内容正文:
2025~2026 学年第一学期高二第二次月考
英语试题
考生注意:
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围:至外研版选择性必修第二册Unit2。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. Where did the woman have lunch?
A. In the office. B. At a cafe. C. At home.
2. What are the speakers doing?
A. Watching TV. B. Attending a show. C. Making some cakes.
3. What is the weather like now?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snowy.
4. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A special market. B. A holiday plan. C. A car show.
5. What are the speakers going to do this afternoon?
A. Go cycling. B. Watch a movie. C. Do some running.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Husband and wife.
7. What does the man need to do now?
A. Turn back. B. Call his friend. C. Get the car started.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What did the man take to school on his first day?
A. A toy. B. A book. C. A blanket.
9. What can we learn about the man?
A. He had good grades. B. He married his classmate. C. He enjoyed the school days.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What happened to the speakers?
A. They took a wrong turning.
B They got on the wrong bus.
C. They got off at the wrong stop.
11. How will the speakers go to the Book Building?
A. By taxi. B. On foot. C. By bus.
12. What will the man do next?
A. Have a rest. B. Look for the stop. C. Buy an ice cream.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. When will the woman get to the restaurant?
A. At 6:00 pm. B. At 6:30 pm. C. At 7:00 pm.
14. How many adults are there in the woman’s group?
A.5. B.8. C.14.
15. Where will the children sit?
A. At a long table. B. At a large table. C. At a round table.
16. What will the children eat besides vegetable dishes?
A. Chips. B. Chicken. C. Seafood.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Why is Jack’s achievement so unusual?
A. He is blind. B. He is very old. C. He has only three legs.
18. How old was Jack when he got the disease?
A6. B.7. C.10.
19. How does Jack usually go into ponds?
A. By listening to his owner.
B. By using his sense of smell.
C. By following other dogs.
20. How did Jack’s owner feel before the competition?
A. Stressed. B. Disappointed. C. Confident.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
New Yorkers, get ready! The World Cup 2026 is coming, and if you want to secure tickets, you need to act fast. This isn’t just another sports event; it’s a once in a lifetime opportunity happening right in your backyard.
How to get your 2026 World Cup tickets before anyone else
The usual ticket rush hasn’t started yet, but there’s already a special way to ensure your spot at the world’s biggest competition. FIFA has opened a first chance access system, allowing fans to secure their tickets through VIP packages.
This means no waiting in long queues and no last-minute ticket stress. The only way to lock in your seats now is through this early access program. But here’s the catch: spots are filling up fast.
Why you need to move fast
New York and New Jersey will host many important World Cup games, including the finale. That means demand for tickets in the area will be higher than ever. If you wait until the general sale, you might find yourself out of luck.
With a returnable deposit (押金), you can secure priority access and be among the first to choose your seats when ticket sales officially begin. This isn’t just a ticket; it’s an experience: VIP areas and best seating, and the best views of the action.
How to sign up for first chance access
If you want to be part of the World Cup 2026, here’s what you need to do;
·Go to FIFA’s official VIP provider and register.
·Place a deposit to reserve your first chance spot.
·Wait for the special access ticket window to open, giving you the first pick before general sales.
This is the only way to ensure your place in history. Don’t wait until it’s too late, secure your access now and be part of the biggest sports event ever hosted in North America.
1. How can people get World Cup tickets without waiting in long lines?
A. Through a special early booking program. B. By buying tickets later during general sales.
C. By contacting FIFA directly. D. Through local ticket offices.
2. What kind of games will New York and New Jersey host?
A. Only group stage matches. B. Only the opening game.
C. Many important games including the finale. D. Practice games before the event.
3. What do you get with early booking besides a ticket?
A. Free travel to the stadium. B. VIP areas and best seats.
C. A chance to play with players. D. Free food and drinks.
B
A New York food bank took on a huge task this month when LocalCoho, an eco-friendly fish farm in Auburn, offered 40,000 pounds of live salmon (鲑鱼) before closing forever. The gift — equal to 13,000 fish swimming in giant tanks — created both a chance to help and a race against time: Workers needed to turn the live fish into frozen meals quickly to avoid waste and feed hungry families.
LocalCoho had developed special water-saving methods to raise fish for top-quality sushi shops but couldn’t get enough money to grow. With the farm closing on January 31st, manager Adam Kramarsyck wanted to donate the fish instead of turning them into fuel. “We’re making something good from a bad situation,” he explained. Normally, the farm could only handle 600 fish per week by hand — nowhere near enough to clear tanks holding ten times more.
The food bank gathered 42 helpers who stepped into waist-high water, using nets to catch the fish. “The short time limit made everything more stressful,” said operations leader Brian McManus. Volunteer Christina Hudson Kohler, who usually sorts vegetables, traded her regular job for a new task. She put on rubber boots and heavy gloves to move struggling fish into cooling boxes. Farm workers stayed late to help, while a trucking company offered free refrigerated delivery to a nearby food factory.
In just three weeks, the team created over 26,000 frozen fish meals for 238 food banks and shelters — a huge protein supply for families struggling to afford food. “Meat is super important but hard to get for people in need,” McManus said, calling this the biggest fish donation they’d ever received. The project saved tons of food that might have been thrown away, such as 35% of America’s uneaten groceries.
Kramarsyck felt proud that the farm’s earth-friendly ideas still helped people despite closing. Food buyer Andrew Katzer admired the farm’s effort. “Most failing businesses would give up, but the farm’s workers worked overtime to save every fish,” he said.
As frozen salmon reaches community kitchens across New York, the far-reaching impact of different groups working together is truly remarkable. Though LocalCoho’s business didn’t survive, its last gift became a powerful lesson in teamwork and hope — one fish fillet (鱼片) at a time.
4. What made LocalCoho decide to close its fish farm?
A. Water shortage. B. Lack of funds.
C. Low fish quality. D. Reduced food demand.
5. What can we infer from paragraph 3?
A. Sorting vegetables was simple for volunteers.
B. The food bank had many fish-loving volunteers.
C. Handling the fish was pressing and challenging.
D. The food bank often dealt with large fish donations.
6. What can we learn from Andrew Katzer’s words?
A. He spoke highly of LocalCoho’s effort.
B. He suggested LocalCoho should expand.
C. He felt most businesses focused only on profit.
D. He doubted the effectiveness of the donation.
7. What does the author want to stress in this story?
A. The difficulty food banks face. B. The need to support fish farms.
C. The importance of courage. D. The power of teamwork.
C
Politicians often use humor to win public support, but scientists traditionally avoid jokes, worried that a lighthearted tone might reduce their authority and, consequently, the trustworthiness of their findings. A new study challenges this idea, showing that well-chosen humor can actually make scientists more likable and their research more trustworthy.
Led by Alexandra Lynn Frank from the University of Georgia, the research tested humor’s role in science communication through social media. The team created posts from a fictional scientist, Dr. Jamie Devon, sharing cartoons about artificial intelligence (AI). These posts used three humor styles: playful comparisons (like giving robots human characteristics), mean jokes about technology, or a mix of both. Some posts had no humor as a comparison.
Over 2,200 participants viewed these posts in an online experiment. They rated how funny the content was, how much they liked the scientist, and how credible the information seemed. Results revealed that light, positive humor — such as showing AI as a curious robot asking questions — made the scientist feel more approachable and the research more reliable. However, mean or unfriendly jokes reduced trust in the scientist.
“Humor helps people connect with scientists,” Frank explained. “When we laugh, we’re more open to listening.” But she stressed that jokes must feel natural, adding, “If the audience doesn’t find it funny, it could backfire.” For example, playful cartoons worked better than making fun of tech failures.
The study advises scientists to avoid tough jokes targeting individuals. Instead, gentle humor that simplifies complex ideas — like comparing climate change to the Earth having a “fever” — can build interest and fight misinformation. While focused on AI, these tips apply to fields like health or environmental science.
In today’s fast-paced digital world, humor could help scientists stand out on social media. Funny posts may attract more viewers, make tough topics easier to understand, and build public trust. The key is balancing fun with facts: lighthearted jokes don’t weaken expertise but create friendly, memorable connections.
Frank’s team hopes their findings encourage scientists to experiment with humor. As one participant noted, “A scientist who jokes feels more human— like someone I’d trust.”
8. Scientists avoid using jokes in their communication because they fear that jokes ______.
A. waste research time B. might confuse the public
C. make their work seem unreliable D. distract from scientific facts
9. What does the underlined word “backfire” in paragraph 4 probably mean?
A. Be effective. B. Have the opposite result.
C. Be natural. D. Make people laugh.
10. According to the study, what kind of humor is recommended for scientists?
A. Jokes that target individuals. B. Making fun of technology failures.
C. Playful comparisons and gentle jokes. D. Using complex ideas to create humor.
11. What is the best title for the text?
A. Science and Social Media.
B. Jokes in Various Social Contexts.
C. The Impact of Humor on Public Trust.
D. The Role of Humor in Science Communication.
D
The bald eagle, America’s national symbol of strength and freedom, has made an inspiring comeback from near extinction. Once endangered due to harmful pesticides and habitat loss, these great birds now fly across skies they nearly disappeared from decades ago. Their story is one of environmental recovery and cultural pride.
In the mid-20th century, the widespread use of the insecticide DDT caused eagle populations to drop sharply. The chemical weakened eggshells, making it nearly impossible for chicks to survive. By the 1980s, states like New Jersey had only one nesting (筑巢的) pair left.
But after DDT was prohibited in 1972, conservation (保护) efforts began. Scientists transported eagles from stable populations in Canada and used creative methods, like replacing real eggs with fake ones, to protect chicks. These efforts paid off: New Jersey now has over 300 nesting pairs, and the species was removed from the US endangered list in 2007.
“They’re a conservation success story,” says Maia Edwards of the American Bald Eagle Foundation. Eagles have proven adaptable, nesting even in busy areas like suburban neighborhoods. Kathy Clark, a wildlife expert in New Jersey, recalls young eagles surviving in a crowded town near New York. “They’re tough — like true Jersey birds,” she says with a sense of wonder.
However, challenges remain. Crashes with cars, habitat loss and diseases like bird flu threaten their recovery. Zoos and rescue centers, such as New Jersey’s Turtle Back Zoo, care for injured birds that can’t return to the wild. Conservationists stress the need for clean waterways and protected spaces to ensure eagles grow well.
Culturally, the bald eagle’s comeback has won hearts. Recent laws officially declared it America’s national bird, though many assumed it already was. Native American communities, who view eagles as spiritual symbols, supported the move. The birds also inspire sports fans — like the Philadelphia Eagles football team competing in this year’s Super Bowl.
For average Americans, spotting a bald eagle remains amazing. Birdwatcher Dan Day, who grew up rarely seeing them, now encounters eagles regularly. “It brightens up your whole day,” he says. Experts remind people to admire eagles from a distance, as troubling them harms their recovery.
12. What is the third paragraph mainly about?
A. The history of the bald eagle. B. The success of conservation efforts.
C. The current situation of bald eagles. D. The challenges faced by bald eagles.
13. How does Kathy Clark feel about bald eagles living in crowded New Jersey towns?
A. She is surprised by their ability to adapt.
B. She worries they will trouble human life.
C. She thinks they are a danger to local pets.
D. She believes they belong only in distant areas.
14. Why does the author mention the Philadelphia Eagles football team?
A. To emphasize bald eagles’ cultural influence.
B. To compare sports strategies with conservation.
C. To question the destructive business of wildlife.
D. To highlight unique regional birdwatching spots.
15. What can be learned about bald eagles?
A. They attack humans who get too close.
B. They prefer living in zoos over the wild.
C. Birdwatchers never see them in urban areas.
D. Human interaction could slow their recovery.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Good sportsmanship (体育精神) is important because it makes competitive play more enjoyable for everyone participating in the competition.___16___. This positive approach reduces conflicts and helps players focus on the game. However, bad sportsmanship creates a negative environment and can take the fun out of the game.___17___:
Win with grace (优雅)
Winning doesn’t make one team more superior to the other; it means that the winning team’s skills and best efforts put them in the best position to win that game. You can be excited about your victory, but you can’t put down the opponents (对手).
Play fair
___18___. Fair play means having a level playing field. Every competitor has an equal opportunity to win. If you want to win a game, everyone must start with the same conditions as the opposing team or the player and follow the rules of the game.
Picture the future
Sometimes you’ll have to compete against a friend, family member, or loved one, and it can be hard to put that relationship aside during competitions.___19___. She often says, “In 10years, it’s not going to really matter. No one is going to remember this match. No one’s going to really think about it.”
Shake hands
In many sports, it is customary to shake hands with the opposing player or team after a game.___20___. This simple gesture helps everyone remember what truly matters in sports.
A. Healthy competition requires equal effort
B. Cheating at a game is poor sportsmanship
C. This behavior improves teamwork skills
D. Here are some tips for developing good sportsmanship
E. Whether you win or lose, this shows respect for others
F. Good sportsmanship teaches competitors how to be respectful to others
G. For example, tennis superstar Serena Williams chooses to focus on the future
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Earlier this year,7-year-old Adriana suffered a serious injury in an accident. One of the first to ____21____ to her side was Ricky Powell, a rescue worker from Douglas County Fire/EMS. During those key first moments, Ricky stayed ____22____ and kept focused on giving Adriana the immediate care she ____23____. From that day on, the two became ____24____.
Weeks later, it was Adriana’s first day back to school — a day she had eagerly looked forward to after weeks of ____25____. To her great surprise, Ricky appeared at the school gate as she ____26____ up with her mom. Several teachers nearby also ____27____ to watch, smiling at the heartwarming scene. This time, he didn’t ____28____ any medical supplies. Instead, he held a handful of bright flowers, some small toys as ____29____, and flashed a big, warm smile. A week earlier, Ricky had ____30____ Adriana’s mom about her favorite things, just to make her return to school a little more ____31____.
As soon as Adriana saw Ricky, her face ____32____. “Mr. Ricky” she called out ____33____. She let go of her mom’s hand and ran toward him, her eyes filled with happiness. She ____34____ her arms around him, and Ricky gently patted (拍) her back, saying, “Welcome back to school, Adriana.” In that moment, Adriana could ____35____ how much care Ricky had for her-far more than just the help he’d provided before.
21. A. point B. shout C. rush D. fall
22. A. ashamed B. annoyed C. thankful D. calm
23. A. needed B. recognized C. refused D. missed
24. A. roommates B. cousins C. friends D. classmates
25. A. reflection B. hesitation C. uncertainty D. recovery
26. A. walked B. caught C. teamed D. rolled
27. A. pretended B. gathered C. struggled D. promised
28. A. borrow B. waste C. carry D. hide
29. A. tools B. gifts C. rewards D. symbols
30. A. asked B. reminded C. informed D. warned
31. A. reasonable B. special C. flexible D. adventurous
32 A. tightened up B. clouded over C. cooled down D. lit up
33. A. excitedly B. worriedly C. nervously D. roughly
34. A. waved B. touched C. threw D. cleaned
35. A. prove B. express C. doubt D. feel
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The second China-Australia Dialogue Exhibition, ____36____ (title) “Postcards from China: An Artistic Odyssey”, opened at the China Cultural Centre in Sydney on August 28, attracting around 110 attendees from the cultural, artistic ____37____ media circles of the two countries.
The opening ceremony featured a ____38____ (wonder) performance of guzheng solo High Mountains and Flowing Water, one of China’s ten great ancient ____39____ (piece), and Eugène Ysaye’s Violin Sonata No.2, Op. 27.
Co-organized ____40____ the centre, the Australian Watercolor Institute and Guangxi Arts University, the exhibition featured 40 works by 10 Chinese and Australian artists that explore themes of cultural integration and exchange.
Wang Shuyu, cultural counselor of the Chinese Consulate General in Sydney, highlighted the unique power of art in crossing borders and ____41____ (build) friendship between the two countries. “These creations are not ____42____ (mere) paintings on paper; they’re like postcards carrying stories, dreams and hopes between the two nations,” she said.
David van Nunen president of the Australian Watercolor Institute, ____43____ (stress) the exhibition’s role in showcasing the outcomes of a visit to China by Australian artists, ____44____ lasted from August last year to July this year. “We are devoted to advancing cross-cultural exchanges and look forward to deeper cooperation with China not only ____45____ (open) up more spaces for artistic creation, but also to build a closer emotional bond between artists from both sides,” he said.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,前几天收到报社的来信,邀请你为其旅游专栏撰写一篇短文,作为某本旅游手册的宣传内容。请你选择家乡或熟悉的一个具有文化特色的城市,完成这篇宣传文。要点如下:
1.该地方的基本情况(如地理位置,气候等);
2.该地方的特色(如文化、历史、景点、特色美食等);
3.该地方对游客的意义。
注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
At just nine years old, my life got really messed up. My dad, who was a doctor, suddenly lost his job at a local hospital. This one bad thing hit our family hard and turned our once-stable life upside down. Because we couldn’t pay the mortgage(贷款), we had to leave our nice house. Our new home became a small truck that we used to take out only for nice weekend camping trips. I had to quickly leave my private school, and my parents started the tough job of teaching me at home.
Life in the truck was really tough. Space was super tight. The first time our whole family — Mom, Dad, and I — sat on the small couch that became my parents’ bed at night, we felt uncomfortable. We spent many days and nights driving around, really trying hard to find safe and legal places to park our mobile home. At one really bad time, we had no choice but to park in a far-away, lonely lot on the edge of town, far from the nice things in town.
The situation was really tough. As the last bit of our small amount of food — just a single piece of fried chicken — was cooked on the stovetop, we could feel how bad things were. My mom, with a worried look on her face, sat at the small table. She knew our food was almost consumed, so she started writing a shopping list. Even though things seemed hopeless, our family didn’t want to just sit around and wait for help from others. Instead, we decided to do something by ourselves to get through this hard time.
One day, when I was helping my dad clean the old, dusty truck, I found an old box full of things we could recycle — empty cans, glass bottles, and some scrap metal. We took them to the recycling center. The money we got, even though it wasn’t a lot, was a nice addition to our small amount of money for food. This small act of mine inspired my mom, who had always been a full-time housewife and was good at baking, to use her skills to make money.
注意:1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Every day, she would rise early and get down to work.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025~2026 学年第一学期高二第二次月考
英语试题
考生注意:
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围:至外研版选择性必修第二册Unit2。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. Where did the woman have lunch?
A. In the office. B. At a cafe. C. At home.
2. What are the speakers doing?
A. Watching TV. B. Attending a show. C. Making some cakes.
3. What is the weather like now?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snowy.
4. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A special market. B. A holiday plan. C. A car show.
5. What are the speakers going to do this afternoon?
A. Go cycling. B. Watch a movie. C. Do some running.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Husband and wife.
7. What does the man need to do now?
A. Turn back. B. Call his friend. C. Get the car started.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What did the man take to school on his first day?
A. A toy. B. A book. C. A blanket.
9. What can we learn about the man?
A. He had good grades. B. He married his classmate. C. He enjoyed the school days.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10 What happened to the speakers?
A. They took a wrong turning.
B. They got on the wrong bus.
C. They got off at the wrong stop.
11. How will the speakers go to the Book Building?
A. By taxi. B. On foot. C. By bus.
12. What will the man do next?
A. Have a rest. B. Look for the stop. C. Buy an ice cream.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. When will the woman get to the restaurant?
A. At 6:00 pm. B. At 6:30 pm. C. At 7:00 pm.
14. How many adults are there in the woman’s group?
A.5. B.8. C.14.
15. Where will the children sit?
A. At a long table. B. At a large table. C. At a round table.
16. What will the children eat besides vegetable dishes?
A. Chips. B. Chicken. C. Seafood.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Why is Jack’s achievement so unusual?
A. He is blind. B. He is very old. C. He has only three legs.
18. How old was Jack when he got the disease?
A.6. B.7. C.10.
19. How does Jack usually go into ponds?
A. By listening to his owner.
B. By using his sense of smell.
C. By following other dogs.
20. How did Jack’s owner feel before the competition?
A. Stressed. B. Disappointed. C. Confident.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. F 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. E
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. D
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. titled
37. and 38. wonderful
39. pieces 40. by
41. building
42. merely 43. stressed
44. which 45. to open
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Welcome to Hangzhou
Located in eastern China, Hangzhou enjoys a pleasant climate and is famed for its poetic West Lake. Strolling around the lake, visitors can admire ancient temples and peaceful gardens.
What makes the city unique is its rich cultural heritage. You can explore centuries-old tea plantations and taste delicate local dishes like West Lake Fish in Vinegar Gravy. Immersing yourself in this atmosphere, you’ll feel a perfect harmony between man and nature.
This blend of natural beauty and profound culture offers every traveler not just a journey, but a peaceful retreat for the heart and mind.
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Every day, she would rise early and get down to work. She looked through our small kitchen cabinet for ingredients and experimented with new recipes, making the most of what little we had. As word spread in the local community about her delicious treats, more and more people came to buy. She even started taking special orders for birthdays and small gatherings. Her tired face finally lit up when she saw the first few dollars she earned. The income from her baking steadily grew, providing a much-needed boost to our finances.
My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting. He expanded his search area and networked with old friends and colleagues, constantly asking for referrals. Finally, after countless interviews and rejections, his perseverance paid off. One evening, as Mom was sharing her modest earnings, my dad received a phone call. “I got a position!” he announced, his voice filled with emotion. He pulled us into a tight hug, joyful tears streaming down. This new job not only brought in a stable income but also hope for a brighter future.
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