2025-2026学年上学期七年级英语期末模拟检测试题（安徽专用）

听力考试正式开始。What food can you make? Ten fee I can make jaws sey. What food can you make ten fee, I can . make jelly Y. Listen to the next question. Is your birthday on january night? eric? No, it's on january tenth. Is your birthday on january nights? eric? No, it's on january tenth. Listen to the next . question. Hi, Grace is your mother's last name? Green. no, IT is smith. Green is my grandmother's last name. Hi, Grace is your mother's last name. Green. no, IT is smith. Green is my grandmother's last day. Listen to the next . question. I like sheep a lot because . they are cute me too. I like sheep a lot because they . are cute me too. Listen to the next . question, what is your new school like, jack? It's big and beautiful. What is your new school like? Jack is . big and beautiful. Listen to the next . question. I can find my cap. Can you . help me? Is IT red? No, it's yellow. I like IT. Is that on your desk? No, I can't find IT there. Oh, I remember. It's in your bag. Yes, here, IT is. Thank you. You're welcome. I can't find my cap. Can you . help me? Is this red? No, it's yellow. I like . IT is IT on your desk? No, I can't find IT there. Oh, I remember is in . your bag. Yes, here, IT is. Thank you. You're welcome. Listen to the next question. Who is in the photo? Ana. she's my aunt Helen. SHE looks very tall. Yes, he does sports every day. What sport does he like? Tennis is her favorite sport. SHE often plays IT with my mother. Who's SHE in the photo? Anna, she's my aunt Helen. SHE looks very . tall. Yes, SHE does sports every day. What . sports does he like? Tennis is her favorite sport. SHE often plays IT with my mother. Listen to the next question. Hello, i'm a fourteen year old girl and my name is am a black. This is my friend Peter Green. We are classmates and we are in class six. Great eight. Here is some information about us. My favorite color is blue. My cousin eric likes yellow a lot, and my brother bob likes White very march. Today i'm in a blue cap, and Peter is in a pair of Green shoes. We all like chinese very much, and I have a chinese class on monday afternoon. I think it's very great. I want to travel to china one day when we have time, we go to see different animals on the farm. I like pandas best, and Peter likes rabbits best. Bob and eric like dogs very much. Hello, i'm a fourteen year old girl and my name is am a black. This is my friend Peter Green. We are classmates and we are in class six, grade eight. Here is some information about us. My favorite color is blue. My cousin eric, like yellow a lot, and my brother bob likes White very much. Today i'm in a blue cap and Peter is in a pair of Green shoes. We all like chinese very much, and I have a chinese class on monday afternoon. I think it's very great. I want to travel to china one day when we have time. We go to see different animals on the farm. I like pandas best, and Peter likes rabbits best. Bob and eric like dogs very much. Listen to the next . question. My name is paul. I come from london now. My family are in shanghai. My parents work here as teachers in a school. I have a brother, but no sisters. My brother and I usually go to school by bike. We have a nice house in shanghai. IT has three rooms. There is a bed, a desk and two chairs in my room. There's also a big bookcase with many books in IT. I have a computer on my desk, and there are some pictures on the wall. I drew them by myself. I like drawing very much. My name is paul. I come from london now. My family are in shanghai. My parents work here as teachers in a school. I have a brother, but no sisters. My brother and I usually go to school by bike. We have a nice house in shanghai. IT has three room. There is a bed, a desk and two chairs in my room. There's also a big bookcase with many books in IT. I have a computer on my desk, and there are some pictures on the wall. I drew them by myself. I like drawing very much. 听力部分到此结束。 2025-2026学年上学期七年级英语期末模拟检测试题（安徽专用） （试卷满分：120分；考试时间：120分钟） 第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分) I.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1．What food can Teng Fei make? A． B． C． 2．When is Eric’s birthday? A． B． C． 3．Who is Mrs. Smith? A．Grace’s sister. B．Grace’s grandma. C．Grace’s mother. 4．Why does the girl like sheep? A．Because they’re nice. B．Because they’re cute. C．Because they’re fine. 5．What is Jack’s new school like? A．It’s small and tidy. B．It’s big and beautiful. C．It’s small and nice. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6．What colour is the cap? A．It’s red. B．It’s brown. C．It’s yellow. 7．Where is the cap? A．It’s on the desk. B．It’s in the bag. C．It’s under the chair. 听下面一段对话，回答8至10问题。 8．Who is in the photo? A．Anna. B．Anna’s sister. C．Anna’s aunt. 9．What does Helen look like? A．Short. B．Tall. C．Beautiful. 10．What sport does Helen like? A．Football. B．Ping-pong. C．Tennis. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11．What’s Emma’s family name? A．It’s Black. B．It’s Green. C．It’s Miller. 12．Who is Peter? A．He’s Emma’s classmate. B．He’s Emma’s cousin. C．He’s Emma’s brother. 13．What’s Eric’s favourite colour? A．It’s blue. B．It’s white. C．It’s yellow. 14．What is Peter wearing today? A．In a blue cap. B．In a pair of green shoes. C．In a pair of white trousers. 15．Who likes rabbits best? A．Emma. B．Eric. C．Peter. IV.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词，短文读两遍。 Paul’s Information Family His parents work in Shanghai as 16 . His brother and he usually go to school by 17 . His house He has a 18 house in Shanghai. His house has 19 rooms. There are some 20 on the wall. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分） V.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21．As a science fan, he can ________ the washing machine ________ to clean it. A．get; up B．take; place C．pick; up D．take; apart 22．The girl ________ is wearing a red dress is my sister. A．who B．which C．whose D．whom 23．She is ________. She always says “please” when asking for help. A．fit B．pretty C．polite D．smart 24．—What is ________ about having a pet dog? —People can enjoy its company. Pet dogs are really cute. A．kind B．fun C．family D．activity 25．It’s your turn to __________ yourself. Please tell us your name and your age. A．forget B．introduce C．follow D．remember 26．—What do you _________ on the wall? —A picture of the Sydney Opera House. I got it from my friend. A．think of B．put up C．look for D．listen to 27．My sister is learning to play ________ piano, and I like playing ________ basketball. A．the; the B．the; / C．/; the D．/; / 28．We usually ________ three hours ________ our work. A．spend; to finish B．take; to finish C．spend; finishing D．take; finishing 29．There is ________ bread in the fridge. Let us go to buy some, ________? A．little; will you B．few; shall we C．a few; will you D．some; shall we 30．— Shall we go to Nanjing Green Expo Park to enjoy the beautiful flowers this afternoon? — ________. Let’s go there by bike. A．I think so B．That’s all right C．My pleasure D．Sounds great VI.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A All people need good friends and want to get along well with them. But what do you do when you and your best friend have 31 ideas? At first, I didn’t know what to do when this happened to my best friend Helen and me. When we first met in Grade 6, we got along very 32 , so we shared stories, laughed a lot, and quickly became close friends. But then something unhappy happened at a picnic. “Did you hear the news about the shopping center?” asked one of our classmates. “Some people plan to cut down many trees to build a shopping center.” “That’s terrible! It will 33 our nature. We have to 34 it,” I said. “I don’t think so,” said Helen. “The shopping center will give people new jobs.” “But animals will 35 their homes.” I said. “I want people to have 36 , but I don’t want this terrible thing to happen.” I wanted Helen to join me in 37 trees, but she didn’t want to. I was so angry that I didn’t 38 her for days. Later, my mother knew it and said to me seriously (严肃地), “No two people are the same. You should respect each other. Don’t let the 39 make you lose a good friend.” After that, I said sorry to Helen and we talked to each other 40 . After that, we became good friends again. 31．A．wonderful B．different C．basic D．successful 32．A．loudly B．slowly C．well D．badly 33．A．be full of B．be good at C．be good for D．be bad for 34．A．practise B．trust C．stop D．mind 35．A．realize B．build C．clean D．lose 36．A．homes B．jobs C．rooms D．friends 37．A．watering B．planting C．climbing D．saving 38．A．write to B．talk to C．think of D．watch over 39．A．differences B．patience C．confidence D．importance 40．A．confidently B．personally C．luckily D．sincerely B Do you think children should do some chores at home? You may think children are busy with their schoolwork and have 41 time to clean the house or wash their clothes. However, doing chores is an important thing for children. In many families, children 42 with chores around the house. The chores are different 43 children of different ages. For example, kids aged 6 to 8 can sweep the 44 and empty the bins; kids aged 9 to 12 can mop floors and clean toilets. Children aged 13 and over can 45 the car, cook a meal, 46 younger brothers and sisters and walk the dog. Parents often show their children 47 to do different chores. It is good for parents to 48 their children to do chores at an early age. Children can learn important life skills 49 chores. Life skills 50 in the home. They will stay with children throughout their lives. 41．A．little B．few C．much D．more 42．A．do B．help C．ask D．give 43．A．for B．of C．in D．from 44．A．table B．chair C．floor D．window 45．A．drive B．wash C．sell D．stop 46．A．take part in B．take care of C．make friends with D．share things with 47．A．that B．which C．what D．how 48．A．make B．keep C．teach D．let 49．A．through B．on C．about D．at 50．A．join B．change C．go D．start VII.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Good morning! May I know your name? B: Good morning! Ted White. 51 and White is my last name. What’s your name? A: I’m Zhong Xiaohua. You can call me Xiaohua. 52 B: No, I’m from the UK. I lived in London before I came here. A: Oh, I see. 53 B: Class 2 and Mr. Lu is my class teacher. A: I’m in Class 1. 54 B: That is to say we have the same Chinese teacher. A: Bingo! 55 Let’s go! A．Ted is my family name. B．Are you American? C．That’s the bell. D．Mr Lu is my Chinese teacher. E．Which class are you in? F．Where are you from? G．Ted is my first name. 第三部分阅读(共两节，满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Traditional Chinese Culture Clubs (中国传统文化社团) ♥Chinese Food ClubActivities: ※ learn Chinese food culture ※ make jiaozi and zongzi Time: 3:30 p.m.—5:00 p.m. Monday Place: Room 118 Teacher: Mr. Lu ♥Chinese Music ClubActivities: ※ learn to play the erhu, dizi and pipa ※ enjoy traditional Chinese music Time: 5:00 p.m.—6:30 p.m. Tuesday Place: Room 303 Teacher: Ms. Tao ♥ Reading ClubActivities: ※ read Journey to the West ※ put on plays Time: 3:30 p.m.—5:00 p.m. Thursday Place: Room 402 Teacher: Mr. Cai ♥ Chinese Art ClubActivities: ※ watch Chinese art films ※ learn about paper-cutting (剪纸) Time: 5:00 p.m.—6:30 p.m. Friday Place: Room 205 Teacher: Miss Ma For more about the clubs, you can call or email Mr. Jin. Tel: 4038817 & Email Address (邮箱地址): Wanshitong@163.com 56．What can students do in Room 303? A．Learn about paper-cutting. B．Learn to play the erhu. C．Make jiaozi and zongzi. D．Know about Journey to the West. 57．Who teaches in the reading club? A．Mr. Cai. B．Miss Ma. C．Mr. Lu. D．Ms. Tao. 58．How can students find out more about the clubs? A．Write to Mr. Jin. B．Visit the school’s web page. C．Write an email. D．Visit Room 402. B Hi, everyone! Today we are going to talk about humanoid (人形的) robots. A humanoid robot looks like a person. It has a head, a body, arms and legs, just like us. Some humanoid robots can do many cool things. They can walk and talk with people. They can even run in marathons—some robots have joined in marathon races and finished the whole course (全程)! Also, they can help people a lot. For example, they can carry heavy things for old people at home. They can also tell interesting stories to students in schools. Now, you can’t see humanoid robots everywhere. They are not very common in our daily life. Maybe you can only see them in some big science shows or museums. But people are trying their best to make them better. Maybe in the future, there will be more humanoid robots around us, helping us with different jobs. 59．What does the underlined word “common” mean in the passage? A．easy to see B．hard to find C．good to use D．bad to have 60．What’s the best title for the passage? A．Humanoid Robots in Marathons B．Cool Humanoid Robots C．Future of Humanoid Robots D．Humanoid Robots Help People 61．What may the writer talk about next? A．What future humanoid robots can do. B．Where to see more humanoid robots later. C．How to make humanoid robots better. D．Why people need more humanoid robots. C Every week, Brad’s parents give him $12. It is not a gift. In fact, Brad makes that money (赚钱) himself. Each day, Brad takes out the rubbish, does the dishes and walks the dog. The problem is that Brad spends money just as quickly as he makes it. Brad buys lots of toy robots. When he wants to go to the movies with friends, he can’t cover a ticket. The money seems to burn a hole in his pocket. One day, Brad’s mom says to him, “You should make a budget.” “What’s that?” asks Brad. “It’s a plan of how your money will be spent. You put the money into parts for different kinds of things, like toys and snacks. You spend only as much as your budget allows. That way you can have money for different things,” says his dad. “Sounds great,” says Brad. “Will you help me make one?” That night, Brad sits down with his parents. They put the money into some parts for snacks, toys, movies and books. There are also two special parts, one for helping others and the other for Brad’s savings. From that day on, Brad always has enough money. At the end of that year, he donates (捐赠) $80 to old people’s home. Helping those in need makes Brad feel good. He then uses some of his savings to buy a small robot. That makes him feel good, too. 62．Brad makes the money by ________. A．selling his old toys B．working in a cinema C．recycling used things D．doing housework 63．What does “The money seems to burn a hole in his pocket” mean in paragraph 2? A．Brad spends too much money on clothes. B．Brad needs a box to keep his money. C．Brad spends money very quickly. D．Brad has a hole in his pocket. 64．What do we know about Brad’s budget? A．He makes it all by himself. B．He plans to spend more on toys. C．He saves two dollars every week. D．He keeps on doing it till the end of the year. 65．What does the passage mainly (主要) want to tell us? A．To help people in need. B．To help parents do housework. C．To make a budget and spend money wisely. D．Not to buy any toy robots. D Organizing (整理) for a better life Do you know what organizers do? They help people tidy up their homes. Li Shan is one of them. Five years ago, she left her job as a financial (财政的，金融的) worker because she wanted to do something different. She decided to become an organizer. She thinks being an organizer is a cool job. Not everyone supports (支持) Li, but she doesn’t give up. She works hard to help make people’s homes tidy and comfortable. So far, she has helped over 600 families organize their homes. Li doesn’t stop here. She also goes to schools to teach kids how to organize their things. At first, most of the kids don’t know how to tidy up. Li teaches them what to do step by step. The kids learn a lot and become good at organizing things. Li also teaches them how to turn old things into organizing tools. In this way, they can save money and help the environment. The kids are very happy with what they learn. Li feels happy about her job because she can help people and make a difference in their lives. She hopes more people can learn to organize their things and live a better life. 66．What can we infer (推断) from Li Shan’s decision to become an organizer although she doesn’t get full support? A．She cares little about others’ ideas. B．She is determined (下定决心的) to follow her own path. C．She thinks the job will bring her more money. D．She wants to prove herself to those who don’t support her. 67．Why does Li Shan feel happy about her job? A．Because she can earn a lot of money. B．Because she has become famous among families. C．Because she can make a difference in people’s lives. D．Because she no longer has to work as a financial worker. 68．What is the possible benefit(s) of Li Shan teaching kids to reuse old things as tools? A．It helps kids learn to save money for their families. B．It develops kids’ creativity and environmental awareness (意识). C．It makes kids more popular among their classmates. D．It allows kids to sell old things and earn pocket money. E Earth Day is celebrated every year on April 22. It began in 1970, when millions of Americans came together to fight against pollution and try to protect the environment (环境). This first Earth Day encouraged people from all over the world to take action. Today, it is the world’s biggest environmental movement to fight for a healthier planet. These years, Earth Day focuses on clean energy, with a goal to make clean energy three times as much as the level now by 2030. Everyone can help by sharing environmental-friendly ideas on the Internet, or supporting learning about climate change. Schools and governments are encouraged to work together to protect nature, cut down pollution, and save animals and plants. Earth Day shows that, nowadays, the plastic pollution is much worse than before. Do you know micro-plastics (微塑料) are now found in food like seafood and tea? So, Earth Day encourages to buy bags that can be used again when shopping. Using fewer plastic bottles is also useful. The theme for Earth Day 2025 is “OUR POWER, OUR PLANET.” Its message is clear: Our planet’s health needs us to take action. Small actions are helpful, such as planting trees with Earth Day. By working together, we can build a greener world where people and nature grow and thrive. Join the movement — your actions today shape tomorrow’s Earth! 69．How did the first Earth Day in 1970 begin? A．People in the UK wanted to start environmental groups. B．People wanted to use clean energy around the world. C．People hoped to solve climate problems. D．People gathered together to fight against pollution. 70．What can we know from paragraph 2? A．Earth Day’s goal for 2030 is to stop pollution around the world. B．People can take action in many ways, such as sharing green ideas online. C．Schools and governments use more clean energy than before. D．Earth Day now asks everyone to use only clean energy in their daily life. 71．Why does the writer mention (提到) micro-plastics in seafood and tea? A．To suggest that we shouldn’t eat seafood and drink tea. B．To tell us that plastic pollution can be harmful to our health. C．To share the idea that environmental-friendly products are useless. D．To talk about why buying bags is more important than recycling clothes. 72．What does the theme “OUR POWER,OUR PLANET” tell us? A．Schools and governments alone have the power to save the planet. B．Planting trees is the only solution to solve environmental problems. C．Every person’s actions play an important part in protecting the Earth. D．The planet’s health can not be helped by humans. 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。 F Hip-hop dance is popular with many young people today. They like it because they can invent (发明) their own moves. They use this dance to show their love for life. It also shows that they feel good about life, that they just want to be themselves and enjoy life, and that they are not afraid of problems. Hip-hop dance first began in the 1970s in the USA．In early times, in New York and Los Angeles, many young people often danced to the music in the streets. They used their legs, arms, heads and even shoulders (肩膀) to dance. Many young people still use most of these moves today. Hip-hop dance became popular all over the world because of the 1983 film Flashdance. Some people performed (表演) hip-hop dance in the movie. People enjoyed their performance. They began to dance like them. Then it became popular. There are two kinds of hip-hop dance: new school and old school. More and more young people are learning hip-hop dance. People believe that it is a good way to exercise their bodies, and that it is good for their health. 73．When did hip-hop dance begin? (不超过5个词) 74．How did the young people dance to the music in the streets in the beginning? (不超过15个词) 75．What made hip-hop dance popular all over the world? (不超过5个词) 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 76．A s (陌生人) knocked on our door last night. 77．Children can learn many meaningful things from r (喂养) a pet. 78．You must keep your room t (整洁的). 79．Body l (语言) means different things in different countries. 80．My grandpa has b (均衡的) meals every day, so he still looks young at the age of 70. Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 假如你是某国际学校自然探索社团的成员。该社团开展了以“Journey through nature”为题的征文活动。请你根据提示，用英语写一篇短文向本次征文活动投稿，叙述一次让你印象最深的户外活动，分享你的所见所闻。 提示： Where did you take the trip? ·on a small mountain Who went there with you? ·my family What did you do during the trip? ·climbed the mountain ·saw beautiful flowers and lovely butterflies ·... How did you feel? ·an amazing experience ·... What was the happiest moment? ·reached the top ·... 要求：1. 包含提示信息，可适当发挥；2. 语句通顺，语法正确，行文连贯，书写工整；3. 词数80-100（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。 I’m happy to share my favourite hiking experience with you. Last summer, ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2 / 23 1 / 23 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年上学期七年级英语期末模拟检测试题（安徽专用） （试卷满分：120分；考试时间：120分钟） 第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分) I.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1．What food can Teng Fei make? A． B． C． 【答案】C 【原文】A:What food can you make, Teng Fei? B:I can make jiaozi. 2．When is Eric’s birthday? A． B． C． 【答案】B 【原文】略。 3．Who is Mrs. Smith? A．Grace’s sister. B．Grace’s grandma. C．Grace’s mother. 【答案】C 【原文】A: Hi! Grace, is your mother’s last name Green? B: No, it is Smith. Green is my grandmother’s last name. 4．Why does the girl like sheep? A．Because they’re nice. B．Because they’re cute. C．Because they’re fine. 【答案】B 【原文】W: I like sheep a lot, because they are cute. M: Me, too. 5．What is Jack’s new school like? A．It’s small and tidy. B．It’s big and beautiful. C．It’s small and nice. 【答案】B 【原文】A: What is your new school like, Jack? B: It’s big and beautiful. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6．What colour is the cap? A．It’s red. B．It’s brown. C．It’s yellow. 7．Where is the cap? A．It’s on the desk. B．It’s in the bag. C．It’s under the chair. 【答案】6．C 7．B 【原文】W: I can’t find my cap. Can you help me? M: Is it red? W: No. It’s yellow. I like it. M: Is it on your desk? W: No. I can’t find it there. M: Oh. I remember it’s in your bag. W: Yes. Here it is! Thank you. M: You’re welcome. 听下面一段对话，回答8至10问题。 8．Who is in the photo? A．Anna. B．Anna’s sister. C．Anna’s aunt. 9．What does Helen look like? A．Short. B．Tall. C．Beautiful. 10．What sport does Helen like? A．Football. B．Ping-pong. C．Tennis. 【答案】8．C 9．B 10．C 【原文】M: Who’s she in the photo, Anna? W: She’s my aunt Helen. M: She looks very tall. W: Yes. She does sports every day. M: What sport does she like? W: Tennis is her favourite sport. She often plays it with my mother. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11．What’s Emma’s family name? A．It’s Black. B．It’s Green. C．It’s Miller. 12．Who is Peter? A．He’s Emma’s classmate. B．He’s Emma’s cousin. C．He’s Emma’s brother. 13．What’s Eric’s favourite colour? A．It’s blue. B．It’s white. C．It’s yellow. 14．What is Peter wearing today? A．In a blue cap. B．In a pair of green shoes. C．In a pair of white trousers. 15．Who likes rabbits best? A．Emma. B．Eric. C．Peter. 【答案】11．A 12．A 13．C 14．B 15．C 【原文】 Hello! I’m a 14-year-old girl, and my name is Emma Black. This is my friend, Peter Green. We are classmates and we are in Class 6, Grade 8. Here is some information about us. My favourite colour is blue. My cousin Eric likes yellow a lot and my brother Bob likes white very much. Today I’m in a blue cap and Peter is in a pair of green shoes. We all like Chinese very much, and I have a Chinese class on Monday afternoon. I think it’s very great. I want to travel to China one day. When we have time, we go to see different animals on the farm. I like pandas best and Peter likes rabbits best. Bob and Eric like dogs very much. IV.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词，短文读两遍。 Paul’s Information Family His parents work in Shanghai as 16 . His brother and he usually go to school by 17 . His house He has a 18 house in Shanghai. His house has 19 rooms. There are some 20 on the wall. 【答案】16．teachers 17．bike 18．nice 19．3/three 20．pictures 【原文】My name is Paul. I come from London. Now my family are in Shanghai. My parents work here as teachers in a school. I have a brother but no sisters. My brother and I usually go to school by bike. We have a nice house in Shanghai. It has three rooms. There is a bed, a desk and two chairs in my room. There’s also a big book case with many books in it. I have a computer on my desk. And there are some pictures on the wall. I drew them by myself. I like drawing very much. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分） V.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21．As a science fan, he can ________ the washing machine ________ to clean it. A．get; up B．take; place C．pick; up D．take; apart 【答案】D 【解析】句意：作为一个科学爱好者，他能够拆卸洗衣机来清洁它。 考查动词短语辨析。A项意为“起床”；B项意为“发生”；C项意为“捡起”；D项意为“拆卸”。根据“he can...the washing machine...to clean it”及常识可知，清洁洗衣机通常需要拆卸内部部件，因此take apart最符合句意。故选D。 22．The girl ________ is wearing a red dress is my sister. A．who B．which C．whose D．whom 【答案】A 【解析】句意：穿着红色连衣裙的那个女孩是我的姐姐。 考查关系代词辨析。who指代人，作主语或宾语；which指代物；whose表示所属关系；whom指代人，作宾语。根据“The girl…is wearing a red dress”可知，先行词是girl，且关系代词在从句中作主语，需用who。故选A。 23．She is ________. She always says “please” when asking for help. A．fit B．pretty C．polite D．smart 【答案】C 【解析】句意：她很有礼貌。她总是在请求帮助时说“请”。 考查形容词辨析。fit健康的；pretty漂亮的；polite有礼貌的；smart聪明的。根据“She always says ‘please’ when asking for help.”可知，总是在请求帮助时说‘请’”应是很“有礼貌的”行为。故选C。 24．—What is ________ about having a pet dog? —People can enjoy its company. Pet dogs are really cute. A．kind B．fun C．family D．activity 【答案】B 【解析】句意：——养宠物狗有什么乐趣？——人们可以享受它的陪伴。宠物狗真的很可爱。 考查名词辨析。kind种类；fun乐趣；family家庭；activity活动。根据答语“People can enjoy its company. Pet dogs are really cute.”可知，问句是问养狗的乐趣所在，fun符合语境。故选B。 25．It’s your turn to __________ yourself. Please tell us your name and your age. A．forget B．introduce C．follow D．remember 【答案】B 【解析】句意：轮到你来介绍自己了。请告诉我们你的名字和年龄。 考查动词辨析。forget忘记；introduce介绍；follow跟随；remember记住。根据“Please tell us your name and your age.”可知，此处应表示“自我介绍”，故选B。 26．—What do you _________ on the wall? —A picture of the Sydney Opera House. I got it from my friend. A．think of B．put up C．look for D．listen to 【答案】B 【解析】句意：——你在墙上贴了什么？——一张悉尼歌剧院的照片。我从朋友那里得到的。 考查动词短语辨析。think of认为； put up张贴；look for寻找；listen to听。根据“on the wall”以及“A picture of the Sydney Opera House.”可知此处指在墙上张贴照片，故选B。 27．My sister is learning to play ________ piano, and I like playing ________ basketball. A．the; the B．the; / C．/; the D．/; / 【答案】B 【解析】句意：我姐姐正在学习弹钢琴，而我喜欢打篮球。 考查冠词用法。表示乐器的名词前通常加定冠词the，如play the piano；表示球类运动的名词前不加冠词，如play basketball。故选B。 28．We usually ________ three hours ________ our work. A．spend; to finish B．take; to finish C．spend; finishing D．take; finishing 【答案】C 【解析】句意：我们通常花三个小时完成我们的工作。 考查动词辨析及非谓语动词。spend花费，主语是人，spend time doing sth.“花时间做某事”；take花费，主语通常是it，It takes sb. + 时间 + to do sth。根据主语“We”可知，此处用spend，且动词用ing形式。故选C。 29．There is ________ bread in the fridge. Let us go to buy some, ________? A．little; will you B．few; shall we C．a few; will you D．some; shall we 【答案】A 【解析】句意：冰箱里几乎没有面包了。让我们去买一些吧，好吗？ 考查代词辨析与反意疑问句。little几乎没有，后面接不可数名词；few几乎没有，后面接可数名词复数；a few几个，后面接可数名词复数；some一些，后面接可数名词复数或不可数名词。空一根据“bread”可知，面包是不可数名词，故排除B和C，根据“Let us go to buy some,”可知，此处应表示几乎没有面包了，故用little；空二根据“Let us go to buy some,...?”可知，此处为反意疑问句，问句部分应用will you。故选A。 30．— Shall we go to Nanjing Green Expo Park to enjoy the beautiful flowers this afternoon? — ________. Let’s go there by bike. A．I think so B．That’s all right C．My pleasure D．Sounds great 【答案】D 【解析】句意：——今天下午我们去南京绿博览园赏花好吗？   ——听起来不错。我们骑自行车去吧。   考查情景交际。I think so我也这么想；That’s all right没关系；My pleasure这是我的荣幸；Sounds great听起来不错。根据“Let’s go there by bike.”可知，此处应该是赞同上文的提议。因此用Sounds great来回答符合语境。故选D。 VI.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A All people need good friends and want to get along well with them. But what do you do when you and your best friend have 31 ideas? At first, I didn’t know what to do when this happened to my best friend Helen and me. When we first met in Grade 6, we got along very 32 , so we shared stories, laughed a lot, and quickly became close friends. But then something unhappy happened at a picnic. “Did you hear the news about the shopping center?” asked one of our classmates. “Some people plan to cut down many trees to build a shopping center.” “That’s terrible! It will 33 our nature. We have to 34 it,” I said. “I don’t think so,” said Helen. “The shopping center will give people new jobs.” “But animals will 35 their homes.” I said. “I want people to have 36 , but I don’t want this terrible thing to happen.” I wanted Helen to join me in 37 trees, but she didn’t want to. I was so angry that I didn’t 38 her for days. Later, my mother knew it and said to me seriously (严肃地), “No two people are the same. You should respect each other. Don’t let the 39 make you lose a good friend.” After that, I said sorry to Helen and we talked to each other 40 . After that, we became good friends again. 31．A．wonderful B．different C．basic D．successful 32．A．loudly B．slowly C．well D．badly 33．A．be full of B．be good at C．be good for D．be bad for 34．A．practise B．trust C．stop D．mind 35．A．realize B．build C．clean D．lose 36．A．homes B．jobs C．rooms D．friends 37．A．watering B．planting C．climbing D．saving 38．A．write to B．talk to C．think of D．watch over 39．A．differences B．patience C．confidence D．importance 40．A．confidently B．personally C．luckily D．sincerely 【答案】 31．B 32．C 33．D 34．C 35．D 36．B 37．D 38．B 39．A 40．D 【解析】本文讲述了作者和好朋友海伦之间因为对建设购物中心的不同意见而产生分歧，后来通过妈妈的劝解和好的故事。 31．句意：但是当你和你最好的朋友有不同想法时，你会怎么做呢？ wonderful精彩的；different不同的；basic基本的；successful成功的。根据“But what do you do when you and your best friend have...ideas?”以及后文“That’s terrible”；“But animals will…”可知，此处指和最好的朋友有不同想法时的情况。故选B。 32．句意：当我们在六年级第一次见面时，我们相处得很好，所以我们分享故事，经常大笑，很快就成了亲密的朋友。 loudly大声地；slowly慢慢地；well好；badly糟糕地。根据“so we shared stories, laughed a lot, and quickly became close friends.”可知，两人相处得很好，get along very well“相处得好”，故选C。 33．句意：那太糟糕了，它会对我们的自然有害。 be full of充满；be good at擅长；be good for对……有好处；be bad for对……有害。根据“Some people plan to cut down many trees to build a shopping center.”以及“That’s terrible”可知，作者认为砍树建购物中心对自然有害。故选D。 34．句意：我们必须阻止它。 practise练习；trust信任；stop阻止；mind介意。根据“Some people plan to cut down many trees to build a shopping center.”以及“That’s terrible It will...our nature.”可知，砍树建购物中心对自然有害，所以要阻止。故选C。 35．句意：但是动物们会失去它们的家园。 realize意识到；build建造；clean打扫；lose失去。根据“But animals will...their homes”可知，砍树会让动物失去家园。故选D。 36．句意：我希望人们有工作，但我不希望这种可怕的事情发生。 homes家；jobs工作；rooms房间；friends朋友。根据“The shopping center will give people new jobs.”可知，此处指希望人们有工作。故选B。 37．句意：我希望海伦能和我一起拯救树木，但她不想。 watering浇水；planting种植；climbing爬；saving拯救。根据“Some people plan to cut down many trees to build a shopping center.”以及“I wanted Helen to join me in...trees”可知，作者想和海伦一起拯救树木。故选D。 38．句意：我很生气，好几天没和她说话。 write to写信给；talk to和……说话；think of想起；watch over照看。根据“I was so angry that I didn’t...her for days.”以及后文“After that, I said sorry to Helen and we talked to each other...After that, we become good friends again.”可知，作者很生气，好几天没和海伦说话。故选B。 39．句意：不要让分歧让你失去一个好朋友。 differences差异，分歧；patience耐心；confidence信心；importance重要性。根据“No two people are the same. You should respect each other.”可知，没有两个人是一样的，所以会有分歧，此处指不要让分歧让你失去一个好朋友。故选A。 40．句意：之后，我向海伦道歉，我们真诚地交谈。 confidently自信地；personally亲自地；luckily幸运地；sincerely真诚地。根据“After that, I said sorry to Helen and we talked to each other...After that, we become good friends again.”可知，两人真诚地交谈后，又成了好朋友。故选D。 B Do you think children should do some chores at home? You may think children are busy with their schoolwork and have 41 time to clean the house or wash their clothes. However, doing chores is an important thing for children. In many families, children 42 with chores around the house. The chores are different 43 children of different ages. For example, kids aged 6 to 8 can sweep the 44 and empty the bins; kids aged 9 to 12 can mop floors and clean toilets. Children aged 13 and over can 45 the car, cook a meal, 46 younger brothers and sisters and walk the dog. Parents often show their children 47 to do different chores. It is good for parents to 48 their children to do chores at an early age. Children can learn important life skills 49 chores. Life skills 50 in the home. They will stay with children throughout their lives. 41．A．little B．few C．much D．more 42．A．do B．help C．ask D．give 43．A．for B．of C．in D．from 44．A．table B．chair C．floor D．window 45．A．drive B．wash C．sell D．stop 46．A．take part in B．take care of C．make friends with D．share things with 47．A．that B．which C．what D．how 48．A．make B．keep C．teach D．let 49．A．through B．on C．about D．at 50．A．join B．change C．go D．start 【答案】 41．A 42．B 43．A 44．C 45．B 46．B 47．D 48．C 49．A 50．D 【解析】本文是一篇议论文。文章主要讨论了孩子是否应该在家做家务，阐述了不同年龄段孩子能做的家务，强调做家务对孩子很重要，能让他们学到重要生活技能，且这些技能会伴随一生。 41．句意：你可能认为孩子们忙于功课，几乎没有时间打扫房子或洗衣服。 little少，修饰不可数名词；few少，修饰可数名词复数；much多，修饰不可数名词；more更多。根据“You may think children are busy with their schoolwork”可知，孩子们忙于功课，所以几乎没时间打扫房子或洗衣服，time为不可数名词，应用little修饰。故选A。 42．句意：在许多家庭中，孩子们帮忙做家务。 do做；help帮助；ask问；give给。根据下文对不同年龄段孩子能做家务的举例可知，此处指孩子们帮忙做家务，help with“帮忙做某事”。故选B。 43．句意：不同年龄的孩子做的家务不同。 for为了；of……的；in在……里；from从。be different for“对……来说是不同的”，此处指不同年龄的孩子做的家务不同。故选A。 44．句意：例如，6到8岁的孩子可以扫地和倒垃圾；9至12岁的孩子可以拖地和打扫厕所。 table桌子；chair椅子；floor地板；window窗户。根据“sweep”可知，此处指扫地，sweep the floor“扫地”。故选C。 45．句意：13岁及以上的孩子可以洗车、做饭、照顾弟弟妹妹和遛狗。 drive驾驶；wash洗；sell卖；stop停止。根据“the car”可知，此处指洗车，wash the car“洗车”。故选B。 46．句意：13岁及以上的孩子可以洗车、做饭、照顾弟弟妹妹和遛狗。 take part in参加；take care of照顾；make friends with和……交朋友；share things with和……分享东西。根据“younger brothers and sisters”可知，此处指照顾弟弟妹妹，take care of“照顾”。故选B。 47．句意：父母经常教他们的孩子如何做不同的家务。 that那个；which哪个；what什么；how如何。根据“to do different chores”可知，此处指如何做不同的家务，how“如何”符合语境。故选D。 48．句意：父母在孩子很小的时候就教他们做家务是很好的。 make制作；keep保持；teach教；let让。根据上文“Parents often show their children…to do different chores.”可知，父母教孩子做家务，teach“教”符合语境。故选C。 49．句意：孩子们可以通过做家务学到重要的生活技能。 through通过；on在……上；about关于；at在。根据“chores”可知，此处指通过做家务学到重要的生活技能，through“通过”符合语境。故选A。 50．句意：生活技能从家里开始。 join加入；change改变；go去；start开始。根据“They will stay with children throughout their lives.”可知，生活技能会伴随孩子一生，所以此处指生活技能从家里开始，start“开始”符合语境。故选D。 VII.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Good morning! May I know your name? B: Good morning! Ted White. 51 and White is my last name. What’s your name? A: I’m Zhong Xiaohua. You can call me Xiaohua. 52 B: No, I’m from the UK. I lived in London before I came here. A: Oh, I see. 53 B: Class 2 and Mr. Lu is my class teacher. A: I’m in Class 1. 54 B: That is to say we have the same Chinese teacher. A: Bingo! 55 Let’s go! A．Ted is my family name. B．Are you American? C．That’s the bell. D．Mr Lu is my Chinese teacher. E．Which class are you in? F．Where are you from? G．Ted is my first name. 【答案】51．G 52．B 53．E 54．D 55．C 【解析】本文是一则对话，主要内容为两人互相认识并交流班级和老师信息。 51．根据“Ted White.”和“and White is my last name.”可知，此处是在介绍自己的名字，且表明White是姓，那么Ted就是名。选项G“Ted是我的名字”符合语境。故选G。 52．根据“No, I’m from the UK.”可知，此处是一个一般疑问句，且内容与国籍相关。选项B“你是美国人吗”符合语境。故选B。 53．根据“Class 2 and Mr. Lu is my class teacher.”可知，此处是在询问对方所在的班级。选项E“你在哪个班级”符合语境。故选E。 54．根据“That is to say we have the same Chinese teacher.”可知，此处是在说明自己的语文老师是谁。选项D“陆老师是我的语文老师”符合语境。故选D。 55．根据“Let’s go!”可知，此处是表示要去做某事，结合选项，只有选项C“铃响了”符合语境，铃响后通常要去做接下来该做的事，比如上课等。故选C。 第三部分阅读(共两节，满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Traditional Chinese Culture Clubs (中国传统文化社团) ♥Chinese Food ClubActivities: ※ learn Chinese food culture ※ make jiaozi and zongzi Time: 3:30 p.m.—5:00 p.m. Monday Place: Room 118 Teacher: Mr. Lu ♥Chinese Music ClubActivities: ※ learn to play the erhu, dizi and pipa ※ enjoy traditional Chinese music Time: 5:00 p.m.—6:30 p.m. Tuesday Place: Room 303 Teacher: Ms. Tao ♥ Reading ClubActivities: ※ read Journey to the West ※ put on plays Time: 3:30 p.m.—5:00 p.m. Thursday Place: Room 402 Teacher: Mr. Cai ♥ Chinese Art ClubActivities: ※ watch Chinese art films ※ learn about paper-cutting (剪纸) Time: 5:00 p.m.—6:30 p.m. Friday Place: Room 205 Teacher: Miss Ma For more about the clubs, you can call or email Mr. Jin. Tel: 4038817 & Email Address (邮箱地址): Wanshitong@163.com 56．What can students do in Room 303? A．Learn about paper-cutting. B．Learn to play the erhu. C．Make jiaozi and zongzi. D．Know about Journey to the West. 57．Who teaches in the reading club? A．Mr. Cai. B．Miss Ma. C．Mr. Lu. D．Ms. Tao. 58．How can students find out more about the clubs? A．Write to Mr. Jin. B．Visit the school’s web page. C．Write an email. D．Visit Room 402. 【答案】56．B 57．A 58．C 【解析】本文介绍了学校的四个社团——中国美食社、中国音乐社、阅读社和中国艺术社。 56．细节理解题。由中国音乐社 (Chinese Music Club) 的信息“learn to play the erhu, dizi and pipa”和“Room 303”可知，在303房间其活动有学习拉二胡、吹笛子和弹琵琶等，所以学生在303房间可以拉二胡。故选B。 57．细节理解题。从阅读社(Reading Club)的信息“Teacher: Mr. Cai”可知，在阅读社教学的是蔡老师。故选A。 58．细节理解题。根据文中“For more about the clubs, you can call or email Mr. Jin.；Tel: 4038817 & Email Address (邮箱地址): Wanshitong@163.com”可知，可以通过打电话或发邮件给金老师来了解更多社团信息。故选C。 B Hi, everyone! Today we are going to talk about humanoid (人形的) robots. A humanoid robot looks like a person. It has a head, a body, arms and legs, just like us. Some humanoid robots can do many cool things. They can walk and talk with people. They can even run in marathons—some robots have joined in marathon races and finished the whole course (全程)! Also, they can help people a lot. For example, they can carry heavy things for old people at home. They can also tell interesting stories to students in schools. Now, you can’t see humanoid robots everywhere. They are not very common in our daily life. Maybe you can only see them in some big science shows or museums. But people are trying their best to make them better. Maybe in the future, there will be more humanoid robots around us, helping us with different jobs. 59．What does the underlined word “common” mean in the passage? A．easy to see B．hard to find C．good to use D．bad to have 60．What’s the best title for the passage? A．Humanoid Robots in Marathons B．Cool Humanoid Robots C．Future of Humanoid Robots D．Humanoid Robots Help People 61．What may the writer talk about next? A．What future humanoid robots can do. B．Where to see more humanoid robots later. C．How to make humanoid robots better. D．Why people need more humanoid robots. 【答案】59．A 60．B 61．A 【解析】本文主要介绍了人形机器人的相关内容。 59．词句猜测题。根据“Now, you can’t see humanoid robots everywhere. They are not very common in our daily life. Maybe you can only see them in some big science shows or museums.”可知，现在不能到处看到人形机器人，它们在日常生活中不是很常见。所以“common”在这里的意思是“常见”。故选A。 60．最佳标题题。根据“Today we are going to talk about humanoid (人形的) robots. A humanoid robot looks like a person. It has a head, a body, arms and legs, just like us. Some humanoid robots can do many cool things.”可知文章开篇引出人形机器人这一话题，接着介绍了人形机器人能做的很多酷的事情，故选B。 61．推理判断题。文章最后提到“But people are trying their best to make them better. Maybe in the future, there will be more humanoid robots around us, helping us with different jobs.”，说明人们正在努力让人形机器人变得更好，未来可能会有更多人形机器人帮助我们做不同工作，由此可推断接下来作者可能会谈论未来人形机器人能做什么。故选A。 C Every week, Brad’s parents give him $12. It is not a gift. In fact, Brad makes that money (赚钱) himself. Each day, Brad takes out the rubbish, does the dishes and walks the dog. The problem is that Brad spends money just as quickly as he makes it. Brad buys lots of toy robots. When he wants to go to the movies with friends, he can’t cover a ticket. The money seems to burn a hole in his pocket. One day, Brad’s mom says to him, “You should make a budget.” “What’s that?” asks Brad. “It’s a plan of how your money will be spent. You put the money into parts for different kinds of things, like toys and snacks. You spend only as much as your budget allows. That way you can have money for different things,” says his dad. “Sounds great,” says Brad. “Will you help me make one?” That night, Brad sits down with his parents. They put the money into some parts for snacks, toys, movies and books. There are also two special parts, one for helping others and the other for Brad’s savings. From that day on, Brad always has enough money. At the end of that year, he donates (捐赠) $80 to old people’s home. Helping those in need makes Brad feel good. He then uses some of his savings to buy a small robot. That makes him feel good, too. 62．Brad makes the money by ________. A．selling his old toys B．working in a cinema C．recycling used things D．doing housework 63．What does “The money seems to burn a hole in his pocket” mean in paragraph 2? A．Brad spends too much money on clothes. B．Brad needs a box to keep his money. C．Brad spends money very quickly. D．Brad has a hole in his pocket. 64．What do we know about Brad’s budget? A．He makes it all by himself. B．He plans to spend more on toys. C．He saves two dollars every week. D．He keeps on doing it till the end of the year. 65．What does the passage mainly (主要) want to tell us? A．To help people in need. B．To help parents do housework. C．To make a budget and spend money wisely. D．Not to buy any toy robots. 【答案】62．D 63．C 64．D 65．C 【解析】本文讲述布拉德每周通过做家务赚取12美元，但花钱无节制。父母教他制定预算计划，合理分配开支后，他不仅有钱买玩具，还能储蓄和捐款，学会理财。 62．细节理解题。根据“Each day, Brad takes out the rubbish, does the dishes and walks the dog.”可知，他通过做家务赚钱，故选D。 63．词句猜测题。根据“The problem is that Brad spends money just as quickly as he makes it.”及“When he wants to go to the movies with friends, he can’t cover a ticket.”可知，这句话形容他花钱极快，故选C。 64．细节理解题。根据“From that day on, Brad always has enough money. At the end of that year, he donates (捐赠) $80 to old people’s home.”可知，他坚持执行预算计划到年底，故选D。 65．主旨大意题。全文围绕布拉德通过制定预算学会理性消费展开，强调“制定预算，明智地花钱。”的重要性，故选C。 D Organizing (整理) for a better life Do you know what organizers do? They help people tidy up their homes. Li Shan is one of them. Five years ago, she left her job as a financial (财政的，金融的) worker because she wanted to do something different. She decided to become an organizer. She thinks being an organizer is a cool job. Not everyone supports (支持) Li, but she doesn’t give up. She works hard to help make people’s homes tidy and comfortable. So far, she has helped over 600 families organize their homes. Li doesn’t stop here. She also goes to schools to teach kids how to organize their things. At first, most of the kids don’t know how to tidy up. Li teaches them what to do step by step. The kids learn a lot and become good at organizing things. Li also teaches them how to turn old things into organizing tools. In this way, they can save money and help the environment. The kids are very happy with what they learn. Li feels happy about her job because she can help people and make a difference in their lives. She hopes more people can learn to organize their things and live a better life. 66．What can we infer (推断) from Li Shan’s decision to become an organizer although she doesn’t get full support? A．She cares little about others’ ideas. B．She is determined (下定决心的) to follow her own path. C．She thinks the job will bring her more money. D．She wants to prove herself to those who don’t support her. 67．Why does Li Shan feel happy about her job? A．Because she can earn a lot of money. B．Because she has become famous among families. C．Because she can make a difference in people’s lives. D．Because she no longer has to work as a financial worker. 68．What is the possible benefit(s) of Li Shan teaching kids to reuse old things as tools? A．It helps kids learn to save money for their families. B．It develops kids’ creativity and environmental awareness (意识). C．It makes kids more popular among their classmates. D．It allows kids to sell old things and earn pocket money. 【答案】66．B 67．C 68．B 【解析】本文主要介绍了李姗放弃金融工作成为整理师，她帮助人们整理家居，还到学校教孩子们整理物品，她对自己的工作感到开心，希望能让更多人学会整理、过上更好的生活。 66．推理判断题。根据“Not everyone supports (支持) Li, but she doesn’t give up.”可知，虽然不是每个人都支持李姗，但她没有放弃，由此可推断出她下定决心要走自己的路。故选B。 67．细节理解题。根据“Li feels happy about her job because she can help people and make a difference in their lives.”可知，李姗对自己的工作感到开心是因为她可以帮助人们，并对他们的生活产生影响。故选C。 68．推理判断题。根据“Li also teaches them how to turn old things into organizing tools. In this way, they can save money and help the environment.”可知，李姗教孩子们把旧东西变成整理工具，这样做可以省钱并有助于保护环境，由此可推断出这能培养孩子们的创造力和环保意识。故选B。 E Earth Day is celebrated every year on April 22. It began in 1970, when millions of Americans came together to fight against pollution and try to protect the environment (环境). This first Earth Day encouraged people from all over the world to take action. Today, it is the world’s biggest environmental movement to fight for a healthier planet. These years, Earth Day focuses on clean energy, with a goal to make clean energy three times as much as the level now by 2030. Everyone can help by sharing environmental-friendly ideas on the Internet, or supporting learning about climate change. Schools and governments are encouraged to work together to protect nature, cut down pollution, and save animals and plants. Earth Day shows that, nowadays, the plastic pollution is much worse than before. Do you know micro-plastics (微塑料) are now found in food like seafood and tea? So, Earth Day encourages to buy bags that can be used again when shopping. Using fewer plastic bottles is also useful. The theme for Earth Day 2025 is “OUR POWER, OUR PLANET.” Its message is clear: Our planet’s health needs us to take action. Small actions are helpful, such as planting trees with Earth Day. By working together, we can build a greener world where people and nature grow and thrive. Join the movement — your actions today shape tomorrow’s Earth! 69．How did the first Earth Day in 1970 begin? A．People in the UK wanted to start environmental groups. B．People wanted to use clean energy around the world. C．People hoped to solve climate problems. D．People gathered together to fight against pollution. 70．What can we know from paragraph 2? A．Earth Day’s goal for 2030 is to stop pollution around the world. B．People can take action in many ways, such as sharing green ideas online. C．Schools and governments use more clean energy than before. D．Earth Day now asks everyone to use only clean energy in their daily life. 71．Why does the writer mention (提到) micro-plastics in seafood and tea? A．To suggest that we shouldn’t eat seafood and drink tea. B．To tell us that plastic pollution can be harmful to our health. C．To share the idea that environmental-friendly products are useless. D．To talk about why buying bags is more important than recycling clothes. 72．What does the theme “OUR POWER,OUR PLANET” tell us? A．Schools and governments alone have the power to save the planet. B．Planting trees is the only solution to solve environmental problems. C．Every person’s actions play an important part in protecting the Earth. D．The planet’s health can not be helped by humans. 【答案】69．D 70．B 71．B 72．C 【解析】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了地球日的起源、近年来的关注焦点、塑料污染问题以及2025年地球日的主题，呼吁人们采取行动保护地球。 69．细节理解题。根据文章第1段“It began in 1970, when millions of Americans came together to fight against pollution and try to protect the environment.”可知，1970年第一个地球日是人们聚集在一起对抗污染。故选D。 70．细节理解题。根据文章第2段“Everyone can help by sharing environmental-friendly ideas on the Internet, or supporting learning about climate change.”可知，人们可以通过多种方式采取行动，比如在网上分享环保理念。故选B。 71．推理判断题。根据文章第3段“Earth Day shows that, nowadays, the plastic pollution is much worse than before. Do you know micro-plastics are now found in food like seafood and tea?”可知，作者提到海鲜和茶中的微塑料是为了说明塑料污染对我们的健康有害。故选B。 72．推理判断题。根据文章第4段“Its message is clear: Our planet’s health needs us to take action. Small actions are helpful...By working together, we can build a greener world...”可知，“OUR POWER, OUR PLANET”这个主题告诉我们每个人的行动在保护地球方面都很重要。故选C。 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。 F Hip-hop dance is popular with many young people today. They like it because they can invent (发明) their own moves. They use this dance to show their love for life. It also shows that they feel good about life, that they just want to be themselves and enjoy life, and that they are not afraid of problems. Hip-hop dance first began in the 1970s in the USA．In early times, in New York and Los Angeles, many young people often danced to the music in the streets. They used their legs, arms, heads and even shoulders (肩膀) to dance. Many young people still use most of these moves today. Hip-hop dance became popular all over the world because of the 1983 film Flashdance. Some people performed (表演) hip-hop dance in the movie. People enjoyed their performance. They began to dance like them. Then it became popular. There are two kinds of hip-hop dance: new school and old school. More and more young people are learning hip-hop dance. People believe that it is a good way to exercise their bodies, and that it is good for their health. 73．When did hip-hop dance begin? (不超过5个词) 74．How did the young people dance to the music in the streets in the beginning? (不超过15个词) 75．What made hip-hop dance popular all over the world? (不超过5个词) 【答案】73．In the 1970s. 74．They used legs, arms, heads and shoulders. 75．The 1983 film Flashdance. 【解析】本文主要介绍了街舞的起源、特点和流行原因。 73．根据“Hip-hop dance first began in the 1970s in the USA.”可知，街舞最早起源于20世纪70年代的美国。故填In the 1970s. 74．根据“They used their legs, arms, heads and even shoulders (肩膀) to dance.”可知，一开始他们用腿、胳膊、头甚至肩膀来跳舞。故填They used legs, arms, heads and shoulders. 75．根据“Hip-hop dance became popular all over the world because of the 1983 film Flashdance.”可知，街舞因为1983年的电影《闪舞》而风靡全球。故填The 1983 film Flashdance. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 76．A s (陌生人) knocked on our door last night. 【答案】stranger/tranger 【解析】句意：昨晚一个陌生人敲了我们的门。根据汉语及首字母提示可知，“陌生人”的英文是stranger，为可数名词。前面有不定冠词A修饰，故用单数形式，在句中作主语。故填stranger。 77．Children can learn many meaningful things from r (喂养) a pet. 【答案】raising/aising 【解析】句意：孩子们可以从喂养宠物中学到很多有意义的东西。“from”是介词，后接动名词；根据首字母“r”的提示和“喂养”对应的英文动词，可知是“raise”，其动名词形式为“raising”。故填raising。 78．You must keep your room t (整洁的). 【答案】(t)idy 【解析】句意：你必须保持你的房间整洁。根据空前的“keep your room”可知，“keep+宾语+形容词”结构，表示“使……保持某种状态”，此处需填形容词，“整洁的”英文为“tidy”，故填(t)idy。 79．Body l (语言) means different things in different countries. 【答案】(l)anguage 【解析】句意：肢体语言在不同的国家有着不同的含义。根据中文提示可知该题考查“语言”的英文。“language”意为“语言”，名词，“body language”为固定搭配，专指“肢体语言”。故填(l)anguage。 80．My grandpa has b (均衡的) meals every day, so he still looks young at the age of 70. 【答案】(b)alanced 【解析】句意：我的爷爷每天吃均衡的饮食，所以他在70岁时看起来仍然很年轻。balanced“均衡的”，形容词，修饰名词meals。故填(b)alanced。 Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 假如你是某国际学校自然探索社团的成员。该社团开展了以“Journey through nature”为题的征文活动。请你根据提示，用英语写一篇短文向本次征文活动投稿，叙述一次让你印象最深的户外活动，分享你的所见所闻。 提示： Where did you take the trip? ·on a small mountain Who went there with you? ·my family What did you do during the trip? ·climbed the mountain ·saw beautiful flowers and lovely butterflies ·... How did you feel? ·an amazing experience ·... What was the happiest moment? ·reached the top ·... 要求：1. 包含提示信息，可适当发挥；2. 语句通顺，语法正确，行文连贯，书写工整；3. 词数80-100（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。 I’m happy to share my favourite hiking experience with you. Last summer, ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【参考范文】     I’m happy to share my favourite hiking experience with you. Last summer, I went to a small mountain with my family.     We started climbing early. Along the path, bright and colorful flowers bloomed, and lovely butterflies fluttered around us. We stopped to take some photos. When tired, we sat on a stone and shared snacks.     The happiest moment came when we finally reached the top. The fresh air blew gently, and we could see all the green hills far below. I felt so relaxed and proud of us. It was truly an amazing experience that I’ll never forget. [总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态以“一般过去时”为主； ③提示：写作要点已给出，注意不要遗漏提示中的要点，可适当添加细节，并突出写作要点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，开篇点题，总体介绍旅行核心信息； 第二步，按时间顺序详细介绍旅行经历； 第三步，总结全文，表达感想。 [亮点词汇] ①stop to do停下来做某事   ②take photos拍照 ③be proud of 为……感到自豪 [高分句型] ①Along the path, bright and colorful flowers bloomed, and lovely butterflies fluttered around us.（并列句结构，用and连接两个并列谓语） ②It was truly an amazing experience that I’ll never forget.（that引导定语从句，修饰先行词 experience） 2 / 23 1 / 23 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $