
47. A. some B. any C. many D. much
48. A. go camping B. do sports C. play games D. have lessons
49. A. spring B. nature C. classroom D. space
50. A. angry B. worried C. careful D. glad
51. A. usually B. luckily C. quickly D. slowly
52. A. climb B. plant C. grow D. see
53. A. wait B. laugh C. shout D. help
54. A. leave B. come C. stay D. go
55. A. important B. happy C. interesting D. amazing
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两大题,满分40分)
八、阅读理解 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A hobby is not a job or a school subject.
A hobby is something you enjoy doing in your free time. It's not something you need to do. It's just fun. Some people make model planes, keep pets, travel, work out, plant flowers, play games or chat on the internet. Some paint pictures or dance to music. Some collect everything from stamps to seashells (海贝壳) …
People take up hobbies because they think these activities can bring them many things like happiness, health, friendship (友谊) and knowledge (知识) . Anyone, rich or poor, old or young, sick or well (健康的) , can have a hobby. A hobby will make your life colourful.
If you want to have a happy life, you should have hobbies. In your life, if you always work, you had better think over your life and change it soon.
56. What is a hobby?
A. Things you like doing in your free time. B. A school subject.
C. A job. D. A joy.
57. How many hobbies are mentioned (提到) in this passage (文章) ?
A. 10 B. 8 C. 9. D. 7.
58. Hobbies can give people __________.
A. health, happiness B. health, happiness, friendship and knowledge
C. friendship and knowledge D. happiness, friendship and knowledge
59. What kind of people can have a hobby?
A. Rich or poor. B. Anyone. C. Sick or well. D. Old or young.
60. Which is the idea of the writer of this passage?
A. You should change your life. B. You should always work.
C. You had better think over your life. D. You should take up hobbies to have a happy life.
B
Chinese culture is long and rich, so the traditional Chinese clothes also have a long history.
Hanfu are the traditional clothes of the Han ethnic group. They first appeared in China more than3, 000 years ago. But they almost disappeared (消失) with the beginning of the Qing Dynasty. Now more and more young people enjoy wearing them.
Zhongshan suits are the traditional Chinese clothes named after Dr Sun Yat-sen. They're also known as Mao suits because Chairman Mao liked to wear them. They first appeared in the 1920s.
Tangzhuang in modern times are a type of Chinese jacket and shirt rather than the clothes of the Tang Dynasty. They got the name from the overseas Chinese. The Tang Dynasty was famous in the world, so the overseas Chinese call themselves “Tang people”, and the clothes were called “Tangzhuang”.
Qipao are a kind of traditional Chinese dress. They first appeared in China in the 1920s. Qipao are often made of silk or cotton, and Chinese women like to wear them because they can show their beauty.
61. What's the title (标题) of this passage?
A. Chinese clothes B. Clothes
C. Traditional Chinese clothes D. Chinese clothes culture
62. Which of the clothes is (are) first appeared in the 1920s?
A. Zhongshan suits. B. Qipao.
C. Hanfu and Tangzhuang. D. Zhongshan suits and Qipao.
63. How did zhousan suits get the name?
A. From Dr Sun Yat-sen. B. From Chairman Mao.
C. From the overseas Chinese. D. From the native Chinese.
64. When did Hanfu appear?
A. Qin Dynasty. B. Qing Dynasty.
C. More than 3 thousand years ago. D. Han Dynasty.
65. Where can you probably read the passage?
A. In a magazine. B. In a science book.
C. In a story book. D. In a travel book.
C
Learning how to manage money is an important skill for everyone, especially for teenagers. Understanding how to save and spend money can help you make better decisions in the future. Here are some tips on how to manage money.
A budget is a plan that shows how much money you have and how you will spend it.
To create a budget, first you can list all the money you can get, such as pocket money. Then, list all the money you will spend, including food, clothes, books, etc. Make sure you spend less than you can get.
Saving money is important because it helps you prepare for the future. Try to save a part of your money every month. You can save it in a bank account. Saving also helps you build a habit of not spending all your money at once.
Think carefully before you spend your money. Ask yourself if you really need what you are about to buy. It's easy to spend money on things you don't need, so think twice before paying. Avoid (避免) impulse buying, which is buying something without planning.
By following these tips, teenagers can learn to manage their money more wisely and better prepare for themselves. The lessons at school should guide the students to practise managing money wisely. But today schools and society had better pay more attention to the topic.
66. What is a budget?
A. A plan that tells you how much money you have.
B. A plan that shows how you will spend money.
C. A plan that tells you how much money you have and how you will spend it.
D. A plan for how to spend your money.
67. Why is saving money important?
A. It helps you buy more things. B. It allows you to lend money to friends.
C. It prepares you for the future. D. It prevents you from having fun.
68. What should you avoid in order to spend wisely?
A. Impulse buying. B. Creating a budget.
C. Saving a part of your money. D. Getting more money.
69. What's the main idea of the passage?
A. How to earn money. B. Money and business.
C. Don't give your children too much money. D. Money management for teenagers.
70. What does the underlined word “society” mean in Chinese in the last sentence?
A. 家长. B. 社会. C. 大众. D. 政府
九、任务型阅读 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题后面的词数要求)
Today, I got to celebrate New Year's Eve in China. It is so different from what I'm used to! The Streets were full of red decorations, which I learned are a sign of good luck for the new year. I also saw a dragon dance for the first time. It was amazing to see the long, colourful dragon moving through the streets. My Chinese friends also took me to a cinema. We watched a new year movie together. It was fun and touching.
In the evening, we had a big dinner with lots of different food. We ate niangao and many other interesting food. It is a time for families and friends to get together and celebrate.
When midnight came, young people went to the street, singing and dancing to the music. Hundreds of colourful balloons were released. It was a beautiful way to welcome the new year.
I'm so glad I got to experience all these wonderful activities. It made me appreciate (欣赏) how special New Year celebrations can be. The best news has come, Chinese New Year Spring festival was successfully inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list on Dec. 4, 2024. Congratulations to Chinese People!
71. What do the red decorations represent (代表) in China's New Year celebration? (不超过2个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
72. What did the writer eat in the New Year dinner? (不超过6个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
73. What did young people do when midnight came? (不超过11个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What did the writer think of New Year celebration activities in China? (不超过2个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
75. When was Spring festival successfully inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list? (不超过4个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写 (共两大题,满分30分)
十、根据句意和首字母提示写出单词 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
76. Jim often helps people. He gives us a good e__________ (例子; 榜样) to follow.
77. The Great Wall is the s__________ (象征; 符号) of China.
78. He plays football with some of his c__________ (同班同学) after school.
79. My mother p__________ (准备) breakfast for me every morning.
80. My parents can always r__________ (记得) the date of my birthday.
81. The b__________ (牛肉) is very nice. I want more.
82. She hopes to be a great s__________ (科学家) .
83. We speak Chinese as our first l__________ (语言) .
84. There is a shop for people to buy d__________ (每日的) things in the village.
85. He goes to the g__________ (体育馆) near his home with his parents every week.
十一、书面表达 (共1小题;满分20分)
请你用“My lifestyle”为题写一篇小短文向外国中学生介绍自己的生活方式,内容包括a healthy lifestyle是什么,然后从breakfast、lunch 和supper分别吃什么,如何运动健身,以及睡眠情况,分析自己生活方式的优点和问题,并提出优化生活方式的方法。开头已经给出,全文不少于80个单词。
My lifestyle
A healthy lifestyle is all about healthy food, appropriate exercise and good sleep. Now let me tell you my lifestyle.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度第一学期期末教学质量监测
七年级英语参考答案
第一部分 听力 (共五大题,30小题)
(1-20每小题0. 5分,21-30每小题1分,满分20分)
一、关键词语选择 (共5小题;每小题0. 5分,满分2. 5分)
1-5 ACABA
二、短对话理解 (共10小题;每小题0. 5分,满分5分)
6-10 BCCAB 11-15 CCBAC
三、长对话理解 (共5小题;每小题0. 5分,满分2. 5分)
16-20 ACBBC
四、短文理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
21-25 ACBCA
五、信息转换 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
26. 3/ three 27. eggs 28. all 29. weekends 30. best
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共两大题,满分30分)
六、单项选择 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
31-35 CCDDA 36-40 DBBDD 41-45 BBBCB
七、完形填空 (共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
46-50 CBDBB 51-55 CADAA
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两大题,满分40分)
八、阅读理解 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
56-60 AABBD 61-65 CDACA 66-70 CCADB
九、任务型阅读 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
71. Good luck.
72. Niangao and many other interesting food.
73. They went to the street, singing and dancing to the music.
74. Wonderful and special.
75. On Dec. 4, 2024.
第四部分 写 (共两大题,满分30分)
十、单词拼写 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
76. example 77. symbol 78. classmates 79. prepares 80. remember
81. beef 82. scientist 83. language 84. daily 85. gym
十一、书面表达 (共1小题;满分20分)
略
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