广西壮族自治区玉林市五校联考2025-2026学年高一上学期期中11月联考英语试题

2025年11月高一年级五校联考试题 英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试试卷120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生先在答题卡上用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写清楚，然后贴好条形码。请认真核准条形码上的准考证号、姓名和科目。 2．答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，在试题卷上作答无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C。 1．How much should the man pay? A．£10. B．£20. C．£30. 2．What do we know about the man? A．He took interesting photos. B．He won three competitions. C．He has competition experience. 3．What did Rob do last night? A．He had a course. B．He played on stage. C．He watched a performance. 4．Where does the conversation most probably take place? A．At home. B．At a restaurant. C．At a supermarket. 5．What are the speakers talking about? A．A class. B．A report. C．A project. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What does the woman ask the man to do? A．Pass the pepper. B．Cook some meat. C．Lay the table. 7．What will the woman get from the shelves? A．Soup bowls. B．Serving dishes. C．Wine glasses. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8．What does the woman think of tomorrow’s mountain biking? A．Easy. B．Challenging. C．Interesting. 9．What class will the man take tomorrow? A．Swimming. B．Basketball. C．Tennis. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10．How does Julie describe the pain in her left knee? A．It has lessened. B．It comes and goes. C．It has gotten worse. 11．When did Julie first feel the pain? A．Three days ago B．Three weeks ago. C．A month ago. 12．How did Julie manage the pain at first? A．She took medicine. B．She applied heat C．She used ice. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13．What does the woman think is good for the man about the flat? A．Its size. B．Its location. C．Its equipment. 14．What is the normal monthly rent for flats in that area? A．£400. B．£450. C．£650. 15．Who might Mr. Brown be? A．The house owner. B．The house agent. C．The present renter. 16．What is the man dissatisfied with about the flat? A．The rent. B．The environment. C．The transport. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17．What is unnecessary during the event? A．Waterproof trousers. B．Jackets. C．Sports shoes. 18．What should the listeners do before cleaning? A．Pack their clothes. B．Collect equipment C．Pick up drinks. 19．What are the listeners advised to do? A．Bring some plastic bags. B．Buy protective gloves. C．Take something to eat. 20．What can the listeners do right after the event? A．Have a picnic. B．Attend a party. C．Weigh the rubbish. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A With the approaching of New Year, more and more visitors will come to China. Don’t know where you should go? Here are some places recommended for you. Shanghai Expo Culture Park The Shanghai Expo Culture Park will soon open its northern section to the public, in which the major attractions include a traditional garden that is similar in design to Shanghai’s famous Yuyuan Garden and a 400-meter avenue exhibiting the history of the area, while in the southern section lies a grand theater. Macao Tower AJ Hackett Bungee Jump The Macao Tower, 338 meters tall, is the world’s 10th highest tower, with a variety of activities, such as eating and entertainment. One of the activities which enjoy good fame is the bungee jump. The AJ Hackett Macao Tower Bungee Jump is 233 meters high, making it a Guinness World Record as the highest commercial (商业的) bungee jump in the world. Raise your arms and off you go! Harbin’s Frozen World For those who have never been to Harbin, there is an almost endless list of things to do. At Harbin Ice—Snow World, you can not only see the world—famous ice architecture, but also have great fun! You can have hotpot at the restaurants which are made of ice, enjoying the product of both ice and fire, go down the world’s longest ice slide (滑梯) and join in the popular Ice and Snow Electronic Music Festival to welcome 2024. The winter is cold and the night is long, so why not go to the theatre? Harbin was listed by the United Nations as a “music city” in 2010. Harbin Grand Theater is where artistic souls defrost (化霜) a little to share their love of art. 1. Where should visitors go if they want to do extreme sports? A. Shanghai Expo Culture Park. B. The Macao Tower. C Shangha’s Yuyuan Garden. D. Harbin Ice—Snow World. 2. What can visitors do in Harbin’s Frozen World? A. Attend a famous music festival. B. Play with both ice and fire. C. Turn water into instant ice. D. Learn to make ice architecture. 3. What do Shanghai Expo Culture Park and Harbin’s Frozen World have in common? A. They have a high tower. B. They have a long ice slide. C. They have a grand theater. D. They have traditional architecture. B Last summer, I went to France for a holiday. I was so excited but also a little nervous because my French was not good. One hot afternoon, after exploring the city, I felt really tired. I wanted to tell my French friend, Claire, “I am a little tired.” I carefully said the words I’d learned: “Je suis un pue fatigue.” But Claire burst out laughing. My face felt hot. What had I done wrong? Claire explained, “In French, there are words that sound similar but have very different meanings. ‘peu’ means ‘a little,’ but if you pronounce it differently, it can sound like ‘pue’, which means ‘stinks’ — like something smells bad. So, instead of saying you needed a rest, it sounded like you were saying you smelled bad and were tired” This awkward (尴尬的) moment was a real eye-opener for me. It made me realize just how daunting pronunciation can be in a foreign language. Even small differences in pronunciation can completely change the meaning of what you’re trying to say. The same is true in English, for example, “ship” (a large boat) and “sheep” (a woolly animal) sound very similar, but they mean totally different things. Now, I pay extra attention to how words sound and what they mean. And if I mix them up again? I’ll just laugh along. After all, laughing is part of learning — even if it’s a bit stinky sometimes. 4. Why was the author nervous about his holiday in France? A. He was poor at French. B. He never went abroad. C. He had no friends there. D. He was in short of money. 5. What awkward moment did the author meet? A. He got a wrong person. B. He made a pronunciation mistake. C. He was tricked by the locals. D. He spelt a word incorrectly. 6. What does the underlined word “daunting” in paragraph 4 most probably mean? A. Easy. B. Natural. C. Difficult. D. Clear. 7. How did the author’s experience in France affect him? A. He smelled bad and was tired. B. He hated learning foreign languages. C. He no longer considered Claire as a friend. D. He became open to mistakes in language learning. C It is no secret that the more time we spend on social media, the less satisfied we may feel with ourselves. We often compare ourselves to influencers and celebrities (名人), which can easily harm our confidence. But how often do you compare your life to your friends’ lives? New research has found that seeing social media posts from our friends can be more harmful than seeing content from celebrities. The study, which looked at how social media affects how we see our own bodies, found that using social media was linked to lower satisfaction with one’s appearance. More importantly, it found that seeing posts from people the participants knew was more than twice as damaging as seeing posts from strangers, including famous people. Professor Viren Swami, a social psychology expert, believes this is partly because we know it’s hard to live the life of a celebrity. However, when we compare ourselves to our friends, it feels like we should — or could — live the way they do. “One possible explanation is that people are more likely to believe a post is achievable if it comes from someone they know. This creates expectation or pressure,” he said “At the same time, people may look more critically at posts by models or celebrities, and see the images they share as less realistic.” This effect is not just limited to body image. We all have areas in our lives that make us feel insecure. Maybe you’ve been looking for a new job for months, and then you see a former classmate on social media who has just landed their dream job. The point is obvious: we only see a small part of others’ lives. If social media makes you feel down, you are probably comparing your real self to others’ perfect appearances. Everyone has their own difficulties, and no one’s life is perfect. So, put down your phone, be thankful for what you have, and focus on living your own life. 8. What is the main finding of the new study? A. Social media leads to negative comments. B. People care more about body image than social life. C. Celebrities have a bad influence on teenagers. D. Friends’ posts affect us more than celebrities’ posts. 9. Why do we compare ourselves more with friends according to Professor Swami? A. Because they are our role models. B. Because we are familiar with their lives. C. Because their success seems easier to achieve. D. Because we are more curious about their lives. 10. What is the author’s attitude towards using social media? A. Supportive. B. Uninterested. C. Negative. D. Uncertain. 11. What does the author suggest people do at the end of the passage? A. Find a dream and work hard for it. B. Stop complaining and start working C. Be thankful and try to be perfect. D. Stop comparing and be yourself. D Many people wonder when the best time to exercise is. Experts have different opinions about morning, evening and afternoon workouts. To explore these differences further, let’s look at the benefits of exercising at different times of the day. Dr. Jagim from Mayo Clinic Health System says, “Morning workouts make you feel like you do something good and start the day on a happy note.” After a morning workout, people feel good because of endorphins (内啡肽). Also, mornings are usually free from other things to do, allowing people to enjoy their afternoons and evenings without worrying about exercise. For morning workouts, Dr. Jagim says, “Eating a varied breakfast with carbohydrates, protein, and healthy fats is important. This gives energy for the workout.” “However, for some people, waking up early to exercise is the last thing they feel like doing, and therefore, the case for evening workouts is more attractive. Your body works best in the early evening.” says Jake Erickson, a sports medicine specialist. “This is a good time to exercise. During this time, your body has time to wake up a bit by moving around throughout the day. Also, your body uses oxygen better in the evening. This helps you use your energy more efficiently when you exercise.” A study with over 90,000 people found that exercising in the afternoon is better for your heart and helps you live longer than exercising in the morning or evening. This is especially true for older people. Dr. Gende, emergency physician at Mayo Clinic Health System, says that morning workouts might not be good for people who work late shifts or stay up late. For them, it’s better to sleep more in the morning and then do a workout in the middle of the day or early afternoon before their next shift. While science gives ideas, experts agree the best time matches personal plans and energy. Consistency is more important than timing. 12. What does Dr. Jagim recommend for morning workouts? A. Taking in more fats. B. Having a healthy breakfast C. Drinking enough water. D. Avoiding staying up late the night before. 13. What might Jake Erickson agree with? A. Early evening workouts suit late risers. B. The later night exercisers wake up, the better. C. All people’s bodies work best in the late evening. D. Morning workouts set a positive tone for night workers. 14. Which group benefits most from afternoon workouts according to the study? A. Young women. B. Teenagers C. Children. D. Older people 15. Which of the following is the best title for the text? A. When is the Best Time to Exercise? B. What is Important for a Healthy Body? C. What Role Does Food Play During Workouts? D. Why is Evening Exercise Good for Everyone? 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Teaching your children about world cultures helps them appreciate the differences in people and their traditions. ____16____ Instead, use your imagination to explore the world without even needing a suitcase. Create a Passport. Help them make a small book to serve as their “passport”. ____17____ That way, you can draw or glue a picture of the country’s flag to stamp the pages of their “passports” as they “travel” to learn about world cultures. Learn Cultural Customs. What you might do in your home country isn’t necessarily acceptable in other countries. Learning about each culture’s customs can be important for you both ____18____ Your left hand is considered unclean in India, so pass all food or objects to other people with your right one. ____19____ Learning a foreign language is fun for children. When they’re exploring world cultures, study each country’s official language. Celebrate Holidays. Keep a calendar of upcoming holidays celebrated in other countries. ____20____ For example, Australia, Canada, New Zealand and the United Kingdom observe Boxing Day. The holiday’s tradition includes giving money and donations to organizations and people in need. To celebrate, the two of you can box some canned goods for the local food bank. You can also drop a few bills or donate things to a nonprofit. A. Teach the Language. B. You celebrate it with fireworks. C. The pages should be blank on the inside. D. Pointing at things with feet in Thailand is not polite. E. Achieving this doesn’t require just opening a textbook. F. Celebrate national holidays just as people in that country do G. Take them to a heritage and cultural center when you are free. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When 17-year-old Zhang Wei joined the school’s “offline book club”, he didn’t expect the experience to reshape his attitude toward digital life. For years, he’d been ____21____ to his phone — scrolling social media even during class breaks, which made him ____22____ in group discussions and fall behind in his ____23____. The book club, started by two teachers, aims to help students ____24____ the over-reliance on digital devices. Members meet every Friday afternoon to discuss books they’ve read. At first, Zhang felt ____25____ without his phone, worried he might miss important messages. But as he ____26____ himself in the stories and shared his thoughts with peers, he found a sense of ____27____ he’d never had before. “A classmate pointed out a detail in the book that I totally ____28____,” Zhang said. “That made me realize how much I’d been ____29____ by short videos — they only show surface-level information, not deep thinking.” Now, he ____30____ his phone use to 30 minutes after finishing homework, and uses the extra time to prepare for class ____31____ or write reading notes. The change has also improved his ____32____ with classmates. Instead of chatting through emojis, they now talk about their ____33____ on books, which helps them ____34____ understand each other’s values. “It’s not easy to ____35____ the habit of checking phones often,” Zhang admitted. “But the more I focus on real interactions, the more meaningful my school life becomes.” 21. A. accustomed B. addicted C. related D. connected 22. A. active B. confused C. curious D. silent 23. A. courses B. activities C. experiments D. hobbies 24. A. overcome B. accept C. ignore D. hide 25. A. calm B. relaxed C. anxious D. satisfied 26. A. applied B. exposed C. devoted D. buried 27. A. creativity B. engagement C. freedom D. curiosity 28. A. missed B. remembered C. understood D. noticed 29. A. inspired B. limited C. challenged D. entertained 30. A. devotes B. cuts C. reduces D. restricts 31. A. reports B. exams C. projects D. trips 32. A. friendships B. partnerships C. relationships D. acquaintances 33. A. comments B. impressions C. feelings D. opinions 34 A. widely B. deeply C. hardly D. simply 35. A. form B. keep C. break D. develop 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或所给单词的正确形式。 Palace Museum at 600: Old Palace New Vitality (活力) In 2025, an exhibition titled “Everlasting Splendor: Six Centuries at the Forbidden City” was held at the Palace Museum in Beijing to celebrate its 600th birthday. The exhibition ____36____ allowed visitors to better appreciate the cultural charm of the palace focused ____37____ more than 450 cultural relics and historical photos. The Forbidden City was completed in 1420 and a total of 24 emperors lived and worked there. In many people’s eyes, its beauty lies in the palace complex (宫殿群), an ____38____ (extreme) precious and splendid artwork. With more than 70 palaces of various sizes and over 9,000 rooms, it is one of the ____39____ (large) and most complete existing wooden structures in the world. It is also mysterious because ancient Chinese philosophies (哲学) were integrated (融为) into ____40____ unique architecture. However, the sense of mystery has faded gradually since it was transformed into the Palace Museum in 1925. As a world-famous museum, the Palace Museum makes ____41____ possible for visitors to admire more than 1.8 million artifacts (历史文物). Recently, it ____42____ (attract) many tourists from home and abroad to visit and take photos. ____43____ (explore) all aspects of the museum, the Palace Museum has launched creative products on sale e-commerce platforms. ____44____ (compare) with western history, China’s history has to some extent shaped the mental world of the Chinese people. Nowadays the Palace Museum has become a brand-new cultural symbol and also leaves a deep ____45____ (impress) on visitors. 第四部分 应用文写作（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你的美国好友Jack即将来在寒假里到中国旅行，请你为他的中国之旅推荐一个旅游目的地城市，内容包括： 1.旅行的城市： 2.旅行的景点和理由： 3.咨询他的意见。 注意： 1．词数80左右; 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear Jack, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第五部分 单句填空（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 单词（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面每个句子，根据内容和所给信息用其正确形式填空，使之构成一个完整的句子。 47. She spent a whole afternoon preparing a practical ________ (arrange) for the group study.(所给词的适当形式填空) 48. With the development of AI, robots are becoming more and more ________ (power) in various fields. (所给词的适当形式填空) 49. ________ (amaze) at how quickly she mastered the difficult grammar, the teacher praised her in class. (所给词的适当形式填空) 50. The teacher will choose three excellent ________ (apply) to represent the class in the basketball match. (所给词的适当形式填空) 51. The history textbook gives a ________ (detail) description of the important events in World War II. (所给词的适当形式填空) 52. Doing yoga for 30 minutes a day is a simple way to enhance your physical and mental ________ (fit). (所给词的适当形式填空) 53. Be careful with the broken glass in the lab — you might get ________ (injure) if you touch it carelessly. (所给词的适当形式填空) 54. The teacher told us that ________ (fail) is a necessary part of growth, not a sign of weakness. (所给词的适当形式填空) 55. This year’s school basketball match is more ________ (compete) than last year because more strong teams joined. (所给词的适当形式填空) 56. His greatest ________ (strong) in study is his carefulness in solving math problems. (所给词的适当形式填空) 57. The old street near our school has ________ (狭窄的) roads that are full of small shops. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 58. She practiced the piano for 2 years and got a gold ________ (奖章) in the school art festival. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 59. We attended an interesting ________ (讲座) about English learning skills in the school hall. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 60. She was chosen as the ________ (队长) of the English debate team because of her excellent speaking skills. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 61. As a class leader, it’s your ________ (责任) to help classmates with study problems. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 第二节 短语（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面每个句子，根据内容和所给信息用其正确形式填空，使之构成一个完整的句子。 62. She always works hard and ________ (给……树立好榜样) her classmates with her sense of responsibility. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 63. Don’t forget to ________ (登记入住) at the hotel in advance. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 64. ________ (放弃) junk food and exercising regularly helped him improve his health greatly. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 65. The old man ________ (集中精力于) growing vegetables in his small garden since he retired. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 66. ________ (即使) the road is full of difficulties, we should never give up. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 67. Every small action can ________ (有影响) in protecting the environment (根据汉语提示完成句子) 68. The new management team ________ (接管) the company and carried out a series of reforms. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 69. My father is thinking of ________ (申请) a job as a salesman. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 70. Her choice to learn a second language ________ (有道理), as it will open more career doors. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 71. He ________ (对……很入迷) social media and checks his phone constantly. (根据汉语提示完成句子) 2025年11月高一年级五校联考试题 英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试试卷120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生先在答题卡上用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写清楚，然后贴好条形码。请认真核准条形码上的准考证号、姓名和科目。 2．答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，在试题卷上作答无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C。 1．How much should the man pay? A．£10. B．£20. C．£30. 2．What do we know about the man? A．He took interesting photos. B．He won three competitions. C．He has competition experience. 3．What did Rob do last night? A．He had a course. B．He played on stage. C．He watched a performance. 4．Where does the conversation most probably take place? A．At home. B．At a restaurant. C．At a supermarket. 5．What are the speakers talking about? A．A class. B．A report. C．A project. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What does the woman ask the man to do? A．Pass the pepper. B．Cook some meat. C．Lay the table. 7．What will the woman get from the shelves? A．Soup bowls. B．Serving dishes. C．Wine glasses. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8．What does the woman think of tomorrow’s mountain biking? A．Easy. B．Challenging. C．Interesting. 9．What class will the man take tomorrow? A．Swimming. B．Basketball. C．Tennis. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10．How does Julie describe the pain in her left knee? A．It has lessened. B．It comes and goes. C．It has gotten worse. 11．When did Julie first feel the pain? A．Three days ago. B．Three weeks ago. C．A month ago. 12．How did Julie manage the pain at first? A．She took medicine. B．She applied heat C．She used ice. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13．What does the woman think is good for the man about the flat? A．Its size. B．Its location. C．Its equipment. 14．What is the normal monthly rent for flats in that area? A．£400. B．£450. C．£650. 15．Who might Mr. Brown be? A．The house owner. B．The house agent. C．The present renter. 16．What is the man dissatisfied with about the flat? A．The rent. B．The environment. C．The transport. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17．What is unnecessary during the event? A．Waterproof trousers. B．Jackets. C．Sports shoes. 18．What should the listeners do before cleaning? A．Pack their clothes. B．Collect equipment C．Pick up drinks. 19．What are the listeners advised to do? A．Bring some plastic bags. B．Buy protective gloves. C．Take something to eat. 20．What can the listeners do right after the event? A．Have a picnic. B．Attend a party. C．Weigh the rubbish. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. C 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12 B 13. A 14. D 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. F 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. which##that 37. on 38. extremely 39. largest 40. its 41. it 42. has attracted 43. To explore 44. Compared 45. impression 第四部分 应用文写作（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】 Dear Jack, I’m thrilled you’re visiting China this winter vacation! I strongly recommend Xi’an, a city with a long history. It’s home to the Terracotta Army, which is one of the world’s greatest wonders and shows ancient Chinese civilization. You can also visit the ancient city wall, where you can walk or rent a bike to enjoy the city’s beauty. Xi’an’s snacks are delicious too — yangrou paomo and roujiamo are popular. What makes Xi’an special is that it blends history with modern life. You’ll surely have a wonderful time there. Please tell me your thought soon! Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第五部分 单句填空（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 单词（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面每个句子，根据内容和所给信息用其正确形式填空，使之构成一个完整的句子。 【47题答案】 【答案】arrangement 【48题答案】 【答案】powerful 【49题答案】 【答案】Amazed 【50题答案】 【答案】applicants 【51题答案】 【答案】detailed 【52题答案】 【答案】fitness 【53题答案】 【答案】injured 【54题答案】 【答案】failure 【55题答案】 【答案】competitive 【56题答案】 【答案】strength 【57题答案】 【答案】narrow 【58题答案】 【答案】medal 【59题答案】 【答案】lecture 【60题答案】 【答案】captain 【61题答案】 【答案】responsibility 第二节 短语（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面每个句子，根据内容和所给信息用其正确形式填空，使之构成一个完整的句子。 【62题答案】 【答案】sets a good example for 【63题答案】 【答案】check in 【64题答案】 【答案】Giving up 【65题答案】 【答案】has concentrated on##has focused on 【66题答案】 【答案】Even if##Even though 【67题答案】 【答案】make a difference 【68题答案】 【答案】took over 【69题答案】 【答案】applying for 【70题答案】 【答案】makes sense 【71题答案】 【答案】is addicted to 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $