青海省西宁市大通县第二中学2025-2026学年高二上学期期中英语试题

听力考试正式开始，请看听力部分第一节。第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。It's already around five thirty. My flight is at seven o'clock. You Better leave earlier rush hour starts at five o'clock. Did you say you drove to town this morning? Yes, I had to draw the money from the bank to pay my bookstore bills. Well, I think you can learn about a payment so you can pay online next time. What foreign language can you speak other than english? Jessica. I can speak chinese and french. To be honest. French is my second language during the university. Are you feeling Better today? Yes, thanks a lot. I think I can go home tomorrow. No, i'm afraid that you will have to stay in hospital a few more days. I'm over the moon. I was accepted into my dream university. All those years of hard work and determination paid off. Yes, i'm going to share the good news with my parents. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Good morning. Can I help you? yes. Can we still get tickets for tonight's performance? Yes, there are tickets still available. How much are they? Full Price is thirty five dollars and twenty five dollars for students. And what time is IT start? Doors open at six thirty P. M, but the show doesn't begin until seven fifteen. Can I get two student tickets for the . sieve in? Of course. Here's the money. Good morning. Can I help you? yes. Can we still get tickets for tonight's performance? Yes, there are tickets still available. How much are they? Full Price is thirty five dollars and twenty five dollars for students. And what time is IT start? Doors open at six thirty P. M, but the show doesn't begin until seven fifteen. Can I get two student tickets for this evening? Of course, here's the money. 听下面一段对话，回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。What do you think of my new computer? It's nice, isn't IT. Yes, but didn't you buy a computer recently? That was six months ago. You know how quickly technology changes? Do you think you really needed to buy IT? I've had my computer for two years now, and it's all good. but I use the computer all the time. IT needs to be fast. This one is much faster than the old one. And look out. Limit is the screen is much . clear too. Well, that's true. What do you usually use your computer for playing games? No, I use the internet a lot, and I send emails sometimes. What do you think of my new computer? It's nice. Isn't IT? yes. But didn't you buy computer recently? That was six months ago. You know, how quickly technology changes? Do you think you really needed to buy IT? I've had my computer for two years now, and it's all good. but I use the computer all the time. IT needs to be fast. This one is much faster than the old one. And look out. Limit is the screen is much . clear too. Well, that's true. What do you usually use your computer for playing games? No, I use the internet a lot and I send emails sometimes. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13 3个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。In our english class today, we studied the months of the year. Miss parks said that we knew our lessons and that we were excEllent. Do you speak only english class, or does your teacher explain everything to you in spanish? Oh, no, we never speaks spanish in class. Miss parks speaks to us only in english. Sh, sometimes IT is difficult to understand her, but he wants us to become used to hearing english. I suppose he is right. Do you speak english . very slowly? Not always. Sometimes we do not understand her. Then SHE has to repeat what he says. IT must be interesting to study english. I am the best student in the class. Miss parks says that my pronunciation is very good. Great is english promene ation easy or difficult? Sometimes IT is very difficult. Some words look different from the way one pronounced them in our english class today, we studied the months of the year. Miss parks said that we knew our lessons and that we were excEllent. Do you speak only english class, or does your teacher everything to you and spanish? Oh no. We never speak spanish in class. Miss park speaks to us only in english. Sometimes IT is difficult to understand her, but he wants us to become used to hearing english. I suppose he is right. Do you speak english very slowly? Not always. Sometimes we do not understand her. Then SHE has to repeat what he says. IT must be interesting to study english. I am the best student in the class. Miss parks says that my pronunciation is very good. Great is english promene ation easy or difficult? Sometimes IT is very difficult. Some words look different from the way one pronounced them. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17 4个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Hi, jim. How is that going? Not bad, july. thanks. But i'm pretty busy with my work these days. Oh, really, do you have any time for . yourself? Not much, mainly evenings. So what do you usually do in the evenings? Well, I take a boxing class three . times a week. boxing. Hey, that sounds pretty interesting. Yeah, i'm really into IT. So how about you? truly? Well. life is pretty busy for me these days. really with, what. with school. And I play a music band. a music band. cool. How often do you play? We practice . twice a week and replying clubs, sometimes on weekends. Two. oh, sounds like your week is pretty full. yeah. But IT makes everything feel like fun. Hi, jim. How is that going? Not bad, july. thanks. But i'm pretty busy with my work these days. Oh, really? Do you have any time . for yourself? Not much, mainly evenings. So what do you usually do in the evenings? Well. I take a box in class three times a week. boxing. Hey, that sounds pretty interesting. Yeah, i'm really into IT. So how about you truly? Well, life's pretty busy for me these days. really, with what? With school. And I play a music band. a music band. cool. How often do you play? We practice . twice a week and replying clubs, sometimes on weekends. Two. oh, sounds like your week is pretty full. yeah. But IT makes everything feel like fun. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至第23个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Children for more than one hundred and eighty thousand families in china can now go on an online tour of ten world famous museums through online broadcast. The families, each me to pain, nineteen point男人，you and for that in one hundred and seventy four classrooms in chinese villages, students can watch IT for free. Mima is a teacher in a village school in six one. SHE says the children there have never visited a museum. For some of them, even going to the closest library in town is difficult. The museum project shows how online broadcast can help improve education. The technology has already been widely used for entertainment. However, IT is not until recently that IT has been used for education. The project has proved to be a success, but there's still a problem. People haven't worked out how to make these online towards interesting children. For more than one hundred and eighty thousand families in china can now go on an online tour of ten world famous museums. Through online, the families each need to pay nineteen point nine you in for that. In one hundred and seventy four classrooms in chinese villages, students can watch IT for free. Mima is a teacher in a village school in C. H. One SHE says the children there have never visited a museum. For some of them, even going to the closest library in town is difficult. The museum project shows how online broadcast can help improve education. The technology has already been widely used for entertainment. However, IT is not until recently that IT has been used for education. The project has proved to be a success, but there's still a problem. People haven't worked out how to make these online towards interesting. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 大通县第二中学2025~2026学年第一学期期中质量检测 高二英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：外研版选择性必修第一册Units 1~4。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When does the man’s plane take off? A. At 5:00. B. At 5:30. C. At 7:00. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Why did the woman go to town? A. To buy books. B. To draw some money. C. To learn about e-payment. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is Jessica’s second language at the university? A. English. B. Chinese. C. French. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a hospital. B. In a school. C. At home. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 How does the boy sound? A Upset. B. Excited. C. Confused. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. What is the man doing? A. Buying tickets. B. Changing tickets. C. Selling tickets. 7. How much will the man pay for the tickets? A. $25. B. $35. C. $50. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. How long has the man kept his old computer? A. Six months. B. Two years. C. Six years. 9. How is the man’s new computer different from the old one? A. It’s bigger. B. It’s cheaper. C. It’s faster. 10. What does the man sometimes do with the computer? A. He plays games. B. He sends emails. C. He listens to songs. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What did the woman learn in her English class today? A. Months. B. Weather. C. Hobbies. 12. In which language does the English teacher teach her students? A. English. B. Spanish. C. French. 13. What does Ms Parks say about the woman’s pronunciation? A. Terrible. B. So-so. C. Excellent. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Free time activities. B. School clubs. C. Part-time jobs. 15. What do we know about the man? A. He is usually relaxed. B. He likes to stay up late. C. He is interested in boxing. 16. How often does the woman practice in the band? A. Three times a week. B. Twice a week. C. Once a week. 17. What does the woman think of her busy life? A. Tiring. B. Interesting. C. Surprising. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 18. How much does a family pay for the museum online broadcast? A. 19.9 yuan. B. 90.9 yuan. C. 174 yuan. 19. Where do the village students go on the online museum tour? A. In the closest library. B. At their homes. C. In classrooms. 20. What’s the project mainly about? A. Online shopping. B. Online museum tour. C. Online courses. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Grounds for Sculpture (雕塑): An Art Garden Near NYC Visit New Jersey’s 42-acre (英亩) garden with 270 artworks, wildflowers and the lovely Rat’s Restaurant. Inspired by Monet’s paintings, it’s perfect for a spring trip just 1 hour from New York City. This park was once the New Jersey State Fairgrounds. It opened in 1992, created by artist J. Seward Johnson to make art more welcoming. The park has 270 sculptures, 2,000 trees and 25 types of wildflowers. Visitors can see large bronze statues and even a colorful snake- shaped artwork in a pond. There are also six indoor galleries for new artists. Plan Your Visit To Enter Smoothly: Buy Tickets Early: Get timed tickets online in advance from the website. New tickets come out every 2 weeks. 2025 Prices: $25| Adult (18+) $18| Senior/ Military/ Healthcare (ID needed) $12| Student (6-17 or student ID) Open Hours: 10am–5pm daily, closed Tuesdays. Eat at Rat’s Restaurant One of “America’s 50 Most Beautiful Restaurants” Book a Table: Use OpenTable or call 609-584-7800. Open Hours: Thu - Sat: Lunch 11am-3pm | Dinner 5pm-9pm Sun: Lunch 11am-3pm| Dinner 5pm-8pm Closed Mon- Wed Important: Eating here does not include garden entry. You must buy separate timed tickets. How to Arrive Address: 80 Sculptors Way Hamilton, NJ By Bus/Train: Take Bus 608 to “Sculptors Way”. From NYC: Start at Penn Station (≈1.5 hours). By Car: ≈1 hour from NYC. 21. What must visitors do to visit the sculpture garden? A. Book a table at Rat’s Restaurant first. B. Show ID for cheaper tickets. C. Buy timed tickets online early. D. Visit only on weekends. 22. When can visitors enter the garden? A. At 9:00 am on Tuesday. B. At 11:00 am on Thursday. C. At 4:00 pm on Tuesday. D. At 6:00 pm on Sunday. 23. Where is the text most likely from? A. A science magazine. B. A history book. C. A travel website. D. A movie review. B Sawang Janpram, a 105-year-old Thai athlete, recently added four more gold medals to his collection at the 2025 World Masters Games in Chinese Taipei. Since Janpram was the only competitor in the 100-plus age group, his participation itself was enough to secure victories in the 100-meter run, javelin throw, discus throw and shot put. This outstanding achievement brought his total number of World Masters Games medals to 60. “I’m proud he’s brought honor to our family,” said his 73-year-old daughter, Siripan, who also won three medals at the event. The World Masters Games is an international multi-sport event held every four years, similar to the Olympics. What sets it apart is that all participants are 30 years old or older, with competitors divided into age groups. The Games aim to promote continued sports participation among middle-aged and elderly athletes and encourage better health. Janpram began regular exercise after turning 80. According to the Games’ description, he started exercising with Siripan, who practices track and field, after seeing many of his friends become bedridden due to illness. He began competing in sports events at the age of 90. Today, Janpram walks daily, runs three to four times a week, and ensures he gets enough sleep. “When you eat well and sleep well, you will be in a good mood and live a regular life, and naturally, you will be healthy,” he said, He also believes that exercising outside the home is beneficial to the elderly as it allows them to make new friends. The 2025 World Masters Games featured nearly 26,000 athletes from 107 countries. Janpram is unsure if he will participate in the 2027 Games in Japan, stating that it will depend on his health. For now, he plans to continue his regular exercise, whether it is walking near his home or going to the grocery store with Siripan, “I’m so proud of my father that he can still do this and that he is strong,” she said, “People admire him wherever he goes.” 24. What do we know about Janpram in the 2025 World Masters Games? A. He won six medals in total. B. He was younger than all others. C. He was the only one in his age group. D. He competed with his daughter. 25. What is a purpose of the World Masters Games? A To help teenagers lose weight. B. To hold more sports events in China. C. To train young athletes for the Olympics, D. To inspire the elderly to keep exercising. 26. What does the underlined word “bedridden” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Full of energy. B. Unable to leave bed. C Sleeping well. D. Doing exercise. 27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. A 105-Year-Old Athlete’s Journey B. The 2025 World Masters Games C. Elderly Athletes in International Games D. Siripan’s Achievements in Sports Events C The Road to Success Near the small town of Grottoes, Virginia, a narrow dirt road goes from the house of Stephen Curry’s grandfather to the woods nearby. A far cry from the bright lights and shiny courts of the National Basketball Association(NBA), it was along this road that Stephen’s grandfather built a simple basket by attaching a piece of plastic to a telephone pole. Like his father, basketball star Dell Curry, Stephen spent many childhood hours playing on this muddy basketball court. He probably didn’t realise it at the time, but it was where he learnt to be creative and flexible as a player. You see, with every shot, the weak plastic backboard gave way. The bumps and rocks that lined the road under the basket caused the ball to bounce in all directions. Knowing where the ball would go wasn’t easy. He had to adjust his own playing style as a result. Shooting with great accuracy was another thing he learnt. Only shots perfectly aimed at its centre went into the heavy, thick basket. In this way, practising day in and day out helped Stephen sharpen his skills. Playing basketball was Stephen’s dream. He would not give up. He finally ended up playing college ball at a small, little-known school, Davidson College, not too far from where he lived. His creativity and perseverance made him Davidson’s star player. Selected for the NBA in 2009, Stephen joined the Golden State Warriors. He performed beyond everyone’s expectations with his accurate shots and continuous efforts. In 2015, Stephen won his first NBA championship, and he led the Warriors to their first championship since 1975. Inspiring others to have faith in themselves, Stephen Curry is living proof that what other people think of you does not have to influence what you become. Through self-belief, hard work, perseverance and some help from an old hoop, he has demonstrated that nothing is impossible. 28. What’s Stephen’s first basket? A. A new one built in the woods nearby. B. A wooden one picked up behind the house. C. A piece of plastic attached to a telephone pole. D. A second-hand basket bought by his grandfather. 29. How did Stephen Curry settle the problem that it was hard to know where the ball would go? A. By playing in a small court. B. By adjusting his own style. C. By bouncing the ball in all directions. D. By strengthening the plastic backboard. 30. How did Stephen Curry win others’ recognition? A. With the help of his grandfather. B. By joining the Golden State Warriors. C. By following in his father’s footsteps. D. With his accurate shots and continuous efforts. 31. What’s the author’s purpose in writing the text? A. To inform people about Stephen Curry’s basketball skills. B. To tell what Stephen Curry has achieved during his career. C. To explain why Stephen Curry was doubted by many people. D. To inspire people with Stephen Curry’s determination to succeed. D Planting trees is a popular way to try to balance out carbon emissions (碳排放), but a new study shows it could never fully make up for pollution from the world’s biggest fossil fuel (化石燃料) companies. To take in enough carbon just from the future emissions tied to the top 200 oil, gas and coal companies’ reserves, you would need to cover the entire land area of North and Central America with trees. This is impossible because there simply isn’t enough available land on Earth. Researchers figured out that if these companies paid for planting all those trees, it would cost $10.8 trillion—more than their combined market value of $7.01 trillion. Even if it were possible, the companies would face huge costs if they had to pay for the environmental damage caused by burning their reserves. “People might think carbon offsetting (抵消) is like a magic eraser, but that’s not realistic,” explained study co-author Nina Friggens. Trees naturally absorb carbon as they grow, making them a relatively cheap offset method heavily promoted by many companies. However, the study focused only on trees because other carbon trapping technologies are currently too expensive or underdeveloped. While experts praised the study for showing the extent of the problem, they warn against ruling out tree planting entirely. Done correctly, it brings important benefits like supporting wildlife, protecting against natural disasters, and improving food security. But the key point remains: we cannot plant our way out of the climate problem only by offsetting planned fossil fuel burning. Jonathan Foley likened the situation to an overflowing bathtub: “Trees are the sponges (海绵) and mops we use to clean up the mess. But if the taps (emissions) are still running full force, flooding the bathroom, you absolutely have to turn them off first.” The study highlights that stopping emissions is essential; relying only on trees to clean up after fossil fuels is mathematically and physically impossible. 32. What does the second paragraph mainly talk about? A. The problems of burning fossil reserves. B. The market value of fossil fuel companies. C. The environmental damage from cutting trees. D The cost of planting trees to offset emissions. 33. Which of the following is the experts’ opinion according to paragraph 4? A. Fossil fuels are safe. B. Tree planting is simple. C. Tree planting has its value. D. Carbon offsetting is unnecessary. 34. What do Jonathan Foley’s words mainly suggest? A. Emissions should be reduced first. B. Trees are the best to clean emissions. C. Taps are less important than sponges. D. Running helps reduce carbon emissions. 35. This text is most likely taken from ______. A. a fashion magazine B. a children’s storybook C. a travel guide D. a scientific journal 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Good sportsmanship (体育精神) is important because it makes competitive play more enjoyable for everyone participating in the competition.___36___. This positive approach reduces conflicts and helps players focus on the game. However, bad sportsmanship creates a negative environment and can take the fun out of the game.___37___: Win with grace (优雅) Winning doesn’t make one team more superior to the other; it means that the winning team’s skills and best efforts put them in the best position to win that game. You can be excited about your victory, but you can’t put down the opponents (对手). Play fair ___38___. Fair play means having a level playing field. Every competitor has an equal opportunity to win. If you want to win a game, everyone must start with the same conditions as the opposing team or the player and follow the rules of the game. Picture the future Sometimes you’ll have to compete against a friend, family member, or loved one, and it can be hard to put that relationship aside during competitions.___39___. She often says, “In 10years, it’s not going to really matter. No one is going to remember this match. No one’s going to really think about it.” Shake hands In many sports, it is customary to shake hands with the opposing player or team after a game.___40___. This simple gesture helps everyone remember what truly matters in sports. A. Healthy competition requires equal effort B. Cheating at a game is poor sportsmanship C. This behavior improves teamwork skills D. Here are some tips for developing good sportsmanship E. Whether you win or lose, this shows respect for others F. Good sportsmanship teaches competitors how to be respectful to others G. For example, tennis superstar Serena Williams chooses to focus on the future 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 After graduation, I went to Mumbai for further studies. That transformation from a village boy to a city doctor led to enormous ____41____. Endless on-call shifts and mountains of medical research papers ____42____ my days and nights, and eventually, my laughter. That was when I decided to ____43____ the joy. I started joking with my patients and found that they ____44____ faster as laughter kept them positive. One day, an idea flashed through my mind: If laughter is so powerful, why not start a Laughter Club? I went to a park and tried to explain the ____45____ of laughter to the morning walkers. They thought I was ____46____. But I remained determined. Out of 400 passersby, I ____47____ four to join me. That small group marked the ____48____ of my club. We met for half an hour every morning to ____49____ together. At first, we started with telling a joke. But some people were naturally ____50____. My new challenge was getting these emotionally held-back people to laugh without reason. I introduced ____51____ exercises like clapping and shouting “Ho Ho Ha Ha Ha”, which helped everyone ____52____ and prepared them for the following activities. Soon, I developed more laughter exercises, including role-playing and techniques I had ____53____ when I was an amateur actor. ____54____, the laughter grew louder and its reach grew farther. From that initial group of four, the club began to ____55____, proving that laughter is truly the best medicine. 41. A. fortune B. pressure C. guilt D. excitement 42. A. consumed B. rewarded C. simplified D. organized 43. A. measure B. regain C. evaluate D. predict 44. A. learned B. drove C. recovered D. ran 45. A. frequency B. origin C. benefit D. sound 46. A. crazy B. selfish C. confident D. attractive 47. A. selected B. paid C. threatened D. convinced 48. A. election B. reputation C. purpose D. birth 49. A. stretch B. work C. walk D. laugh 50. A. optimistic B. talented C. shy D. curious 51. A. long-term B. warm-up C. high-risk D. stand-alone 52. A. relax B. cooperate C. understand D. progress 53. A. picked up B. mixed up C. wondered at D. hesitated about 54. A. Previously B. Gradually C. Suddenly D. Surprisingly 55. A. form B. win C. compete D. expand 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Charlie Chaplin was a British actor, film maker and composer. He became famous in the 1910s, when films were ____56____ (silence) in black and white. Charlie Chaplin ____57____ (be) one of the best comedy actors of his time because he knew how to use his body and facial features to make people laugh. ____58____ my opinion, the funniest thing about Charlie Chaplin was ____59____ way he walked while he was acting as the Tramp, ____60____ is his most famous character. The Tramp is a poor man with a kind heart who has unexpected adventures. These adventures, often ____61____ (involve) the police, are ____62____ (usual) the funniest scenes. My favorite Charlie Chaplin film is Modern Times and my favorite scene is in the factory where Charlie Chaplin is working on a production line. When a bee starts circling around Charlie’s face, he ____63____ (fall) behind with his work. It’s so funny ____64____ (watch) him trying to keep up! I think the power of Charlie Chaplin’s works is not only in his acting, but also in the stories and the ____65____ (character) he created. The Tramp is the symbol of the silent cinema and even after so many years, he is still able to make people laugh. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 66. 假定你是校学生会主席李华。为了帮助你校国际生体验中国戏剧文化，学生会决定下周五 举行京剧脸谱制作（Peking Opera Mask-making）活动。请你写一则书面通知，张贴在国际部，内容包括： 1. 活动目的、时间和地点； 2. 活动主要内容； 3. 参与活动的要求。 注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Notice ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ The Student Union 第二节（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The sun was very hot in Green Hill Park last Saturday afternoon. My friends Tom, Emma and I sat under a big tree near the entrance. We were eating sandwiches and talking about our school basketball team. Tom practiced shooting with an old water bottle, while Emma drew pictures of birds in her notebook. I watched families walking happily and children playing on the swings nearby. The air felt light and peaceful. Suddenly, we heard a loud shout and a dog barking (吠) wildly. We looked up quickly. A small white dog was running fast towards the busy road outside the park! Its broken rope dragged behind it. An old man with white hair was trying to catch the dog, but he looked very tired and afraid. He took a few more steps, then suddenly fell down hard onto the grass near the park gate. He held his chest and couldn’t stand up. The dog kept running towards the dangerous traffic. Emma cried out, covering her mouth. Tom dropped his bottle, eyes wide open. Our happy afternoon was broken. We knew we had to help immediately. The man lay quietly on the ground, breathing with difficulty. The little dog was almost on the road with cars moving fast. We needed to act fast but carefully. Tom pointed at the man, then at the dog, and then pulled out his phone. We understood: one for the man, one for the dog, and one for calling help. My heart beat fast as we stood up together. 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 We immediately took separate actions to deal with the different problems. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Everything worked out well because we acted quickly as a team. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 大通县第二中学2025~2026学年第一学期期中质量检测 高二英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：外研版选择性必修第一册Units 1~4。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】B 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. C 10. B 【11~13题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. A 13. C 【14~17题答案】 【答案】14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 【18~20题答案】 【答案】18. A 19. C 20. B 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. C B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. C 25. D 26. B 27. A C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. C 29. B 30. D 31. D D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. F 37. D 38. B 39. G 40. E 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. B 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. D 49. D 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. silent 57. was##is 58. In 59. the 60. who 61. involving 62. usually 63. falls 64. to watch 65. characters 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Notice To help you international students experience traditional Chinese drama culture, the Student Union is to host a Peking Opera Mask-making activity from 3:00 pm to 5:00 pm next Friday in the Art Room. During the activity, you’ll first learn about the fascinating art of Peking Opera masks, including the symbolism behind their colors and designs. Following this introduction, you’ll have the opportunity to create your own Peking Opera masks using provided materials like blank masks, paints, and brushes under friendly guidance. No previous experience is needed! All materials will be supplied. Please wear clothes you wouldn’t mind getting paint on. The Student Union 第二节（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】We immediately took separate actions to deal with the different problems. Tom ran straight to the fallen man. Meanwhile, I quickly crossed the grass and dialed the emergency number. Emma, who loved animals, raced towards the road where the little dog was still running wildly, calling it softly. I followed Tom, carrying our water bottle and the small first aid box from Tom’s bag. When we reached the man, Tom spoke gently to him while I offered him water carefully. We tried to make him feel better. Everything worked out well because we acted quickly as a team. Soon, we heard ambulance sounds coming closer. Emma arrived back safely, holding the little dog which finally calmed down in her arms. The doctors checked the old man carefully. He smiled weakly at us and said “thank you” many times. They explained he just needed rest and water. Seeing the man and his dog safely leave in the ambulance made us feel very happy and proud. We learned that helping others together is the best feeling in the world. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $写作评分细则 第一节（满分15分） (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最 后给分。 3.词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇 用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(13~15分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致：具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档(10~12分) 完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉1~2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到预期的写作目的。 第三档(7~9分) 基本完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档(4~6分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档(1~3分) 一未完成试题规定的任务。 一明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。 所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分25分） (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档 次，最后给分。 3.词数少于120的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过10分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： (1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； (2)内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况： (3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； (4)上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(21~25分) 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档(16一20分) -一与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档（11~15分) 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档(6~10分) 一与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档(1~5分) 一与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。