浙江省温州市瑞安市六校联考2025-2026学年九年级上学期12月月考英语试题

2025 学年第一学期九年级阶段性检测英语卷 2025.12 注意事项: 1. 本试卷满分 120 分，考试时间 100 分钟。 2. 答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号 3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。 4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。 第一部分：听力理解(共三节，满分20分) 第一节(共5 小题 ;每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does Alex live now? A. Canada. B. Australia. C. England. 2. What does Tim’s brother look like? A. He is tall and he has short hair. B. He has curly hair and wears glasses. C. He is tall and he has curly hair. 3. How many points did the girl get? A. 22. B. 27. C. 78. 4. What will the girl probably do? A. Go for a picnic. B. Wait for the sunny weather. C. Go to see a movie. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Wonders. B. Great books. C. History. 第二节(共5 小题 ;每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分) 听下面 2 段较长对话。每段对话后有 2-3 个小题，从各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有 10-15 秒钟的作答时间。对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长的对话，回答第 6-7 两个小题。 6. Why does Mrs Smith call Mr White? A. To invite him to a party. B. To ask him for help. C. To introduce new friends to him. 7. What's the relationship between the speakers? A. Friends. B. Classmates. C. Neighbours. 听下面一段较长对语，回答第 8至第10三个小题。 8. What’s the girl preparing for? A. A TV show about heroes. B. A report about heroes. C. A novel about heroes. 9. Who does the boy think are heroes? A. People who are helpful to the development of our country. B. People who protect us from danger. C. People who work very hard. 10. What do they decide to do at last? A. Learn from the heroes and work hard. B. Make a TV show about heroes together. C. Help more poor people. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，请从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读每个小题。听完后，每个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 11. What kind of museum will the students visit? A. science museum. B. A history museum. C. A natural museum. 12. What can students see on the second floor? A. Ancient technology. B. Modern inventions. C. Future life. 13. How can you learn more about the museum? A. Read textbooks. B. Read magazines. C. Look for information online. 14. When should the students hand in their reports? A. This Friday. B. Next Friday . C. Next Monday. 15. Who might be the speaker? A. A guide B. A teacher. C. A parent. 第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分 40 分) 第一节：阅读理解(共 15 小题 ; 每小题 2 分，满分 30 分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A http://www. goodreads.com Home My Books Reviews Search Distant Sunflower Fields By Li Juan 4.0 290 Rating(评分) 45 Reviews The book tells the story of the writer and her mother. They have grown sunflowers in a field for a few years. Just like Li’s other writings, this story also takes place in Altay in the northern part of Xinjiang. In this story, they lived in a big and dry field with two dogs, some Want to buy Rate this book chickens and rabbits. It seemed difficult for golden flowers to grow in such a place. But they made effort to grow sunflowers and never gave up the hope of harvest. Finally...MORE Reviews Zhang Xinyi rated it October 26, 2025 It’s a great book which should be read over and over again. I love this book because even with the drought (干旱), Li and her mother made their way out and reached their goal— harvest. I feel deeply moved while reading it. 16. How many reviews does the book get? A. 4 B. 290 C. 45 D. 26 17. Why does Zhang Xinyi give a five-star rating to the book? A. Because she loves sunflowers. B. Because she is moved when reading the book. C. Because she wants to learn more about Xinjiang. D. Because she is interested in how to grow sunflowers. 18. Where may you read the text? A.In a dictionary. B. In a newspaper. C. On a website. D. In a guidebook. B Do you know that many people drown(溺水) every year because there aren’t good tools to help them in time? Can we create a strong and helpful tool to save people by the river? This idea comes from Liu Tiancheng, a student from Yangzhou, Jiangsu. The 14-year-old boy invented a tool which can offer help to people. He named it the telescopic water rescue pole(落水救援伸缩杆). And he won the 13th Yangzhou Youth Science and Technology Innovation Mayor Award because of the invention. During the summer vacation of 2023, Liu did research in cities such as Yangzhou, Wuxi and Suzhou to collect information on different water safety tools. He found that along the riverbanks in these cities, water safety tools are mainly lifebuoys(救生圈). While they are useful for saving people near the bank, they can't help people far away. Also, some cities have water safety poles along the riverbanks, but they are often very heavy and can only reach 2 to 5 metres. To make a water safety tool that's both long and light, Liu came up with a rescue pole that's like a fishing pole. “When it's not pulled, it's less than 1 metre long, so it's easy to carry. When you pull it, it can reach about 5 metres ,” Liu said. Pulling a string(绳子) will cause a small can of dry ice to fill the pipe(管子) with air, making it straight and long to reach another 5 metres. It can be thrown into the water for people in need. At the same time, it will ring. According to Liu, the rescue pole only costs about 120 yuan. “ It can be used in different situations and help in a big way,” he said. 19. How does the writer start the text? A. By asking questions B. By giving examples. C. By telling stories. D. By showing opinions 20.What did Liu Tiancheng do to invent the rescue pole during the summer vacation? A. He took part in a competition. B. He travelled around Zhejiang to collect information. C. He swam in the river and tried the lifebuoys. D. He did research on different water safety tools. 21. What’s Liu’s invention like? A.It’s heavy and can only reach 2 to 5 metres. B. It’s long and light, but very expensive. C. It can reach about 10 meters at most. D. It’s not easy to carry because of its length. 22. In which part of a newspaper may this text appear? A. Travel B. Sports C. Science D. Health C “The Wicked Witch of the West is dead!” says Dorothy to her friends. Everyone is very happy, and they decide to go to the Emerald City to ask the Wizard(男巫) of Oz to keep his promise. When they arrive, they are given glasses and led to the Wizard’s room. But no one is there — only a voice says, “I am the Wizard of Oz. Who are you and what do you want?” “Don’t you remember us? I’m Dorothy! I’m here with my friends—the Tin Woodman, the Scarecrow, and the Lion. The Wicked Witch of the West is dead and you must keep your promise. I want to go home to Kansas.” “Yes,” says the Scarecrow. “You must give me a brain.” “And you must give me a heart,” says the Tin Woodman. “And I want some courage,” says the Lion. After hearing their words, the Wizard tells them to return tomorrow, which makes the Lion angrily shout, “No way! I’m going to eat you!” Dorothy’s pet dog Toto, afraid of the Lion, jumps up and hits a big screen. It falls over and the friends see a little old man. They can’t believe their eyes. “Who are you?” asks Dorothy. “I am the Great Oz,” says the little man. “Please don’t hurt me!” “But the Wizard is a big head with no body,” says Dorothy. “No, it’s a beautiful woman,” says the Scarecrow. “You’re wrong. It’s a monster with five eyes, five arms and five legs,” says the Tin Woodman. “No,” says the Lion. “The Wizard is a big ball of fire.” “You are all wrong,” says the little man quietly. “ I am the Wizard, but I’m not a real wizard. I’m from Kansas too. I like travelling in hot-air balloons. That’s why I’m here. The people here think I’m a wizard because I fall from the clouds,” says the little man. “I hide in the room, and must make everyone think I’m a real wizard.” “The Emerald City isn’t green,” he continued. “It just looks green, because everyone wears green glasses. I have no magic. It’s only a trick! ” —Adapted from The Wonderful Wizard of Oz 23. What does the Lion ask the Wizard of Oz to give him? A. A home in Kansas B. A heart C. A brain D. Some courage 24. Which of the following is the correct order of the events in the story? 1 Toto jumps up and hit a big screen. 2 Dorothy and her friends arrive at the Emerald City. 3 The Wizard tells Dorothy and her friends to return tomorrow. 4 The little old man says he is not a real wizard. A. ②→①→③→④ B. ②→③→①→④ C. ③→②→①→④ D. ③→①→②→④ 25. What does the underlined word “trick” in the last paragraph probably mean? A. Something funny. B. Something not real. C. Something exciting. D. Something difficult. 26. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text？ A. The people of Emerald City believe in magic. B. The Wicked Witch of the West is still alive. C. Toto hits the big screen because he is angry with the lion. D. The Emerald City looks green because of the little man’s magic. D ①Do you often feel angry? Is there something that drives you crazy? How do you deal with your anger if it happens? Some people may let out their anger by shouting or doing other activities like running. However, a new study suggests that doing calm activities might be a better way to reduce anger. ②The research examined 154 studies on anger, with a total of 10,189 people from different ages and backgrounds. Its goal is to find out how daily activities change how we feel when we’re angry. ③The researchers found something surprising. Activities like running or boxing were not very helpful in reducing anger. Surprisingly, jogging can even make anger worse. That's because these activities make the body more excited and the heart beat faster. The activities that excite the body may be good for the heart, but they are certainly not the best ways to reduce anger. ④However, some activities like painting, playing chess and doing yoga could help reduce anger. The researchers believe that those enjoyable and playful activities can help to reduce bad feelings because they can make slow your heart rate and help your mind focus on something peaceful, which makes the angry feelings go away. ⑤In short, if you are feeling angry, consider taking a few deep breaths or taking up a fun sport instead of shouting or running. These calm activities may help you manage your anger more effectively. So next time you can’t control your anger, try calm activities. 27. According to the research, which of the following activities can be the best way to help people feel less angry? A. Running. B. Painting. C. Boxing. D. Swimming. 28. Which may be the main reason why jogging can make anger worse? A. It makes people feel much too tired. B. It increases the body excitement and heart rate. C. It takes too much time to reduce bad feelings. D. It’s not an interesting activity for most people. 29. What does the underlined word “they” in paragraph 4 refer to? A. The 10,189 people in the research. B. The bad feelings people have when they’re hungry. C. Activities like running or boxing. D. Activities like playing chess and doing yoga. 30. What’s the best title for the text? A. Different Ways to Reduce Anger B. A Research on People’s Daily Activities C. How to Make Your Heart Rate Slow Down D. Calm Activities: Better for Reducing Anger 第二节: 任务型阅读(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分，满分 10 分) 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-E 五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项）， 将其序号填入第 31- 34 小题。并回答第35题。注意：请将第35小题答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。 情境：Lily 和她的同学Amy正在讨论2025的春晚节目...... Amy: Hi Lily! Have you watched the 2025 Spring Festival Gala? Lily: It was great! 31. ______ This show impressed me a lot. Amy: Wow, I watched it too! "Yang BOT" was my favorite show in this year’s gala. 32. ___ Lily: Of course I did! I clapped hard at that moment—it mixed technology and traditional culture so well. Amy: Exactly! I couldn’t believe how well they worked together. 33. _______ Lily: Totally! And the small details were perfect too. Why do you think this show is more special than other gala programs? Amy: Because most shows are just dancing or just showing technology, but this one mixes both. Lily: 34. ________I hope there will be more shows like this in next year’s gala! A. Did you see the part where robots and dancers made a "Fu" character together? B. I really want to talk about programme"Yang Bot" show with you! C. And their red clothes fit yangge dance so well! D. Totally right—it’s not just technology, but technology telling our traditional stories. E. The robots followed every yangge step perfectly, no mistakes at all. 35. Do you like “Yang BOT” show? Why? __________________________________________________________________________ 第三部分: 语言运用(共三节，满分 40 分) 第一节完形填空(共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分，满分 15 分) Bob is a 15-year-old boy dreaming of being successful in __36__— a field his father has devoted(贡献) to and made great achievements in—like his father. And he __37__ knows that if he wants to realise his dream, he has to do well in three __38__—maths, physics and chemistry. Bob studied hard in these subjects, but he didn't __39__ the midterm exam for physics. He became so __40__ that he thought his dream of being a scientist was broken. __41__ he arrived home, his mother was preparing dinner. He told his mother about his sadness. After a while, his mother __42__ him a small peanut (花生) and said,“Pinch(捏) it hard.” Bob did so, and the shell(壳) of the peanut was broken __43__, leaving a peanut kernel (仁). Then, his mother asked him to pinch it. As a result, the red skin left the peanut kernel, leaving only the __44__ fruit. Bob's mother asked him to pinch the white fruit harder. Bob felt quite confused(疑惑), but he __45__ did it. However, no matter how hard he tried, he couldn't break off the white fruit. Finally, his mother told him, “In our life, we will surely meet a lot of __46__ and lose a lot of things. But as long as we keep a __47__ heart, there will be hope to realise our dreams. From then on, Bob understood that he shouldn't __48__. He thanked his mother deeply and took his __49__ paper out. He decided to correct his mistakes in the exam and study physics harder. He believed that with __50__ efforts, he would achieve his dream one day. 36. A. science B. literature (文学) C. music D. sports 37. A. always B. sometimes C. seldom D. never 38. A. jobs B.skills C. subjects D. habits 39. A. pass B. fail C. spread D. keep 40. A.tired B. happy C. angry D. sad 41. A. Until B. While C. When D. After 42. A.returned B. sent C. handed D. bought 43. A. easily B. slowly C. quietly D. suddenly 44. A. red B. yellow C. white D. black 45. A. even B. ever C. already D. still 46. A. chances B. difficulties C. subjects D. exams 47. A. strong B. weak C. warm D. cold 48. A. wake up B. give up C. take up D. look up 49. A. math B. physics C. chemistry D. Chinese 50. A. my B. our C. his D. their 第二节: 词汇运用（本题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 until relative instead of properly realise The Zhejiang BA Wenzhou basketball game was very exciting. We watched the whole game and did not go home __51___ it was over because it was so wonderful to watch. One important play happened when a star player passed the ball to his friend ___52___ throwing it into the basket himself. This helped the team get two points easily. At that time, I ___53___ that to win a game, you need more than just one good player. A team must practice a lot to learn how to work together __54___ as a group. This idea is useful not only in sports but also in our lives. After the game, we met some of our ___55___ who were also there, and we all felt very happy. It was a great day that showed me how important it is to work together. B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 My English teacher told us about a great book. It is called "The World Through My Eyes" by Anna Green. I liked it a lot. The book has ten stories. After school, Anna wanted to see new places. She traveled around her own country and finished ten interesting ____56______ (任务). I liked the first story best. She visited a small village in the mountains. It was the ___57____ (第四) place she wrote about. The village was very far away and ___58____ (几乎) impossible to find. She was ___59____(惊讶的) because the people there were so kind. The ___60____ (天空) at night was very clear. She could see millions of stars. ____61____(虽然) the weather was cold, she felt warm because the people were so nice. There, she met a kind old teacher. He was very smart and ___62____ (借出) her a very old map drawn by his grandfather. Anna's book talks about many places, ____63____ (包括) China, France, and Brazil. But the mountain village was the best part. She felt she learned the ___64____ (整个的) story of that place. The old map was broken. So, she carefully____65____ (修补) it before giving it back. Her trip changed how she saw the world. The book is easy to read. After I finished it, I also wanted to see the world one day. I think you will like this book too. 第三节: 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Inventions and Changes The world we live in today is very different from how it was many years ago. __66___ you look around you, you will see many inventions that have changed our daily lives. Take the Internet as an example. It ___67__ (invent) by Tim Berners-Lee, who wanted to create a way for people to share information around the world. He didn't keep __68___ (work) on this idea alone; he worked with others and shared his ideas ____69___(free). Working together like this makes things change faster. When we compare life today ___70___ life fifty years ago, the changes are very clear. In the world of technology, there are lots of races to create new things. The Internet helps people share information and talk to others anywhere. As people who use these things, we should ___71___(remember) to use them in a good and careful way. What is interesting about Tim Berners-Lee is that he taught __72___(he) much about computers when he was young. By studying alone and trying hard, he learned the skills that later helped many people. Because of smart people like him and their inventions, our lives have become much __73___(nice) than before. In the future, we will see many new and useful __74____(tool) that will help us in different ways. All of this teaches us ___75___important lesson from history that when we are curious, work together, and create new things, we can make the world a better place for everyone. 第四部分: 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 76.人工智能（AI）正在迅猛发展，现已渗透到我们生活的方方面面。有些学生使用AI工具来辅助完成作业、练习口语等，你如何看待这一趋势？ 请写一篇80词左右的短文，阐述你对在学习中使用AI的看法。 内容需涵盖： 1. 使用AI学习可能带来的好处; 2. 潜在的风险或问题; 3. 你的观点：我们应如何正确使用AI？ Advantages search for information , practice English… efficient(高效的), creative… Disadvantages be lazy, depend on it too much , health problems, less thinking... Your opinion we should... AI is playing an important role in our lives. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 听力材料 这是2025学年第一学期九年级英语学科听力测试部分。该部分共有三节。 注意：答题时，请先将答案做在试题卷上。该部分录音内容结束后，请将你的答案转涂到答题纸上。请看听力测试第一节。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. W: Hi, Alex. Where are you from? M: I’m from Canada, but I live in Sydney. It’s a beautiful city in Australia. 2. W: Tim, is that tall boy your brother? M: No, he’s my cousin. My brother is also tall and he has curly hair. 3. M: Linda, congratulations on winning the basketball game! Your team finally won! How many points did you get? W: I got 22 points. That was amazing! 4. M: The weather report said it would be sunny all weekend. I was planning a picnic! W: I know, but look at those dark clouds. I think we should change our plan and see a movie instead. 5. W: The Grand Canyon are one of the greatest wonders of the world. It makes you feel like you are seeing a true wonder. M: Yes, millions of people from all over the world visit it every year. 第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有2-3个小题，从各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10-15秒钟的作答时间。对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6至7两个小题。现在，你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。 W: Hello, Mr White! This is Mrs Smith. I’m new here and I live on the ninth floor. M: Hi, Mrs Smith! W: There will be a party in my house next Saturday. Would you like to come and join us? M: I'd love to. My son Bob will be very excited. He's looking forward to making new friends. W: There will be many children at the party. He will have plenty of new friends soon. M: Thank you for your invitation. W: You're welcome. Looking forward to your coming. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第 8至第10三个小题。 M: Hi, Zhao Lin. What are you doing? W: I'm preparing for a report about heroes. M:Sounds great. Who are you going to talk about? W: I want to talk about Huang Wenxiu. I watched a TV show about her. She did a lot to help the poor. M: Yes, she is great. Even though she passed away, her spirit still lives on. W:You are right. Who do you think is a hero? M: I think those who are helpful to the development of our country are heroes, aren't they? W: Yes. All these heroes set good examples to us. And I also think that policemen are heroes. They always protect us from danger. M: They're great, too. Let's work hard to become better people like them. W: I agree with you, and I believe we will become valuable members of society. M:Let's do our best. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读各个小题;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11 至第15五个小题。 Boys and girls, this Friday, our class will go to visit the science museum. You can start on the first floor. This floor is about technology in ancient times. Then, you can go to the second floor. This floor is full of modern inventions. Remember to read the stories behind them. It can make you know these inventors worked hard to make life better. Next, you can go upstairs to the third floor. This floor is about the future life. You can learn something about robots, and future library there. If you want to learn more about the museum, you can read magazines there or ask the guide for help. Don't forget to hand in your reports next Monday. Hope you'll like the visit! 参考答案及评分标准 一、听力部分 第一节(共5小题) 1-5 BCACA 评分细则：每小题1分，满分5分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 第二节(共5小题) 6-10 ACBAA 评分细则：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 第三节(共5小题) 11-15 ABBCB 评分细则：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 二、阅读理解 第一节阅读理解(共15小题;) 16-18CBC 19-22 ADCC 23-26 DBBA 27-30 BBDD 评分细则：每小题2分，满分30分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 第二节任务型阅读(共5小题)) 31-34 BAED 35.Yes, I do. Because I think it’s special and mixes technology and dancing. /Yes, I do. Because I think it’s special and mixes technology and traditional culture. No, I don't. Because I think the traditional shows are livelier/ more beautiful/more attractive...(言之有理即可) 评分细则：每小题2分，满分10分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 三、完形填空(共15小题) 36-40 AACAD 41-45 CCACD 46-50 BABBC 评分细则：每小题1分，满分15分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。 四、词汇运用(共15小题) 51. until 52. instead of 53. realised 54. properly 55. relatives 56. tasks 57.fourth 58.nearly/almost 59.surprised 60.sky 61. Although/Though 62.lent 63.including 64.whole 65. fixed/ repaired/mended 评分细则：每小题 1 分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣 0.5 分。 五、语法填空(共10小题) 66. If 67. was invented 68.working 69.freely 70. with 71. remember 72. himself 73. nicer 74. tools 75. an 评分细则：每小题 1 分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣 0.5 分。 六、书面表达 One possible version: AI is playing an important role in our lives, including education. Many students now use AI tools to search for information quickly or practice English speaking, which makes learning more efficient and creative. However, there are risks. If we rely too much on AI, we may become lazy and think less by ourselves. It could also affect our health if we spend too much time on devices. In my opinion, we should use AI as a helpful tool but not depend on it completely. It’s important to think independently and use AI wisely to improve our skills, not replace our efforts. 评分细则： 采分点 满分 可给分值及具体要求 1. 内容： 内容充实， 覆盖要点 （内容、要点） 6 5~6 描述所有信息，内容合理、丰富 3~4 描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 1~2 描述了小部分信息，内容不合理 0 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关 2.语音： 用词适切， 语法正确， 句型多样 （词汇、语法、句型） 6 5~6 用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 3~4 用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误，但不影响 理解 1~2 有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 0 有大量语言错误，影响了理解 3.结构与连贯性： 结构紧凑， 意思连贯 （语意、连接词、指代） 4 3~4 行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰 1~2 行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 0 没有连贯的意识 4.书写与卷面： 书写规范， 词数适宜 （标点符号、大小写、 词数） 4 3~4 大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁 1~2 大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 0 大小写、标点错误较多，语言应用不规范，词数严重不足， 书写难以辨认 1 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $