河北省沧州市多校联考2025-2026学年高二上学期12月期中英语试题

写作的评分细则 第一节（满分15分）】 (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次， 最后给分。 3.词数少于60的，酌情扣分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(1315分) 一完全完成试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用 能力。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档(1012分) 完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉1~2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到预期的写作目的。 第三档(7~9分) 基本完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档(46分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档(13分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判：所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分25分） (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调 整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于130或多于170的，从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： (1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度： (2)内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况： (3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； (4)上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼 写及词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(21~25分) 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档(16~20分) 一与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档(11~15分) 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档(610分) 与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档(15分) 一与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 2025～2026学年度第一学期高二年级第三次月考 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版选择性必修第一册～选择性必修第二册Unit3。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What has Tim already prepared for the end-of-term party? A. The food. B. Some books. C. A school band. 2. When will Ben go to the new show with the woman? A. On Wednesday evening. B. On Friday evening. C. On Saturday morning. 3. What color phone does the man want to buy? A. Black. B. Blue. C. Grey. 4. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a library. B. In a museum. C. In a classroom. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Decorating a room. B. Buying a house. C. Repairing a wall. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What did the man originally plan to do to raise money? A. Run a marathon. B. Organize a charity party. C. Climb Mount Kilimanjaro. 7. What does the man think of the woman’s suggestion? A. It’s too boring. B. It’s worth trying. C. It requires more time. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What did the guests do at the party? A. They danced. B. They watched a film. C. They listened to music. 9. How did Jack arrange for the food at his party? A. He let his parents cook. B. He ordered pizza for everyone. C. He asked guests to bring snacks. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What was the purpose of Sally’s trip to New York? A. For a conference. B. For a vacation. C. For further education. 11 What does Sally say about living in New York? A. It’s convenient. B. It’s stressful. C. It’s comfortable. 12. Under what condition might Sally accept a job in New York? A. If it pays really well. B. If it involves traveling. C. If it is for a year or two. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How did Alice get the chance to show her designs in the London Fashion Show? A. A famous designer invited her. B. She applied for it successfully. C. Her models recommended her. 14. Why does Alice often go to Asia? A. To attend fashion shows. B. To look for new materials. C. To learn traditional skills. 15. What new thing is Alice interested in besides designing? A. Teaching fashion design. B. Working as a fashion photographer. C. The 3D printing production process. 16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Interviewer and interviewee. B. Teacher and student. C. Husband and wife. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. How long did the speaker decide to travel around the world? A. For six months. B. For one year. C. For two years. 18. What did the speaker do to save more money for his trip? A. He sold his house. B. He quit his regular job. C. He rented out his house. 19. Where did the speaker get valuable resources to plan his trip? A. From online communities. B. From travel guidebooks. C. From his coworkers. 20. What will the speaker share in his next show? A. His trip experiences. B. How he made money. C. How he planned the trip. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Across the United States, food and drink festivals celebrate different tastes and cultures, drawing thousands of attendees every year. Here are four great events that offer wonderful experiences. The Great American Beer Festival (October) This 3-day event in Denver is held at the Colorado Convention Center. It attracts around 50,000 people each year. Over 800 American factories (酿酒厂) offer more than 4,000 kinds of beer, including famous ones like Sierra Nevada and Dogfish Head. Visitors can eat food from local food trucks, such as handmade pretzels and delicious small hamburgers. You can also attend workshops to learn about the beer-making process or meet skilled brewers. Oktoberfest (啤酒节) Zinzinnati(September) This is America's biggest Oktoberfest outside Munich, and it takes place along the river in Cincinnati. It draws more than 800,000 people each year. Over 100 sellers offer German food and beer. There's a big 300-foot tent called Zinzinnati Festhalle that can hold more than 1,000 people, and features over 30 shows. Favorite traditions include the World's Largest Chicken Dance, the Running of the Wieners (a race with small dogs), and a mug-holding competition. The New Orleans Wine & Food Experience (June) This popular event in Louisiana is held at the Ernest N. Morial Convention Center. Each year, roughly 7,500 people come to it. You can try food and drinks from over 250 wineries and 75 local restaurants. They serve both traditional and innovative New Orleans dishes. Special activities include the Royal Street Stroll, where you taste wine in old shops in the French Quarter, and the Grand Tasting, where chefs show how to cook. Food Network South Beach Wine & Food Festival (February) This 4-day event in Miami Beach has over 400 sellers, offering things like special cheeses and handmade cocktails, and about 25,000 people attend it. It's held at the convention center, local restaurants, and tents on the beach. Famous chefs like Guy Fieri and Bobby Flay show how to cook and host special dinners. Special activities include Burger Bash hosted by Emeril Lagasse and the Grand Tasting Village with over 50 restaurants and 100 kinds of wine and drinks. 1. Where is The Great American Beer Festival held? A. Along the river in Cincinnati. B. On the beach in Miami Beach. C. At the Colorado Convention Center. D. At the Ernest N. Morial Convention Center. 2. Which event attracts the largest number of attendees each year? A. Oktoberfest Zinzinnati. B. The Great American Beer Festival. C. The New Orleans Wine & Food Experience. D. Food Network South Beach Wine & Food Festival. 3. What can visitors do at Food Network South Beach Wine & Food Festival? A. Take part in the Running of the Wieners. B. Watch chefs demonstrate cooking skills. C. Try small hamburgers from local food trucks. D. Taste wine in old shops in the French Quarter. B Gitanjali Rao, born in 2005, is an Indian American writer and scientist. Her parents, who both worked in education, encouraged her curiosity and love for learning. When she was four years old, her uncle gave her a science set. This small gift got her very interested in how things work. At seven, she earned the title Davidson Young Scholar because of her strong skills in science and math. In 2017, Rao won the first place in the Discovery Education 3M Young Scientist Challenge. This brought her wide attention. She decided to use her talents to solve real problems. After learning about unsafe drinking water in Flint, Michigan, she created Tethys. This device tests water for dangerous lead and sends results to a phone. Later, she designed Kindly, an app that uses computer smarts to find hurtful online messages early. She also built Epione, a tool to help doctors spot signs of drug addiction. Rao is also a writer. Her first book, Baby Brother Wonders, came out in 2015 when she was just ten. In 2020, she published A Young Person’s Guide to Science and Technology. That same year, TIME Magazine chose her as the first ever Kid of the Year, featuring her on its cover. She also received other important awards including a place on Forbes Magazine’s 30 Under 30 list. Outside of science, Rao enjoys Indian classical dance, singing and playing the piano. She has shared her ideas at TEDx events and appeared in a Marvel television show. Her story teaches us that young people can make a big difference in the world. 4. What first started Rao’s interest in science? A. Her parents’ jobs. B. A gift from her uncle. C. Winning a school competition. D. Reading about water problems. 5. What problem does Kindly aim to solve? A. Drug’s effectiveness. B. Water prices. C. Hurtful online messages. D. Lack of science education. 6. What happened to Rao in 2020? A. She joined a TV show. B. She wrote her first book. C. She won the 3M Challenge. D. She was named as Kid of the Year. 7. What is Rao’s belief about technology according to her inventions? A. It belongs only to labs. B. It should benefit society. C. It should replace doctors. D. Its main purpose is entertainment. C The rapid growth of artificial intelligence (AI) is causing increased deadly air pollution. AI requires huge computer processing, demanding constant electricity from power plants and backup generators. This pollution is projected to cause over 1,000 early deaths yearly in the U.S. by 2030, with public health costs nearing $ 20 billion annually due to illnesses and missed work or school days. Despite these impacts, the problem appears overlooked by the tech industry. “If you examine tech companies’ sustainability reports, they mention carbon emissions (碳排放) and water use, but completely ignore harmful air pollutants already damaging public health,” explains Shaolei Ren, a study author. The research team recommends that tech companies report air pollution from their electricity use and generators. They also call for proper compensation for communities suffering the worst health effects from this pollution. Notably, AI-related air pollution harms certain low-income neighborhoods more severely, partly because they often sit closer to power sources. Furthermore, pollution spreads across state boundaries. “Data centers pay local taxes,” Ren notes, “but health impacts reach nationwide. Other affected areas receive no compensation.” For example, pollution from Virginia data centers spreads into seven neighboring regions. As tech companies compete to launch new AI services, dangerous air pollutants — especially tiny particles entering lungs — are expected to rise sharply. By 2030, health damage from AI pollution could match that of all vehicles in California. “AI’s growth hugely increases demand for data centers and energy, making it the fastest-growing energy user across all industries,” Ren states. Training just one major AI model creates pollution equal to 10,000 car trips between Los Angeles and New York. “If your relatives have asthma or heart conditions, this pollution may harm them today. This serious health problem cannot wait,” Ren warns. 8. What do tech company reports fail to include about environmental impact? A. Power plants’ costs. B. Harmful air pollutants. C. Carbon emissions data. D. Water conservation efforts. 9. What does the underlined word “compensation” in paragraph 3 most likely mean? A. Money or support for losses suffered. B. New equipment to reduce pollution. C. Scientific research on air quality. D. Medical treatment for illnesses. 10. Why does Ren say pollution spreads “nationwide”? A. To argue for higher local taxes. B. To prove generators are inefficient. C. To encourage relocation from cities. D. To show all affected communities require attention. 11. What is the main concern of the text? A. Data centers consume too much water. B. AI development reduces job opportunities. C. Tech companies ignore pollution problems. D. AI growth creates severe air pollution and health dangers. D Recent research challenges decades of belief about money and happiness. While past studies claimed wealth weakly affects happiness in rich nations, new findings prove income comparison powerfully shapes joy. The key is “relative wealth” — feeling richer than others brings more happiness than high income or education alone. Researchers analyzed 357 global surveys covering 2.3 million people. Participants ranked themselves on a 10-level “status ladder (地位等级)” comparing their position to society. Results revealed social comparison drives over 70% of money’s impact on happiness — far outweighing actual resources. “Money gains power when measured against others,” explains lead researcher Dr. Lee. The researchers also found that the effect of social comparison was stronger in countries, such as Singapore. Resource competition forces constant social evaluation. Yet upward comparisons often backfire. As Mark Twain observed, “Comparison is the death of joy.” Having just a little more money than your parents doesn’t bring much satisfaction, because nowadays the neighbors are clearly much wealthier. Critically, economic growth sometimes fails to improve national happiness. Why? The study suggests unequal progress makes many feel left behind despite personal gains. True well-being requires advancing both personally and relatively within society’s position ladder. Lawmakers thus must balance wealth creation with fair competition policies. 12. How does the study measure “relative wealth”? A. By measuring education levels. B. By using a 10-level status ladder. C. By researching job satisfaction forms. D. By analyzing spending habits. 13. Why does the author mention Mark Twain’s words? A. To criticize social comparison. B. To claim historical wisdom is outdated. C. To emphasize Singapore’s uniqueness. D. To indicate money’s declining importance. 14. What can be inferred about traditional economic policies? A. They overvalue absolute income growth. B. They effectively use social comparison. C. They prioritize education over wealth. D. They ignore resource competition. 15. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Absolute Wealth: Real Path to Happiness B. Why Money Fails to Buy Joy in Modern Society C. The Hidden Power of Relative Wealth Comparison D. Education vs. Income: New Research Findings 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Thais have always had a deep love for fresh fish. However, for decades, the waters close to Thailand have been emptied of fish. ____16____. The farther the fishermen sailed, the longer it took to bring the fish back to the market. By the time they arrived, the fish were no longer fresh. To solve this problem, fishermen put freezers (冰柜) on their boats. They would freeze the caught fish immediately. ____17____ , but it failed to maintain the freshness that the Thais treasured. The price of frozen fish began to drop. Then, the fishermen tried another solution. They put fish tanks (鱼缸) on their boats. They would catch fish and place them in the tanks, packed tightly together. The fish would move around a bit, but soon became tired and bored. ____18____ . Finally, the fishermen discovered a clever solution. They added a small shark to the tanks. The shark would eat a few fish, but the remaining ones stayed lively and active throughout the journey. ____19____ , keeping them always on the move. When the fishermen reached the market, the fish were still fresh and full of life. The customers at the market were very happy with the energetic and lively fish. ____20____ . The fishermen’s new method not only kept the fish fresh but also brought back the excitement of buying fish that were as lively as if they had just been caught. This clever idea helped the fishermen succeed once again. A. They could see and feel the difference in quality B. As a result, these fish did not taste fresh, either C. Many fishermen started to fish in warmer waters instead D. The presence of the shark created a challenge for the fish E. This method helped the fish last longer without going bad F. The fish in the tanks soon escaped and jumped into the sea G This forced fishermen to journey further out to sea to catch fish 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Earlier this year,7-year-old Adriana suffered a serious injury in an accident. One of the first to ____21____ to her side was Ricky Powell, a rescue worker from Douglas County Fire/EMS. During those key first moments, Ricky stayed ____22____ and kept focused on giving Adriana the immediate care she ____23____. From that day on, the two became ____24____. Weeks later, it was Adriana’s first day back to school — a day she had eagerly looked forward to after weeks of ____25____. To her great surprise, Ricky appeared at the school gate as she ____26____ up with her mom. Several teachers nearby also ____27____ to watch, smiling at the heartwarming scene. This time, he didn’t ____28____ any medical supplies. Instead, he held a handful of bright flowers, some small toys as ____29____, and flashed a big, warm smile. A week earlier, Ricky had ____30____ Adriana’s mom about her favorite things, just to make her return to school a little more ____31____. As soon as Adriana saw Ricky, her face ____32____. “Mr. Ricky” she called out ____33____. She let go of her mom’s hand and ran toward him, her eyes filled with happiness. She ____34____ her arms around him, and Ricky gently patted (拍) her back, saying, “Welcome back to school, Adriana.” In that moment, Adriana could ____35____ how much care Ricky had for her-far more than just the help he’d provided before. 21. A. point B. shout C. rush D. fall 22. A. ashamed B. annoyed C. thankful D. calm 23. A. needed B. recognized C. refused D. missed 24. A. roommates B. cousins C. friends D. classmates 25. A. reflection B. hesitation C. uncertainty D. recovery 26. A. walked B. caught C. teamed D. rolled 27. A. pretended B. gathered C. struggled D. promised 28. A. borrow B. waste C. carry D. hide 29. A. tools B. gifts C. rewards D. symbols 30. A. asked B. reminded C. informed D. warned 31. A. reasonable B. special C. flexible D. adventurous 32. A. tightened up B. clouded over C. cooled down D. lit up 33. A. excitedly B. worriedly C. nervously D. roughly 34. A. waved B. touched C. threw D. cleaned 35. A. prove B. express C. doubt D. feel 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The second China-Australia Dialogue Exhibition, ____36____ (title) “Postcards from China: An Artistic Odyssey”, opened at the China Cultural Centre in Sydney on August 28, attracting around 110 attendees from the cultural, artistic ____37____ media circles of the two countries. The opening ceremony featured a ____38____ (wonder) performance of guzheng solo High Mountains and Flowing Water, one of China’s ten great ancient ____39____ (piece), and Eugène Ysaye’s Violin Sonata No.2, Op. 27. Co-organized ____40____ the centre, the Australian Watercolor Institute and Guangxi Arts University, the exhibition featured 40 works by 10 Chinese and Australian artists that explore themes of cultural integration and exchange. Wang Shuyu, cultural counselor of the Chinese Consulate General in Sydney, highlighted the unique power of art in crossing borders and ____41____ (build) friendship between the two countries. “These creations are not ____42____ (mere) paintings on paper; they’re like postcards carrying stories, dreams and hopes between the two nations,” she said. David van Nunen, president of the Australian Watercolor Institute, ____43____ (stress) the exhibition’s role in showcasing the outcomes of a visit to China by Australian artists, ____44____ lasted from August last year to July this year. “We are devoted to advancing cross-cultural exchanges and look forward to deeper cooperation with China not only ____45____ (open) up more spaces for artistic creation, but also to build a closer emotional bond between artists from both sides,” he said. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是育才中学学生会主席李华。你校将举办“中华茶文化讲座”，拟邀请茶文化专家Smith做主讲人。请用英文写一封邀请信，内容包括： 1.写信目的； 2.讲座安排。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Mr. Smith, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Sarah, usually energetic before races, sat weakly on the bench. She looked pale. A stomach illness had hit her family, and she was still sick. Coach Davis stood beside her. “Sarah, can you run the anchor leg (最后一棒) tomorrow? It’s the most important job, but you are sick.” The anchor leg runner finishes the race, and Sarah was their fastest runner. Sarah breathed hard. “I... I have to, Coach. The team needs me.” But her voice shook, and sweat shone on her forehead. Nearby, Maya watched, her hands tight. She ran the third leg well but wasn’t the fastest. Seeing Sarah so sick worried her. What if Sarah got worse? In the locker room after practice, Maya sat next to Sarah. “Hey,” she said gently, “how are you really feeling?” Sarah looked down at her shaking hands. “Not great,” she admitted. “But I can’t let everyone down. The team is counting on me.” Maya took a deep breath. “I know you want to help, but what if running makes you worse? Maybe... maybe someone else should run the anchor leg this time?” Sarah’s eyes were filled with tears, “But who? It has to be someone fast.” “I could try,” Maya offered quietly. “I’ve been practicing hard. And Coach could help me prepare.” Sarah stared at her, “You’d really do that?” Maya nodded firmly, “Of course! We’re teammates. That’s what teammates do — we help each other when we need it most.” Coach Davis, who had been listening nearby, walked over. “Sarah, Maya makes a good point. Running while sick could hurt your health and the team’s chances. Sometimes the bravest thing is knowing when to step back. Don’t worry, the backup will take Maya’s place.” Sarah wiped her eyes. It was the hardest decision she’d ever made. “You’re right,” she finally said, her voice thick with emotion. “Maya, I trust you. You’ll be a great anchor leg.” Maya laughed and hugged her friend. “I’ll run like you’re right beside me!” 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The big race came the next day. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Maya smiled, “I wouldn’t have done it without your trust.” ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025～2026学年度第一学期高二年级第三次月考 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版选择性必修第一册～选择性必修第二册Unit3。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What has Tim already prepared for the end-of-term party? A. The food. B. Some books. C. A school band. 2. When will Ben go to the new show with the woman? A. On Wednesday evening. B. On Friday evening. C. On Saturday morning. 3. What color phone does the man want to buy? A Black. B. Blue. C. Grey. 4. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a library. B. In a museum. C. In a classroom. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Decorating a room. B. Buying a house. C. Repairing a wall. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What did the man originally plan to do to raise money? A. Run a marathon. B. Organize a charity party. C. Climb Mount Kilimanjaro. 7. What does the man think of the woman’s suggestion? A. It’s too boring. B. It’s worth trying. C. It requires more time. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What did the guests do at the party? A. They danced. B. They watched a film. C. They listened to music. 9. How did Jack arrange for the food at his party? A. He let his parents cook. B. He ordered pizza for everyone. C. He asked guests to bring snacks. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What was the purpose of Sally’s trip to New York? A. For a conference. B. For a vacation. C. For further education. 11. What does Sally say about living in New York? A. It’s convenient. B. It’s stressful. C. It’s comfortable. 12. Under what condition might Sally accept a job in New York? A. If it pays really well. B. If it involves traveling. C. If it is for a year or two. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How did Alice get the chance to show her designs in the London Fashion Show? A. A famous designer invited her. B. She applied for it successfully. C. Her models recommended her. 14. Why does Alice often go to Asia? A. To attend fashion shows. B. To look for new materials. C. To learn traditional skills. 15. What new thing is Alice interested in besides designing? A. Teaching fashion design. B. Working as a fashion photographer. C. The 3D printing production process. 16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Interviewer and interviewee. B. Teacher and student. C. Husband and wife. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. How long did the speaker decide to travel around the world? A. For six months. B. For one year. C. For two years. 18. What did the speaker do to save more money for his trip? A. He sold his house. B. He quit his regular job. C. He rented out his house. 19. Where did the speaker get valuable resources to plan his trip? A. From online communities. B. From travel guidebooks. C. From his coworkers. 20 What will the speaker share in his next show? A. His trip experiences. B. How he made money. C. How he planned the trip. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. A 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. A 10. D 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. E 18. B 19. D 20. A 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. titled 37. and 38. wonderful 39. pieces 40. by 41. building 42. merely 43. stressed 44. which 45. to open 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Mr. Smith, I am Li Hua, chairman of the Student Union at Yucai High School. Our school is going to hold a lecture about Chinese tea culture. We would be honored if you could share your knowledge on Chinese tea culture as part of our traditional culture event. The lecture is planned for June 10 at 3:00 pm in the school hall where all teachers and students will gather. As an expert in the field of tea culture, your experience will certainly help us understand this important heritage better. We sincerely hope you will accept this invitation. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】The big race came the next day. Sarah stood on the sidelines cheering louder than anyone. When Maya got the baton for the final leg, Sarah screamed, “Go, Maya! You’ve got this!” Maya ran with all her heart, remembering Sarah’s trust in her. They finished third — not first, but with their best time all season! After the race, Sarah ran to hug Maya. “You are amazing!” she said, her eyes shining. “I’m so proud of you!” Maya smiled, “I wouldn’t have done it without your trust.” Sarah realized then that true teamwork wasn’t just about running your fastest — it was about knowing when to pass the position. She might not have run the race, but she’d helped win it in a different way. Coach Davis put a hand on each girl’s shoulder, “Today you both showed what real champions are made of — courage, trust, and putting the team first. That’s worth more than any trophy.” 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $