2026届河南省名校联盟高三上学期第四次检测(一模)英语试题

高三英语 考生注意： 1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3. 考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will the man need to do? A. Buy some drinks. B. Wait for a moment. C. Argue with the clerk. 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. At home. B. In an office. C. In a restaurant. 3. What will the man do this afternoon? A. Visit a museum. B. Clean his. house. C. Meet his uncle. 4. What will the woman buy? A. A bed. B. Some flowers. C. Some chairs. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Birthday gifts. B. Festival plans. C. Their hobbies. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What will the weather be like this Saturday? A. Warm. B. Hot. C. Cool. 7. What would Jim like to do this Saturday? A. Study for an exam. B. Work with Joe. C. Prepare for a marathon. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. How much did the scarf cost originally? A. $120. B. $ 100. C. $60. 9. What does the woman say about the discounts? A. They are not a trap. B. They are adjusted frequently. C. They are appealing. 10. What should shoppers consider according to the man? A. Product quality. B. Personal needs. C. Brand names. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What did Tom think of the trip in Türkiye in the end? A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Enjoyable. 12. What is Linda’s suggestion for the man when he travels? A. Taking proper short breaks. B. Sticking to the plan strictly. C. Visiting each famous attraction 13. What does the man invite Linda to do next weekend? A. Put on performances. B. Go shopping together. C. See a live band. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. How many children are there in the woman’s family? A. Two. B. Three. C. Five. 15. Why will the man and his wife visit Füssen? A. To see a great wall. B. To explore the countryside. C. To tour a castle. 16. What does the woman remind the man to do? A. Try local food. B. Board the flight soon. C. Make a cake. 17. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. A couple. B. Former coworkers. C. Brother and sister. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When was Some Rain Must. Fall published? A. In 1998. B. In 2000. C. In 2013. 19. What is Michel Faber’s last novel? A. The Fahrenheit Twins. B. The Book of Strange New Things. C. The Crimson Petal and the White. 20. What can we learn about Michel Faber? A. He moved to Australia in 1960. B. He made a movie about his personal life. C. He didn’t depend on electronic devices. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Ready for the U Ready for the U is your opportunity to engage with the UMass community before the term starts. During Ready for the U, you’ll meet fellow new students, network with university staff members, and get ready for the upcoming term. You’ll also: ●Learn about living and acting responsibly in the community; ●Begin the campus life at UMass Amherst; ●Acquire skills to develop academic preparedness. Various courses are offered to meet the needs of the students, and you’ll: ●Be unable to register for classes, but have to schedule your online New Student Advising and Course Registration appointment for a different time period during Ready for the U; ●Participate in the entire New Student Experience free of any additional charges. All new students can participate in a Ready for the U experience, either online or on campus. We strongly encourage participation in the on-campus version. However, the online version might be right for you if you’re a student working 40 or more hours a week and unable to take a day off before classes start. To help you make the best choices, please check out some of our featured activities below: Featured Activity 2-Day on-campus 1-Day on-campus 1-Day online Sign in for your Ready for the U session. 8 am. 8 am. 9:45 am. We’ll kick off Ready for the U with introductions from Student Affairs & Campus Life. 10 am. 10 am. 10 am. Take an active role in understanding the guidelines of our campus community to make UMass a safer place. Yes Yes No Learn more about resources for student support. Yes Yes Yes Hear from current students about the UMass student experience. Yes Yes Yes Hear closing advice from the Orientation Leaders and learn more about Welcome to the U. 12:15 pm. 5 pm. 4:15 pm. 1. What is the main purpose of Ready for the U? A. To offer free campus tours. B. To ensure early registration. C. To help new students adapt. D. To provide job opportunities. 2. What must students do during Ready for the U? A. Pay extra fees for activities. B. Attend all sessions on campus. C. Work full-time before classes start. D. Plan a separate advising appointment. 3. Which activity is unique to on-campus sessions? A. Hearing from current students. B. Understanding the safety guidelines. C. Learning about student support. D. Receiving closing advice from leaders. B Polymita tree snails (蜗牛), the most strikingly colorful snails in the world, are highly prized in eastern Cuba. Beloved for their patterned colors, the six species of snails have become increasingly rare to find. Their decay is partly due to loss of trees and climate change, but it’s largely driven by humans. More and more snails are harvested for jewelry. “One of the reasons why I’m interested in these snails is that they’re so beautiful,” said Angus Davison, a professor from the University of Nottingham. “Their beauty attracts people who collect and trade shells. But the very thing that makes them interesting to me is, unfortunately, what’s endangering them as well.” Recently, Davison found a British listing offering seven Polymita snail shells for £160. “You can easily imagine how collecting shells would drive a population into local extinction,” Davison said. That’s why Davison reached out to scientists at the Universidad de Oriente in Santiago, Cuba, to give a helping hand where it’s needed most. Together with conservation biologist Bernardo Reyes-Tur, Davison is trying to save the six known species of Polymita before it’s too late, of which P. sulphurosa is listed as extremely endangered. As Davison runs genetic testing in England to understand the species, Reyes-Tur is actively raising the endangered snails in captivity (圈养). Due to Cuba’s hot climate and undependable power, Reyes-Tur’s work has been challenging. “They haven’t bred (繁殖) yet, but they’re doing well,” he said. Like all snails, the Polymita tree snails act as nature’s “clean-up crews” by eating bark and moss and bringing nutrients into the soil. They’re also important food sources for other endangered animals native to the country, like the Cuban kite. When running their respective projects from half a world away, Davison and Reyes-Tur hope that their international efforts can lead to heightened conservation awareness. “Eastern Cuba is the only place in the world where these snails are found,” Davison said. “We hope we can use the genetic information we can bring to contribute to their conservation.” 4. What does the underlined word “decay” in paragraph 1 mean? A. Activity. B. Death. C. Choice. D. Decline. 5. What inspired Davison to do something for Polymita snails? A. His love for collecting shells. B. His kindness to other scientists. C. His concerns about them. D. His interest in Polymita snail shell trade. 6. What is Reyes-Tur mainly doing to protect Polymita snails? A. Breeding them in a controlled environment B. Analyzing Cuba’s climate patterns. C. Studying their genetic information. D. Creating protected areas in the wild. 7. What do we know about polymita snails according to the text? A. They help to increase animal population. B. They’re valuable to their native environment. C. They have drawn close attention worldwide. D. They are spreading fast around the world. C Over his decades-long career as a late-night comedy: TV writer, Joe Toplyn has created various jokes and has instructed adult-level courses on comedy writing. So when generative artificial intelligence (AI) came along, Toplyn combined the linguistic (语言的) skills of large language models, or LLMs, with the lessons he taught his human students to create an AI tool named Witscript — a web app that generates jokes and wordplay from users’ prompts (提示), like image descriptions. Last year, Toplyn and Witscript competed in a three-day joke-writing contest based on eight news topics. Toplyn picked his best jokes — and also selected Witscript’s best material — then comedian Mike Perkins delivered the lines to live audiences in Los Angeles, with half the jokes from each source: Together with Ori Amir, a stand-up comic, Toplyn recorded the performances and measured the length and loudness of the laughter each joke caused. Toplyn and Amir found that, by those measures, the humor effectiveness of-AI-generated jokes was comparable to that of human-written jokes. “With advances in LLMs, generating some kinds of humor becomes easier for AI. However, humor can be subtle (微妙的),” says Professor Christian F. Hempelmann at East Texas A&M University. “Fun jokes can be used to move past embarrassing moments or manage relationships,” he adds. As AI chatbots are increasingly being used as therapists and companions, many experts think it’ll be essential for the models to understand and respond appropriately to subtler forms of humor. Witscript improves the process even further. Toplyn combined his joke-writing algorithms (算法) with a large language model. By giving Witscript logical rules and structured ways to organize information, he allowed the system to take a topic sentence entered by a human user and use it to generate original replies. This inner framework gives Witscript the ability to recognize keywords and to mix and replace words when delivering its jokes. “As the loneliness spreads, people might feel more at ease with virtual assistants or robotic companions that can tell occasional jokes. Still, humor composed by AI can be unpredictable in tone and: quality and fails to see either the broader or personal context,” says researcher Julia Rayz of Purdue University. 8. What did Joe Toplyn and Ori Amir find about AI and human-written jokes? A. They were equally funny. B. They promoted their writing. C. They were hard to accept. D. They tested comedians’ ability. 9. What does Christian F. Hempelmann suggest about humor? A. It is really difficult for AI to produce. B. It leads to awkward situations. C. It centers largely upon wise wordplay. D. It has powerful social functions. 10. What does the text say about Witscript? A. It focuses on visual humor. B. It relies on human-written rules. C. It never requires users’ prompts. D. It avoids using language models. 11. What is Julia Rayz’s worry about AI-generated humor? A. It is too abstract for audiences. B. It fails to make people laugh effectively. C. It is short of personal connections. D. It is easier to control than human humor. D You meet someone new, trade a few words, and it feels like you’ve known them forever. With others, no matter how much time you spend together, the connection never comes. Why? A new study shows that people whose brains respond in similar ways to the world are more likely to become friends later. In the study, Carolyn Parkinson at the University of California, Los Angeles and her colleagues employed 288 students. Just before classes began and before anyone had a chance to build connections, each student entered a brain scanner. Inside, they watched 14 short movie clips (片段), covering documentaries, comedies, debates, food, sports and science. The researchers tracked activity across 214 brain regions. Each student’s brain left a unique signature of how they paid attention, reacted, and interpreted what they saw. Two months later, all the students in the program completed surveys asking who they spent free time with. They repeated the surveys six months after that. These results created a living map of friendships — who became close, who separated and who stayed distant. When the researchers compared this map to the brain data, patterns appeared. Students who became friends eight months later had already shown more similar brain responses back at the start. The strongest overlap (重叠) appeared in the orbitofrontal cortex, a region linked to how we assign value and meaning. Interestingly, at the two-month mark, there was no big difference between the brains of friends and non-friends, meaning that early friendships may form out of convenience — living nearby, attending the same events, or sitting together in class. But as time passes, people sort themselves out. Those with deeper neural similarities grow closer. Others move away. The brain regions that matter most belong to networks that combine together memories, beliefs, and emotions into a picture of what’s happening. When two people’s brains line up in these areas, conversations flow more easily, and communication feels natural. “People whose thinking processes are more similar find it easier to get on. When they say something, they know what the other is thinking because it’s how they think themselves,” explained Carolyn Parkinson. 12. What were the students made to do during the study? A. Film a few videos focused on friendships. B. Watch videos of different styles and topics. C. Report their feelings after watching videos. D. Share their personal social activities in life. 13. What is the key factor in forming long-term friendships according to the study? A. Shared tastes in lifestyle. B. Common living environments. C. Frequent communication. D. Similar brain response patterns. 14. Why do people with similar brain responses connect better? A. They have more opportunities to meet each other. B. They are more skilled at expressing emotions. C. They interpret the world in a similar way. D. They enjoy the same hobbies and activities. 15. Which is the best title for the text? A. The Science Behind Lasting Friendships B. The Role of Brain Scans in Friendship C. When Similar People Become Friends D. How Friendships Develop Over Time 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 “Generally, it’s recommended that people commit to 150 minutes of moderate activity per week to see sufficient health benefits,” said Dr. Wei Zheng, director of the Vanderbilt Epidemiology Center. ___16___. Fortunately, fast walking for a minimum of 15 minutes every day can have the same health benefits, according to recent research led by Zheng. Zheng and his coworkers recruited (招募) nearly 85,000 people from 2002 to 2009, who were given a comprehensive questionnaire about their exercise habits, average time spent working out, walking speed and health. Then the participants completed another questionnaire about 16 years later. ___17___. What were the results? On average, study participants who fast walked for at least 15 minutes every day saw a nearly 20% reduction in premature death compared with a 4% reduction among participants who walked slowly for over three hours a day. So, are you too busy to hit the gym? Don’t worry — you can stay healthy by including at least 15 minutes of fast walking into your everyday routine. In general, you can tell you’re fast walking when you’re able to talk but not sing. ___18___. “Walking is not just about your lower body. ___19___,” said Dana Santas, a mind-body coach in professional sports. “So, following good walking form is of great importance. Standing tall with your shoulders back and swinging your arms when you’re walking fast can help keep you balanced.” ___20___. When doing fast walking exercise, try to practice conscious breathing, which is when you breathe in through your nose and breathe out through your mouth. This helps regulate (控制) blood pressure and can possibly prevent high blood pressure. A. And the analysis began in 2023 B. It’s actually a full-body movement C. Don’t forget to focus on your breathing D. It means that the faster you walk, the better you do E. However, sometimes this may be too difficult to manage F. Fast walking has been found to reduce the risk of heart failure G. Alternatively, you can increase your walking pace by a couple of steps 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I used to be a happy and healthy kid. But my world ____21____ at age twelve, when I first noticed strange symptoms. I lost ____22____ in my hands and felt unsteady on my feet. My ____23____ took a turn for the worse and I couldn’t walk or speak. It was as if something inside me ____24____ . I was ____25____ to the hospital, where I was diagnosed (诊断) with Functional Neurological Disorder (FND). After months in hospital, I finally went home, with doctors saying nothing more could be done. Staying in bed for three years, I felt ____26____ inside my body and mind. Everything was happening around me, but I wasn’t part of it. That’s when two things really ____27____ to me: London and ITV’s Loose Women. London was a ____28____ of everything I wished for, like fun, ____29____ and independence. And I liked the topics on Loose Women — the news, guests and presenters. While I wasn’t well enough to go anywhere, I still ____30____ to visit London and meet the Loose Women presenters one day. ____31____ , things began to change. I started to speak and move my arms again, thanks to speech and language therapy (疗法) as well as ____32____ rehabilitation (康复) training. Later on, I managed a few trips out on a wheelchair, and eventually I visited London. Hearing about my ____33____ , the Loose Women team sent me a video message, and months later, I met some of them in person, which gave me the ____34____ to dream bigger. So don’t give up hope under any circumstances. Even when progress is slow or ____35____ , it matters. 21. A. appeared B. landed C. changed D. felt 22. A. confidence B. strength C. growth D. interest 23. A. condition B. position C. thought D. direction 24. A. showed up B. stood up C. took off D. switched off 25. A. tied B. invited C. rushed D. pulled 26. A. energetic B. trapped C. punished D. warm 27. A. died B. pointed C. referred D. mattered 28. A. symbol B. consequence C. sign D. variety 29. A. imagination B. wealth C. freedom D. sympathy 30. A. managed B. longed C. applied D. struggled 31. A. Unluckily B. Suddenly C. Instantly D. Gradually 32. A. consistent B. loose C. occasional D. temporary 33. A. tradition B. journey C. devotion D. style 34. A. ability B. chance C. movement D. courage 35. A. invisible B. smooth C. predictable D. pure 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The 19th China Theater Festival, a ___36___ (particular) significant stage of the country to display theatrical achievements, was held from September 5 ___37___ 25 in 2025 in Hangzhou, East China’s Zhejiang Province. This 21-day cultural event, ___38___ aim is to showcase cultural charm through art forms like traditional Chinese opera and drama and provide ___39___ Chinese model in carbon reduction for large-scale events worldwide via its zero-carbon practices, drew global attention under the label of “China’s first carbon-neutral theater festival”. The secret to the theater festival’s carbon reduction lies in the in-depth integration of culture and high-tech ecology. ___40___ (rely) on digital platforms, the organizers created scenarios (场景) for public engagement. Audiences ___41___ (encourage) to use public transportation to head to theaters. E-tickets and e-program brochures covered almost every performance. Moreover, the opening performance on Friday night in Hangzhou was Northward, ___42___ (adapt) from Chinese novelist Xu Zechen’s novel of the same name. Minimal use of props (道具) can be seen as another move ___43___ (reduce) carbon emissions while it didn’t lessen the performance’s charm at all. With “zero-carbon” as its theme, the theater festival’s positioning as a role model has extended far beyond the cultural field with ___44___ (initiative) such as promoting a “Clean Plate Campaign” in dining areas to reduce food waste, and using recyclable materials for stage construction. The theater festival used art to illustrate that cultural events can coexist with ecological protection. This, perhaps, is the unique wisdom China can use to make a ____45____ (contribute) to global climate issues. 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，上周日你校举办了主题为“创意旧物改造市集（Creative Upcycling Market）”校园活动。请你给新西兰朋友Susan写一封邮件，内容包括： 1. 介绍你用旧物品完成的作品； 2. 你的体会与感想。 注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Susan, ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Sitting on a chair in a beautiful garden, an old man seemed sad about the sorrows he’d received in life. His son and daughter-in-law were too busy with work to take good care of him, and he remained dissatisfied with the situation. The joints of his legs had become stiff (僵硬的). His health was poor and he was always in a bad mood. All these prevented him from enjoying anything. At that time, a 6-year-old boy appeared. Hearing the old man coughing, the child came to him. Extending his hand towards the old man, the boy said with joy, “Look! Look! What I have found!” Looking into the boy’s hand, the old man saw a withered (枯萎的) rose flower, half of the petals (花瓣) having fallen off. Seeing such a withered flower, the old man showed impatience and wanted the boy to leave. So, without answering anything, he turned his face to the other side so that the boy would go away after seeing his impatience. However, instead of leaving, the boy went closer and brought the withered flower to his nose, “Oh! It smells so good!” Then the boy said to the old man, “Do you want such a nice flower? It smells so nice! If you want this flower, I’ll give it to you!” Now the old man got really annoyed. Thinking that if he took the flower, the boy would go away later, the old man put on a forced smile, saying, “OK, son! If it’s such a beautiful flower, then give it to me!” Saying this, he started to take the flower. The child happily extended his hand, but he couldn’t recognize where the old man’s extended hand was. The flower fell on the ground instead of falling into the old man’s hand. The boy was blind in both eyes. Picking up the flower, the old man asked, “Son! Do you come here every day? Have you ever seen the flower?” 注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The boy’s empty eyes stared ahead as he smiled. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Tears started flowing from the old man’s eyes and he was lost in thought. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 高三英语 考生注意： 1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3. 考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will the man need to do? A. Buy some drinks. B. Wait for a moment. C. Argue with the clerk. 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. At home. B. In an office. C. In a restaurant. 3. What will the man do this afternoon? A. Visit a museum. B. Clean his. house. C. Meet his uncle. 4. What will the woman buy? A. A bed. B. Some flowers. C. Some chairs. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Birthday gifts. B. Festival plans. C. Their hobbies. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What will the weather be like this Saturday? A. Warm. B. Hot. C. Cool. 7. What would Jim like to do this Saturday? A. Study for an exam. B. Work with Joe. C. Prepare for a marathon. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. How much did the scarf cost originally? A. $120. B. $ 100. C. $60. 9. What does the woman say about the discounts? A. They are not a trap. B. They are adjusted frequently. C. They are appealing. 10. What should shoppers consider according to the man? A. Product quality. B. Personal needs. C. Brand names. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What did Tom think of the trip in Türkiye in the end? A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Enjoyable. 12. What is Linda’s suggestion for the man when he travels? A. Taking proper short breaks. B. Sticking to the plan strictly. C. Visiting each famous attraction 13. What does the man invite Linda to do next weekend? A. Put on performances. B. Go shopping together. C. See a live band. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. How many children are there in the woman’s family? A. Two. B. Three. C. Five. 15. Why will the man and his wife visit Füssen? A. To see a great wall. B. To explore the countryside. C. To tour a castle. 16. What does the woman remind the man to do? A. Try local food. B. Board the flight soon. C. Make a cake. 17. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. A couple. B. Former coworkers. C. Brother and sister. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When was Some Rain Must. Fall published? A. In 1998. B. In 2000. C. In 2013. 19. What is Michel Faber’s last novel? A. The Fahrenheit Twins. B. The Book of Strange New Things. C. The Crimson Petal and the White. 20. What can we learn about Michel Faber? A. He moved to Australia in 1960. B. He made a movie about his personal life. C. He didn’t depend on electronic devices. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. A 18. G 19. B 20. C 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. A 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. particularly 37. to 38. whose 39. a 40. Relying 41. were encouraged 42. adapted 43. to reduce 44. initiatives 45. contribution 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Susan I’m excited to tell you about the “Creative Upcycling Market” held at our school last Sunday. I made a handbag, using an old pair of jeans, which turned out both practical and cute! I cut and sewed the fabric by hand, adding colorful patches and buttons for decoration. Through this activity, I realized that waste can be turned into something useful and beautiful with a little creativity. It also made me more aware of the importance of reusing materials and protecting the environment. The event taught me how small actions can contribute to a greener world. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】One possible version: The boy’s empty eyes stared ahead as he smiled. “Yes, Grandpa! I come here every day. I’ve never seen the flower, but I know it’s beautiful because I can feel it,” the boy said softly. Looking at the flower, he continued, “The petals are soft like my grandma’s scarf, and the beautiful fragrance reminds me of her hugs. Grandpa! If you like it, the beautiful flower can be yours from today!” After saying this, he felt his way and went away. Tears started flowing from the old man’s eyes and he was lost in thought. How sad he was, even though he was able to see, know and enjoy the world. Even sitting in such a beautiful garden, he couldn’t enjoy even a fraction of the beauty of nature, while a child who had never seen a flower could fully enjoy the beauty of the withered flower. After thinking for a while, the old man started towards home with a happy face, mentally preparing to see the world from a new perspective and enjoy it! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $