山东省济南市莱芜区2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题

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2025-12-10
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莱芜区2025—2026学年度第一学期期中考试九年级 英语试题 本试题共12页,分选择题部分和非选择题部分,选择题部分满分100分,非选择题部分 满分50分。全卷满分150分,考试用时120分钟。 答题前,请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。 答题时,选择题部分每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分,用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在 答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。 考试结束后,只将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Loud music excites me. B. The river has been clean. C. I went to the park yesterday. 2. A. We shouldn’t waste water. B. I haven’t found my pen. C. She didn’t tell a lie. 3. A. Did you use to play soccer? B. Could you help clean the park? C. Will you join the party? 4. A. What a tidy classroom! B. What sunny weather! C. How happy she looks! 5. A. How does he go to school? B. When was the car invented? C. What did you do after class? 第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. Why was Jack late for school this morning? A. He missed the school bus. B. He couldn’t find his keys. C. He got up much too late. 7. What new habit has Alan developed? A. Reading books before sleep. B. Swimming every day. C. Eating little junk food. 8. What will Sam likely do after finishing junior high school? A. Learn to be a doctor. B. Join a music band. C. Study art at school. 9. What will Paul do this weekend? A Go shopping. B. Climb the mountains. C. Go to a concert. 10. What does Mike suggest doing? A. Going out by bike. B. Turning off the lights in time. C. Using reusable bags. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What are Lucy and Mike mainly talking about? A. A class graduation party plan. B. Their different hobbies. C. Gifts for their teachers. 12. What will Lucy prepare? A. Fresh fruit salad. B. Orange juice. C. chocolate cookies. 13. What time will the party start? A. At 5:30 p.m. B. At 6:00 p.m. C. At 6:30 p.m. 14. Why can’t Ms. Wang go to the party on Saturday? A Because she will go to Shanghai. B. Because she will visit her parents. C. Because she will have dinner with her friends. 15. What gift have the speakers decided to give to Ms. Wang? A. A card with photos. B. Fresh flowers. C. A new dictionary. 第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. What is the name of the new book? A. Lily and Her Pet. B. Animals in My Backyard. C. Help the Little Birds. 17. Who wrote the book? A. Lisa Miller. B. Cathy Smith. C. Lily Brown. 18. What is the book mainly about? A. How to help small animals. B. How to grow flowers at home. C. How to make friends with classmates. 19. When can students find the book in the library? A. On Tuesday. B. From this Thursday. C. Next Saturday. 20 What can students get if they borrow the book this month? A. A notebook with bird pictures. B. A bright picture with birds. C. A toy bird. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A To make our city cleaner and greener, the City Council will hold, a Community Clean-Up Day this month. Everyone—including students, parents, and community members—is welcome to join this meaningful activity! Here are the key details: Date & Time Saturday, November 15th, 2025, 8:30 a.m-11:30 a.m. Meeting Point Sunshine Park (main gate)—Look for the green “Clean-Up Team” flags to join your group. Activities ·Clean up rubbish in the park and along the nearby Green River. ·Learn to sort (分类) different kinds of waste (e.g., plastic, paper, glass) with guides from the Environmental Protection Association. ·Help plant new flowers and small trees in the park’s west corner. What to Bring ·A pair of gloves (to protect your hands from sharp objects). ·A reusable water bottle (no plastic bottles, please—we aim for a zero-was te activity!). (We will provide trash bags, picking tools, and waste-sorting posters.) Registration (注册) Please sign up on our website (www.greencity.com/cleanup) by November 12th if you plan to come. The first 50 volunteers will get a free reusable cloth bag printed with “Green City, My Home”—a perfect reminder of our shared goal! 1. Where should the volunteers meet? A. At the city council. B. At the main gate of Sunshine Park. C. By the river in the park. D. At the community center. 2. What can the volunteers do during the activity? A. Plant flowers and trees. B. Cook lunch for others. C. Learn to make tools. D. Hand out the notices. 3. How can one take part in the activity? A. By calling the City Council. B. By writing an e-mail. C. By arriving early on that day. D. By signing up online in advance. 4. What is the text mainly about? A. A guide to Sunshine Park. B. An introduction to waste sorting. C. A notice for an environmental activity. D. An advertisement for free T-shirts. 5. Which of the following is TRUE? A. The activity will last for four hours on November 15th, 2025. B. The volunteers can look for the red “Clean-Up Team” flags to join the group. C. The volunteers don’t have to bring trash bags and picking tools to the activity. D. Every volunteer who signs up on the website will receive a free reusable cloth bag. B I always spend summers at my grandparents’ small countryside house, surrounded by green fields. The slow life there was a big change from the busy city. At first, I missed my friends and the Internet badly, feeling bored and counting down the days to go home. My grandfather noticed my low spirits. One morning, he handed me a small old camera with a worn strap. “Try seeing this place through this,” he suggested gently. I was doubtful but had nothing else to do, so I took it. At first, I took photos without a clear purpose. But soon, I started to look carefully. I noticed the soft morning light through leaves, the beautiful patterns on a butterfly’s wings, and tiny ants carrying food. I woke up early for pink sunrises and stayed out late for orange sunsets. The camera made me notice details I’d always ignored (忽视). I showed my favorite photos to my grandfather. He smiled and touched my shoulder softly, saying, “You’ve learned to find beauty in the ordinary; that’s a wonderful skill.” His words made me realize I wasn’t just taking pictures; I was learning to enjoy the world. I was no longer bored, but on a daily discovery adventure. That summer, the camera taught me a life lesson: it’s not about seeking exciting new things, but changing how you see what you already have. When I returned to the city, I didn’t sigh with relief. Instead, I had new eyes, ready to find hidden beauty in my daily life. 6. Why did the writer’s grandfather give him a camera? A. To help the writer remember the trip. B. To teach the writer a professional skill. C. To ask the writer to take photos for the family. D To encourage the writer to see the world differently. 7. What did the writer do to catch sunrises and sunsets according to the text? A. He asked his grandfather to go with him. B. He woke up early and stayed out late. C. He chose a field with green plants. D. He checked the weather before going out. 8. Which paragraphs show the writer’s grandfather is wise and caring? A. Paragraph 1 and paragraph 2. B. Paragraph 2 and paragraph 3. C. Paragraph 2 and paragraph 4. D. Paragraph 4 and paragraph 5. 9. What can we learn from the text? A. Life in the countryside is more enjoyable. B. Mastering a skill is very important. C. It’s important to enjoy the beauty around us. D. Spending time with family is valuable. 10. Where is the text probably taken from? A. A storybook. B. A guidebook. C. A nature magazine. D. A movie poster. C In today’s digital world, most of us spend hours staring at phones, tablets (平板电脑), or computers every day. We check messages nonstop (不停地), look through social media, and even use devices while eating or sleeping. This overuse of digital tools often makes us feel tired, anxious (焦虑的), and unable to focus-and that’s where “digital detox” comes in. A digital detox means taking a short break from all digital devices (设备). It doesn’t have to be long-even a few hours a day or a full weekend can help. Studies show that too much screen time is bad for our health: it strains our eyes affects our sleep, and even reduces face-to-face communication with family and friends. For students, it can also lower grades by taking time away from homework and study. So how can we do a digital detox? Start small: try putting your phone in another room during meals, or turning off unnecessary notifications (通知). You can also replace screen time with other activities, like reading a book, going for a walk, or playing a board game with family. The key is to find balance-we don’t need to give up digital tools completely, but we should control how much time we spend on them. By doing a digital detox, you’ll likely feel more relaxed, have better sleep, and enjoy more quality time with loved ones. It’s a simple way to take care of your mind in a world that’s always “connected.” 11. Why does the writer give examples in paragraph 1? A. To introduce the topic of digital detox. B. To show the importance of digital devices. C. To explain how to use social media. D. To describe students’ daily life. 12. What does the underlined word “strains” in paragraph 2 mean? A. Protects. B. Improves. C. Relaxes. D. Harms. 13. Which of the following is a way to do a digital detox? A. Using phones while eating. B. Keeping notifications on. C. Reading a book instead of using devices. D. Playing online games with friends. 14. What can we infer from the text? A. Too much screen time is bad for students’ studies. B. Digital detox requires giving up all devices. C. A digital detox must last for a full weekend. D. People feel more anxious after a digital detox. 15. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. How to Use Digital Devices Wisely B. Digital Detox: A Way to Relax Your Mind C. The History of Digital Devices D. Differences Between Online and Offline Life D Many people believe that success comes from talent—you either have it or you don’t. However, recent studies and real-life cases show that hard work and persistence (坚持) may be even more important than natural ability in the long run. Dr. Carol Dweck, a famous psychologist (心理学家), has done deep research on what she calls “mindset”. She finds that people with a “growth mindset” believe their abilities can improve through consistent (持续的) effort. These people are more likely to take on challenges and keep trying when they face difficulties, instead of giving up easily. On the other hand, people with a “fixed mindset” think their talents and skills are set from birth and can’t be changed. They often avoid difficult tasks for fear of failure and lose confidence quickly when things go wrong. This idea is strongly supported by real-life examples. For instance, the famous inventor Thomas Edison failed thousands of times before he finally invented the practical light bulb. He once said, “I have not failed. I’ve just found 10,000 ways that won’t work.” His success didn’t come from talent alone, but from his strong will, never-give-up attitude, and continuous effort to solve problems. Now, more schools are trying to develop a growth mindset in students. Instead of only praising students for their high scores or natural intelligence (智力), teachers now focus on praising their hard work, problem-solving steps, and progress. This helps students understand that their brains can grow stronger—just like a muscle—when they keep learning and practicing. Of course, this doesn’t mean talent is useless. Talent can give people a head start, but without effort, talent is just unmet potential (潜力) that will never be realized. With a growth mindset and consistent hard work, everyone has the chance to overcome weaknesses and achieve great things. 16. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about? A. Dr. Carol Dweck’s hard work. B. Two mindsets and their differences. C. How growth mindset deals with difficulties. D. Why some people fear failure. 17. What do people with a “growth mindset” usually do when facing difficulties? A. They avoid difficult tasks to prevent failure. B. They keep trying instead of giving up easily. C. They lose confidence quickly and stop trying. D. They think their abilities can’t be improved. 18. Why does the writer mention Thomas Edison? A. To show he was a talented inventor. B. To explain how light bulbs were invented. C. To give an example of the growth mindset. D. To describe the importance of science. 19. What are schools doing to help students in Paragraph 4? A. Giving students more exams for high scores. B. Teaching students how to keep healthy. C. Teaching them how to develop fixed mindset skills. D. Praising their efforts instead of their intelligence. 20. What is the writer’s opinion about talent? A. It needs effort to realize its potential. B. It is more important than hard work. C. It has nothing to do with success. D. It is the only thing that schools should develop. 第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Do you often feel like there aren’t enough hours in a day to finish all your tasks? You’re not alone. Many students struggle with time management. The good news is that there are some simple ways to help you take control of your time and reduce stress. ____21____ Here are some tips that might help you. First, make a to-do list each day. Write down everything you need to do, including homework, housework, and after-school activities. ____22____ This will help you see what’s the most important and what can wait. Next, break big tasks into smaller steps. For example, if you have a big school project, don’t try to do it all at once. ____23____ This makes the task less scary and easier to start. Also, try to avoid distractions(分心). When you’re studying, turn off your phone or put it in another room. ____24____ You’ll be surprised how much more you can get done in a short time. Finally, remember to take breaks. Studying for too long without a rest can make you tired and less productive(高效的). ____25____ You will come back to your work feeling refreshed and focused. Time management is a skill that takes practice, but once you get the hang of it, you’ll find life becoming much easier and more enjoyable. A. It’s better to work on one small part at a time. B. Then, decide which tasks are the most important. C. Some people prefer to study late at night. D. Don’t worry—you can learn to manage your time better. E. A five-minute break every hour can help you stay energetic. F. This will help you focus on what you’re doing. G. You should always finish your homework before playing. 第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分) 第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 阅读下面对话,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Tim: Hi, Anna. You did a good job in the English class just now. Your spoken English has improved so much recently. Anna: Thanks! I joined an online English-speaking club last month. It really helps. Tim: Really? ____26____ Anna: We talk about different topics like movies, travel, or daily life. Tim: That sounds helpful. ____27____ Anna: Sure, Tim! We’d love to have new friends. Tim: Great! ____28____ Anna: You just need a computer and a quiet room. Tim: Perfect. ____29____ Anna: I’ll send you the website and information later. Tim: Thanks for your help. ____30____ Anna: See you on Friday! 26. A. How do you like the club? B. What do you usually do there? C. When do you have meetings? D. Where is the club located? 27. A. I want to join it too. B. It must be very interesting. C. I have a similar club. D. You are really lucky. 28. A. How much does it cost? B. Who is the teacher? C. What should I prepare? D. Why is it so popular? 29. A. Good luck to you. B. I’ll make breakfast. C. That’s a pity. D. I can’t wait to try it. 30. A. You are welcome. B. I don’t know. C. It sounds difficult. D. I’m sure I will enjoy it. 第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last month, our class put on a play for the school’s Art Festival. The topic was friendship, which we thought was ____31____, because it’s one of the most important things in life. We started to ____32____ after class: some wrote the lines, others chose the music. Our teacher, Ms. Li, asked me to play the main role—a shy girl who had trouble making friends. At first, I felt ____33____, afraid of forgetting lines. ____34____ Ms. Li said, “Believe in yourself. Practice makes perfect.” Every day after class, we practiced together. Some helped me with lines ____35____, others created stage props (道具). Once, I forgot a long part of my lines. I felt so sad and wanted to ____36____ up. But my best friend Lucy said, “Let’s practice again until you get it right.” Her words encouraged me. As the play day got closer, we practiced ____37____—staying after school to run through it twice. On the final day, I wore my costume and stood backstage. My hands were shaking, but I remembered Ms. Li’s words and took a deep breath. When the curtain went up, I spoke ____38____ any mistakes When the play ended, everyone stood up and ____39____ loudly. I felt proud of myself and my class. Later, I grew more confident. I learned teamwork can make challenges smaller. Most importantly, courage isn’t the absence of fear, but ____40____ bravely when you’re afraid. This is a great ____41____ of my junior high school. A few days later, our class got a special ____42____. We were called “Best Teamwork”. We hugged and shouted with joy. Ms. Li smiled, “Your hard work made this ____43____ successful.” This play taught me much. Friendship is about helping through hard times. I’m glad I didn’t give up. Now, facing challenges, I know I have ____44____ to go on. Finally, I want to say that everyone can achieve their dreams if ____45____ work hard. They just need to believe in yourselves and keep going. I’ll never forget this lesson. 31. A. scientific B. strange C. useless D. meaningful 32. A. prepare B. record C. perform D. search 33. A. excited B. nervous C. tired D. upset 34. A. So B. And C. But D. Or 35. A. simply B. patiently C. quickly D. comfortably 36. A. give B. take C. put D. set 37. A. better B. less C. earlier D. harder 38. A. with B. for C. without D. against 39. A. cheered B. talked C. laughed D. read 40. A. waiting B. acting C. studying D. leaving 41. A. dream B. progress C. memory D. idea 42. A. change B. surprise C. chance D. skill 43. A. play B. opera C. show D. project 44. A. pressure B. courage C. abilities D. mistakes 45. A. I B. you C. we D. they 第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)  gongs, and other阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Lion dance, a traditional Chinese art with a history of over 2,000 years, ____46____ (be) not just a performance, but also a symbol of blessings (祝福). It first appeared during the Han Dynasty. At that time, people ____47____ (perform) lion dance to drive away bad luck and protect their homes. Today, it ____48____ (see) at important occasions (场合), such as the Spring Festival, weddings and shop openings. A lion dance needs two people. One controls the head, and the other moves the body and tail. They work together closely ____49____ (make) the lion look alive. The costume is usually bright red or yellow— colors believed to bring happiness ____50____ good luck. Lion dance is often accompanied by drumbeats, gongs and other traditional ____51____ (instrument). The loud music makes the performance more exciting and helps the dancers keep ____52____ (they) steps in order. Many young people now learn lion dance to keep this traditional art alive. Some schools even offer lion dance classes so students can learn about this culture. Although lion dance has ____53____ long history, it still stays popular today. It helps spread Chinese culture ____54____(wide). It is not only China’s ____55____ (culture) treasure but also carries Chinese people’s warm wishes. We should protect lion dance and pass it down to future generations. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分) 第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 56. A: How did the movie make the girl feel? B: ________________________. 57. A: Where is Li Ming? B: In the music room. ________________________. 58. A: Hi, Mark. ________________________? B: Yes, I have. I think recycling them can help save the earth. 59. A: What are they going to do this weekend? B: ________________________. 60. A: What do you remember about Grade 8? B: ________________________. 第二节 作文(满分25分) 61. 假如你是李华,你校英文报正在举行以“SchoolDays”为主题的征文活动,请你根据以下提示写一篇短文投稿,内容包括: 1.初中阶段你印象最深刻的一件事;2.你的感悟。 注意:1.词数 100 左右;2.可适当增加细节,使行文连贯;3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 莱芜区2025—2026学年度第一学期期中考试九年级 英语试题 本试题共12页,分选择题部分和非选择题部分,选择题部分满分100分,非选择题部分 满分50分。全卷满分150分,考试用时120分钟。 答题前,请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。 答题时,选择题部分每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分,用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在 答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。 考试结束后,只将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Loud music excites me. B. The river has been clean. C. I went to the park yesterday. 2. A. We shouldn’t waste water. B. I haven’t found my pen. C. She didn’t tell a lie. 3. A. Did you use to play soccer? B. Could you help clean the park? C. Will you join the party? 4. A. What a tidy classroom! B. What sunny weather! C. How happy she looks! 5. A. How does he go to school? B. When was the car invented? C. What did you do after class? 第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. Why was Jack late for school this morning? A. He missed the school bus. B. He couldn’t find his keys. C. He got up much too late. 7. What new habit has Alan developed? A. Reading books before sleep. B. Swimming every day. C. Eating little junk food. 8. What will Sam likely do after finishing junior high school? A. Learn to be a doctor. B. Join a music band. C. Study art at school. 9. What will Paul do this weekend? A. Go shopping. B. Climb the mountains. C. Go to a concert. 10. What does Mike suggest doing? A. Going out by bike. B. Turning off the lights in time. C. Using reusable bags. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What are Lucy and Mike mainly talking about? A. A class graduation party plan. B. Their different hobbies. C. Gifts for their teachers. 12. What will Lucy prepare? A. Fresh fruit salad. B. Orange juice. C. chocolate cookies. 13. What time will the party start? A. At 5:30 p.m. B. At 6:00 p.m. C. At 6:30 p.m. 14. Why can’t Ms. Wang go to the party on Saturday? A. Because she will go to Shanghai. B. Because she will visit her parents. C. Because she will have dinner with her friends. 15. What gift have the speakers decided to give to Ms. Wang? A. A card with photos. B. Fresh flowers. C. A new dictionary. 第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. What is the name of the new book? A. Lily and Her Pet. B. Animals in My Backyard. C. Help the Little Birds. 17. Who wrote the book? A. Lisa Miller. B. Cathy Smith. C. Lily Brown. 18. What is the book mainly about? A. How to help small animals. B. How to grow flowers at home. C. How to make friends with classmates. 19. When can students find the book in the library? A. On Tuesday. B. From this Thursday. C. Next Saturday. 20. What can students get if they borrow the book this month? A. A notebook with bird pictures. B. A bright picture with birds. C. A toy bird. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C B 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A C 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. B D 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A 第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. A 24. F 25. E 第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分) 第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. D 第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 【31~45题答案】 【答案】31. D 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. D 第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. is 47. performed 48. is seen 49. to make 50. and 51. instruments 52. their 53. a 54. widely 55. cultural 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分) 第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. The movie/It made the girl/her sad/upset 57. He is playing the piano 58. Have you recycled newspapers 59. They are going to clean the/their room 60. (I remember) I won the basketball competition/I remember winning the basketball competition 第二节 作文(满分25分) 【61题答案】 【答案】 例文 Among my three years of junior high school, the most unforgettable thing was the English speech contest in Grade Eight. I was too shy to speak in public at first, but my teacher encouraged me to try. For weeks, I practiced every evening, correcting my pronunciation. On the contest day, I was nervous but confident. When I finished speaking, the audience cheered loudly. Though I didn’t win the first prize, the experience helped me overcome my shyness. It taught me that courage and persistence can lead to growth. School days are full of such precious moments, and they will always stay in my heart as beautiful memories. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

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山东省济南市莱芜区2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题
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山东省济南市莱芜区2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题
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山东省济南市莱芜区2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题
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