内容正文:
2024年抚州市五校初二年级英语学科学习效果检测
说明:本试题卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟;请将答案书写在答题卡上,否则不给分。
一、听力测试(20分)
请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共5分)
1. Where did Jane go on vacation? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. To the beach. B. To the museum. C. To the mountains.
2. How often does the girl go to the art club? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
3. How much are the girl’s shoes? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. 23 dollars. B. 30 dollars. C. 37 dollars.
4. Who is the best at English? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Sue. B. Linda. C. The boy.
5. What does the girl mean? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. She likes sports news. B. She likes sports shows. C. She likes sports matches.
请听下面4段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共10分)
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. What does the girl collect?
A. Toys. B. Coins. C. Stamps.
7. Where are the two speakers?
A. At the park. B. At the girl’s home. C. In the classroom.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Sports. B. Cinemas. C. Movies.
9. Which cinema will they go at last?
A. Sun Cinema. B. Super Cinema. C. Center Cinema.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. What will people do at the beginning of a year?
A. Clean the house. B. Buy new clothes. C. Make resolutions.
11. Why do people make New Year’s resolutions?
A. To improve their lives. B. To remember their plans. C. To have a worse life.
12. How many resolutions are there?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Two.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
13. What does Lucy like?
A. Travelling. B. Singing. C. Running.
14. Who is good at jumping?
A. Tom. B. Lucy. C. Bob.
15. What can we get from the conversation?
A. Tom is good at running.
B. Tom will go to America.
C. Tom will take part in a long jump competition.
请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词,听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. Different people have different ________.
17. Tom wants to be a ________.
18. Jim likes ________.
19. Gina is good at ________ people.
20. There are ________ people in the monologue.
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(每小题1分,共8分)
21. —Water ________ is serious.
—Yes. We should do something because the rivers are becoming dirtier and dirtier.
A. solution B. pollution C. question D. prediction
22. It is ________ to remember all the names in a few minutes. It’s too difficult.
A. probable B. simple C. lucky D. impossible
23. —________ will everything be free?
—It is in the far future.
A. How long B. How far C. How soon D. How often
24. The doctor asked my father to eat ________ fruit and vegetables and drink ________ coffee.
A. more; less B. more; fewer C. less; fewer D. less; less
25. —Excuse me, Mr. Green. How can I ________ my spoken English?
—You can join an English club.
A. promise B. touch C. improve D. expect
26. There ________ a football match between Class 1 and Class 3 tomorrow.
A. are going to be B. is going to be
C. is going to have D. are going to have
27. —Mrs. Green is always kind to her students.
—Yes. And she ________ cares about them like their parents.
A. really B. hardly C. quietly D. clearly
28. I like learning English a lot ________ it seems difficult sometimes.
A. if B. though C. because D. so
三、完形填空(26分)
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
Early in the morning, at noon, or in the evening in big cities and in the countryside, all across the United States, you can see Americans running. The ___29___ and the old are running. People run ___30___. Through Central Park ___31___ New York, along quiet streets in small towns or at the gym, some people even run in ___32___ living rooms.
Running didn’t use to be so popular. In the 1960s, runners were ___33___ athletes, healthy and strong people. In those days, when people saw a runner, they used to ___34___, “Hey, what’s the hurry for? ” or they might say to ___35___, “Is he crazy? ” Women almost never ___36___. If they did, they might hear a man shout, “If I ___37___ you, can I marry you? ” But today all these things have ___38___. Men and women of all ___39___ enjoy running.
Doctors think many health problems in the United States ___40___ these bad habits: eating too much, smoking cigarettes, and exercising ___41___. Doctors tell us, “Eat less, don’t smoke, and exercise more.” Running is a good way to exercise ___42___ it helps people build strong hearts and lungs (肺) . It also helps most people ___43___ weight. In order to keep healthy, let’s run together.
29. A. young B. small C. big D. little
30. A. anytime B. somewhere C. everywhere D. nowhere
31. A. by B. in C. with D. on
32. A. our B. your C. his D. their
33. A. mostly B. hardly C. most D. more
34. A. answer B. tell C. speak D. ask
35. A. them B. themselves C. theirs D. they
36. A. thought B. ran C. said D. exercised
37. A. catch B. take C. carry D. find
38. A. changed B. stopped C. worked D. done
39. A. people B. cities C. villages D. ages
40. A. come from B. look for C. care for D. think of
41. A. too B. not C. much D. little
42. A. how B. where C. because D. until
43. A. give B. increase C. improve D. lose
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每个单词限用一次。
we village real umbrella visit again and interesting so spend foot
My parents and I spent a few weeks in London last year. We went there in autumn. We think it is the best time ____44____ England. The weather is usually very good ____45____ there aren’t too many visitors in October. We stayed in a small ____46____ in the West End. We had most of our sightseeing on ____47____. We went to see all the ____48____ places. We went shopping and ____49____ much money. A lot of people say English food is ____50____ awful. But we don’t think ____51____. In fact, we enjoyed ____52____ vacation so much. So we decide to go there _____53_____ this year. We will take our _____54_____ too, because it often rains in London. We will use them sometimes.
四、阅读理解(46分)
请先阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(每小题2分)
A
Mike
I like to make friends. Victor is one of my best friends. He is as outgoing as me. We became friends when I was ten years old. We both like sports very much. We play tennis three times a week and play basketball twice a week.
Monica
I’m a little quiet. My best friend Grace is different from me. She is very outgoing and funny. She likes going to parties and dancing very much. She likes swing dance best.
Tara
My best friend is Lisa. She is very outgoing and friendly. I’m similar to her. We became friends three years ago. Lisa is also hard-working. She studies better than me and she always helps me with my math.
Eric
My best friend is Ben. He is two years older than me. He is quiet. He is good at drawing. He joined an art club a week ago. I’m different from him. I’m outgoing and I like singing and swimming.
55. When did Mike and Victor become friends?
A. When Victor was ten years old. B. When Mike was ten years old.
C. Three years ago. D. Ten years ago.
56. Who are quiet according to the above information?
A. Mike and Monica. B. Victor and Ben.
C. Monica and Ben. D. Monica and Tara.
57. Which of the following is TRUE according to the above information?
A. Eric is a quiet boy. B. Tara is different from Lisa.
C. Grace doesn’t enjoy dancing at all. D. Mike and Victor play tennis three times a week.
B
Are you good at singing or dancing? Can you ride a unicycle, do magic tricks, drink a glass of milk in ten seconds, or recite poems from memory in a short time? If you are able to do one of these things, well, you’ve got talent, my friend. And it’s the best time for you to show it at the school talent show!
Middle school talent shows in the US happen every year. Whatever you’re good at, you have five minutes to show yourself to the world. The school talent show usually takes place at the beginning of the school year and every kid has a chance to become a little star. The shy boy who spends his evenings practicing Spanish guitar will surprise his classmates with beautiful music. The sporty girl on the soccer team will amaze the crowd with her sweet singing voice. Everyone has a chance to shine.
Almost anyone can do almost anything in a talent show. As long as your act isn’t rude or illegal (不合法的), you can show yourself freely.
On the day of the show, all the students sit in the school gym and are ready to cheer for their classmates.
Many of today’s stars started their careers in school talent shows—Madonna, Britney Spears and Justin Timberlake all showed their skills early in life. Though you’re not Justin Bieber, you can become a star in your own right at your middle school talent show.
58. What may be the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 1 about?
A. Talent. B. Milk. C. Magic. D. Poem.
59. What is true about the school talent show in the US?
A. It usually lasts for ten days. B. Shy boys and quiet girls don’t like it.
C. It happens at the beginning of every term. D. A student can show his talent for five minutes.
60. You can’t take part in the talent show if ________.
A. you are a new student B. you don’t have a funny act
C. your act is rude or illegal D. you can’t play the guitar very well
61. What can we learn from the last paragraph?
A. We will never be as famous as Justin Bieber.
B. The talent show is the first step for all the stars.
C. Few students like to take part in the talent show.
D. Many of today’s stars also took part in school talent shows.
62. What is the passage mainly about?
A. American students’ talent. B. American middle school talent shows.
C. Stars’ early careers. D. Students’ surprising changes.
C
If your hometown were to be pulled down one day, would you miss it? And what could you do for it? Huang Yongfu gave his answer.
Huang and his wife lived in a village. After he stopped working in the 1970s, Huang had a lot of free time. He started painting lovely animals on the walls of his house for fun. Later, his neighbors asked him to paint their houses, too. His paintbrush brought a second “life” to the boring houses.
In 1998, the village was to be pulled down because many villagers left. To save it, Huang decided to paint every street in the village. The old man covered every street, wall and door in the village with lovely colors.
In 2010, some university students happened to pass by the village. They were struck by Huang’s cute artwork. These students then started the “Save Rainbow Village” campaign (运动). It was a success and the area became an art park. Huang himself began to be famous as Grandpa Rainbow. Now, Rainbow Village has become a famous place for tourists. It welcomes more than a million people every year. Grandpa Rainbow finally made his dream come true. He saved his village. Although Grandpa Rainbow left us on January 23, 2024, people will remember him forever.
63. What is the purpose of the two questions at the beginning of the passage?
A. To find the answers. B. To surprise the readers.
C. To lead into the story. D. To show the writer’s idea.
64. What do we know about Huang after he stopped working?
A. He lived a colorful life. B. He showed his singing talent.
C. He helped neighbors build houses. D. He brought animals into the village.
65. What does the underlined word “struck” in Para. 4 probably mean?
A. Stopped. B. Moved. C. Known. D. Challenged.
66. What did Huang do to stop the village from being pulled down?
A. He turned it into a rainbow village. B. He talked with the leader of the city.
C. He asked the university students for help. D. He started the “Save Rainbow Village” campaign.
67. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. A Successful Campaign B. A Story Behind a Rainbow
C. Grandpa Rainbow is Famous D. When a Village Meets Art
D
What will our life be like in 50 years? No one knows the answer exactly, but we are sure that it will be very different from the life today. My brother Jill White makes some predictions. Here are some of his ideas.
First, people will have less work to do, and robots will do most work. People will use robots to make cars, do the housework, look after sick people and teach students. People will spend most of their time doing sports and going on vacations. So people will become stronger and healthier, and they will live to be about 200 years old.
Second, cars will become very small and computers will control their speed. So there will be fewer accidents on the road. Planes will be very popular, and most people would like to take them to go on a vacation.
Third, people will be able to live in the sea, on the Moon or on Mars. The Earth won’t be crowded or noisy. So there will be much space for people to plant trees. There will be less pollution, and the air will become much fresher.
Finally, water shortage will become one of the most serious problems. If people don’t save water now, there will be water wars in 50 years.
68. Jill White thinks that in 50 years robots will help to do the following things EXCEPT ________.
A. driving cars B. teaching students
C. doing the housework D. looking after sick people
69. What will most people go on a vacation in 50 years according to the passage?
A. By car. B. By plane. C. By train. D. By bike.
70. What can we know from the passage?
A. People won’t need to work in 50 years.
B. Every family will have a car in 50 years.
C. Computers will control the cars’ speed in 50 years.
D. The earth will become crowded and noisy in 50 years.
71. What’s the passage mainly about?
A. The robots in 50 years. B. The life in 50 years.
C. The schools in 50 years. D. The cars in 50 years.
72. Which of the following is the structure of the passage?
A. ①②③④/⑤ B. ①/②③④/⑤ C. ①②/③④/⑤ D. ①/②③④⑤
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面的七个选项中,选择五个还原到短文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
Do you make a resolution on New Year’s Day? How to make a good resolution? ____73____
Plan for the resolution.
It is not enough to have a goal. You need to think out some right steps for the resolution. So make your plan. ____74____ And it’ll also tell you how to make the goal come true at last. Making a plan is very important.
____75____
If you make your plan later, you may forget your resolution a few days later. It’s important that you start making your plan right now.
____76____
You should write down your resolution and plan in some places, such as a notebook or your diary.
Think “year around”, not just “New Year’s”.
You can’t finish anything in one day. You make a resolution in one day. ____77____ It may need a hundred small steps. New Year’s resolution should be a starting point. You must keep a habit of making your resolution come true gradually.
A. How to make a plan?
B. Make your plan right now.
C. Maybe the following can help you.
D. Write down your resolution and plan.
E. A good plan will tell you what to do next.
F. It doesn’t mean you must finish it in one day.
G. It’s important to make resolutions for people.
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理、意思完整。一空一句。
A: Hey, Paul. You look so happy. ____78____
B: We had a discussion about the future. And I was the first one to give a report.
A: What do you want to be when you grow up?
B: I want to be a reporter.
A: ____79____
B: I’m going to write articles and send them to magazines and newspapers. How about you?
A: Well, I’m not sure. ____80____ By the way, next Sunday is my birthday. Can you come to my birthday party?
B: Sure. When will it start?
A: ____81____
B: Where can we meet?
A: We can meet in Changchun Hotel next to our school.
B: Great. I really expect next Sunday.
A: ____82____
B: OK. I must go home now. See you.
A: See you.
A. Where are you going?
B. It will end at 9: 00 p. m.
C. Maybe I want to be a singer.
D. How are you going to do that?
E. What did you do in class today?
F. At around 6: 00 p. m. next Sunday.
G. I’m sure if you go, you will have a good time then.
六、书面表达(15分)
83. 随着科技的进步和社会的发展,我们的生活必将发生很大的变化。阅读理解D篇中Jill White对未来生活进行了大胆的预测,也请你想象一下你20年后的生活和环境是怎样的?请根据以下写作要点及要求,以“My Life in 20 Years”为题写一篇80词左右的短文。
要点:
1. What will you be in 20 years?
2. How will the living environment be?
3. What can we do to have a better future life?
要求:
1. 短文应语句通顺,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
2. 短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
3. 80左右词,短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
My Life in 20 Years
With the development of science and technology, life in 20 years will be very different from today. In 20 years, I will be a (n)
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024年抚州市五校初二年级英语学科学习效果检测
说明:本试题卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟;请将答案书写在答题卡上,否则不给分。
一、听力测试(20分)
请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共5分)
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】B
请听下面4段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共10分)
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. C 7. B
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. C 11. A 12. A
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. C 14. A 15. B
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. dreams
17. driver 18. cooking
19. taking care of
20. five
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(每小题1分,共8分)
【21题答案】
【答案】B
【22题答案】
【答案】D
【23题答案】
【答案】C
【24题答案】
【答案】A
【25题答案】
【答案】C
【26题答案】
【答案】B
【27题答案】
【答案】A
【28题答案】
【答案】B
三、完形填空(26分)
【29~43题答案】
【答案】29. A 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. D
【44~54题答案】
【答案】44. to visit
45. and 46. village
47. foot 48. interesting
49. spent 50. really
51. so 52. our
53. again 54. umbrellas
四、阅读理解(46分)
请先阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(每小题2分)
A
【55~57题答案】
【答案】55. B 56. C 57. D
B
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58. A 59. D 60. C 61. D 62. B
C
【63~67题答案】
【答案】63. C 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. D
D
【68~72题答案】
【答案】68. A 69. B 70. C 71. B 72. D
【73~77题答案】
【答案】73. C 74. E 75. B 76. D 77. F
五、补全对话(5分)
【78~82题答案】
【答案】78. E 79. D 80. C 81. F 82. G
六、书面表达(15分)
【83题答案】
【答案】例文
My Life in 20 Years
With the development of science and technology, life in 20 years will be very different from today. In 20 years, I will be a successful environmental scientist. I’ll be dedicated to making groundbreaking discoveries and contributions. The living environment will be much better. There will be lots of green plants everywhere, and the air will be incredibly clean.
To have a better future life, we must take action. We should protect the environment by reducing waste and pollution. Developing new technologies will also play a crucial role. Moreover, we can work hard to achieve our dreams. By doing so, we can make the world a more beautiful and harmonious place for everyone.
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$A请听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话读两遍。Number . one. hi jane. How was your vacation? IT was great. I went to the mountains with my family. Hi jane, how was your vacation? IT was great. I went to the mountains with my family. Number two. do you often . go to the art club? Yes, every tuesday and friday. Do you often go to the . art club? Yes, every tuesday and friday. Number three. are your . shoes expensive? Not really only twenty three dollars. Are your shoes . expensive? Not really only twenty three dollars. Number four, why do you like sue? Because SHE is best in english. Why do you like soul? Because he is best in english. Number five, what do you think of sports shows? I love them very much. I think they are exciting. What do you think of . sports shows? I love them very much. I think they're exciting. B请听下面四段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话。读两遍。请听第一段对话,回答第六、七小题。Hi, can. Welcome to my home. Hi, Julie. How are you? Fine, thanks. I'm collecting stamps. Do you want to join me? sure. Hi, can. Welcome to my home. Hi, Julie. How are you? Fine, thanks. I'm collecting stamps. Do you want to join me? sure. 请听第二段对话,回答第八、九小题。Hi, anna. Do you want to go to . the movies? Yes, let's watch a movie. Do you know a good . movie theater, super cinema? It's the most popular one, and IT has the best sound? Yes, but it's far from here. Is there a good one near here? Center cinema is the closest to our home, and IT has the biggest . screens. Sounds good. Let's go. Hi, anna. Do you want to go to . the movies? Yes, let's watch a movie. Do you know a good . movie theater, super cinema? It's the most popular one, and IT has the best sound? Yes, but it's far from here. Is there a good one near here? Center cinema is the closest to our home, and IT has the biggest . screens. Sounds good. Let's go. 请听第三段对话,回答第十至第十二小题。Do you know new year's resolutions? Of course, people will make their resolutions at the beginning of the year. Do you know why? Yes, I do. People hope that they can . improve their lives. great. What resolutions do you know? Painting. taking photos or traveling? Do you know new year's resolutions? Of course, people will make their resolutions at the beginning of the year. Do you know why? Yes, I do. People hope that they can . improve their lives. great. What resolutions do you know? Painting. taking photos or traveling? 请听第四段对话,回答第十三至第十五小题。Do you like running. Lucy? Yes, I like IT. I think IT is a good way to keep healthy. So are you good at jumping? No, i'm not. But tom can do that well. really. yes. And he will take part in a high jump competition in america. Wow, cool. Do you like running Lucy? Yes, I like IT. I think IT is a good way to . keep healthy. So are . you good at jumping? No, i'm not. But tom can do that well. really. yes. And he will take part in a high jump competition in america. Wow, cool. C请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过三个单词。听独白前,你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容,独白读两遍。Different people have different dreams. I have many good friends. They also have dreams. Tom likes cars, so his dream is to be a driver. Jane wants to be a teacher when he grows up, and jim likes cooking. He thinks the delicious food can make him happy, so he wants to be a cook. Gina is good at taking care of people. SHE is going to be a nurse. As for me, i'm going to be a pilot. IT will be great. Different people have different dreams. I have many good friends. They also have dreams. Tom likes cars, so his dream is to be a driver. Jane wants to be a teacher when he grows up, and jim likes cooking. He thinks the delicious food can make him happy, so he wants to be a cook. Gina is good at taking care of people. SHE is going to be a nurse. As for me, i'm going to be a pilot. IT will be great.