2026年中考英语一轮复习检测卷01（山东济南专用）

2026年中考英语一轮复习检测卷01（山东济南专用） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．It can’t be Gina’s. B．It isn’t polite to talk loudly. C．They haven’t finished it. 2．A．What is your plan? B．Where did it happen? C．When was tea invented? 3．A．That is true. B．Sad movies make me cry. C．I saw something strange. 4．A．Why were you late? B．How is tea produced? C．When was the TV invented? 5．A．It can’t be a dog. B．He didn’t use to be popular. C．They aren’t serious enough. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．How does Lisa learn English? A．By working with friends. B．By watching videos. C．By reading English books. 7．What did Helen get? A．A sweater. B．A T-shirt. C．A bike. 8．How did John get to school yesterday? A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus. 9．Whose schoolbag is this? A．It’s Tom’s. B．It’s Mary’s. C．It’s Tom’s sister’s. 10．What does Tony do on weekends? A．He reads books. B．He plays football. C．He plays tennis. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．Where’s Ben going on vacation? A．France. B．Mexico. C．Canada. 12．Who is Ben going with? A．His mother. B．His father. C．His brother. 13．How are they going there? A．By train. B．By air. C．By car. 14．How long are they staying there? A．One week. B．Two weeks. C．Two months. 15．Why is Amy going to Hawaii on vacation? A．Because it’s very touristy. B．Because people are friendly there. C．Because it’s warm there. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．When did David call the speaker last time? A．A month ago. B．Half a year ago. C．A year ago. 17．Why is the speaker in London? A．To study English. B．To see places of interest. C．To join in a competition. 18．Where did the speaker go the day before yesterday? A．To a museum. B．To a sports center. C．To a library. 19．How much were the three T-shirts? A．£10. B．£20. C．£30. 20．Which book will the speaker read? A．Robinson Crusoe. B．Alice in Wonderland. C．Wild Country. 听力答案 1．B 2．C 3．B 4．C 5．A 6．C 7．A 8．C 9．C 10．B 11．A 12．C 13．A 14．B 15．C 16．B 17．A 18．A 19．B 20．C 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Welcome to Top Discovery Space (TDS)! This is a good place for you and your kids to have fun through different kinds of hands-on activities, including experiencing 3D-printing, doing chemistry games, growing vegetables and exploring the secrets of space. All these activities need close parent-child cooperation. It is what we value most. We organize many activities for parents and children to do together. To make sure every visitor enjoys their time at TDS, we have to remind you to follow these rules: Parents should stay with their children during the visit. For children’s safety, parents must go through the instructions for the activities carefully. All visitors are required to wear socks (no shoes allowed) within indoor areas. You may ask our workers at the front desk for a pair. Visitors are not supposed to take photos here. Our teachers will catch your unforgettable moments during your visit. Your photos will be sent to you by email if you need them. Eating and drinking is only allowed in the picnic area. Opening time: 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. every day Price: 50 dollars for one ticket Please note: One ticket covers one adult and one child. Please buy one more ticket for another adult or child. 21. What can visitors do at TDS? A. Watch 3D movies. B. Take chemistry tests. C. Learn about space. D. Make vegetable salads. 22. What does TDS care about most? A. Parent-child cooperation. B. Children’s learning experience. C. Children’s health and safety. D. Teacher-student communication. 23. Who is advised to read the activity directions carefully? A. Teachers. B. Children. C. Workers. D. Parents. 24. How many tickets do you need if you go to TDS with your parents? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. 25. What kind of text is this passage? A. A story. B. A diary. C. A notice. D. A report. 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 【导语】本文介绍了Top Discovery Space（TDS）的活动、亲子合作、安全规则、开放时间和票价等信息。 21. 解析：根据“exploring the secrets of space”可知，游客可以学习关于太空的知识。故选C. 22. 解析：根据“All these activities need close parent-child cooperation. It is what we value most.”可知，TDS最重视亲子合作。故选A. 23. 解析：根据“parents must go through the instructions for the activities carefully”可知，家长需要仔细阅读活动说明。故选D. 24.解析：根据“One ticket covers one adult and one child”可知，一张票包含1名成人和1名儿童，你和父母一起去需要2张票。故选B. 25. 解析：本文介绍了TDS的活动、规则、开放时间和票价，属于通知类文本。故选C. B ①Tired of the busy city life? Visit the Bamboo Sea in Yibin, Sichuan. You will relax both your body and mind there. ②The Bamboo Sea is a large bamboo forest with a history of more than 2,000 years. It is the largest primeval bamboo park in China. It covers more than 500 hills and has over 50 kinds of bamboos. Since ancient times, bamboo has been important to the locals, who still use it to build houses, make tools for daily use, and create musical instruments. ③Hiking may sometimes seem tiring, but visitors walking in the Bamboo Sea always feel relaxed. It can be refreshing to walk through rows of thick bamboo, standing as tall as 10 metres. (As winter is the low season for tourism, there are not many visitors, and people can clearly hear birdsong and streams bubble.) Don’t miss the Emerald Gallery. It is a road paved with red sandstone and lined with green bamboo. Walking along this road is like entering a painted world. ④Another must-see place is the Bamboo Sea Museum. It shows almost all kinds of bamboo. It is a great place to learn about bamboo culture and its importance in Chinese history. ⑤Not far from the museum, visitors can see several hotels, and one of them is named “Forgetting Worries”. In addition to all the modern things common in hotels, the hotel is special for its collection of calligraphy works. The paintings on the wall of its canteen have words to encourage people to forget their pressure and enjoy life.⑥The Bamboo Sea is a must-visit place for anyone travelling to Sichuan. Its fantastic scenery, rich cultural heritage, and delicious dishes will make your journey a truly unforgettable experience. 26. Local people use bamboo to do the following things EXCEPT ______. A. making tools B. creating musical instruments C. building bridges D. building houses 27. What does the underlined word “refreshing” mean in Chinese? A. 发人深省的 B. 使人精神振作的 C. 令人费解的 D. 令人担心的 28. What can tourists do in Forgetting Worries? A. Learn to make things with bamboo. B. Learn something about bamboo. C. Walk on a road paved with red sandstone. D. See many calligraphy works. 29. What's the purpose of the writer? A. To explain the history of bamboo. B. To introduce the Bamboo Sea as a must-visit place in Sichuan. C. To describe the local people's life in Yibin. D. To compare the Bamboo Sea with other attractions in Sichuan. 30.What’s the structure of the text? A. ①/②③④⑤/⑥ B. ①②/③④/⑤⑥ C. ①②③/④/⑤⑥ D. ①②③/④⑤/⑥ 【答案】26. C 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. A 【导语】本文介绍了四川宜宾蜀南竹海的历史、活动、博物馆和特色酒店等信息。 26.解析：根据文中“who still use it to build houses, make tools for daily use, and create musical instruments”可知，当地人用竹子建造房屋、制作工具和乐器，但未提及建造桥梁。故选C 27.解析：文中提到“Hiking may sometimes seem tiring, but visitors walking in the Bamboo Sea always feel relaxed. It can be refreshing to walk through rows of thick bamboo”，由此可知，“refreshing”意为“使人精神振作的”。故选B. 28. 解析：根据文中“the hotel is special for its collection of calligraphy works”可知，游客可以在“忘忧谷”酒店 看到许多书法作品。故选D. 29解析：文章开头提到“Visit the Bamboo Sea in Yibin, Sichuan”，结尾总结“The Bamboo Sea is a must-visit place for anyone travelling to Sichuan”，说明作者的目的是介绍蜀南竹海作为四川的必游之地。故选B. 30. 解析：文章结构为：①引出蜀南竹海；②③④⑤分别介绍竹海的历史、徒步体验、博物馆和特色酒店； ⑥总结竹海是四川必游之地。故选A. C Pu'er is home to the world-famous tea of the same name. Being cut off from the outside by rivers, the Jingmai Mountain has become a heaven for an ancient planting technique. Tea trees grow under forest canopies (树冠), known as the "under-story" method, which filter (过滤) sunshine while ensuring water. Nan Kang was former head of Mangjing Village. He now prefers calling himself a "storyteller of the Jingmai Mountain". Running a team of more than 40 tea-producing families from different ethnic groups, he now wants to turn Jingmai into an influential name in the kingdom of tea. A 50-meter tree known as "the tree of the bee spirit" in Mangjing Village is sacred (神圣的) to local hearts. Hundreds of honeycombs (蜂巢) hang from its branches, but no one will touch them to fetch honey as they are in awe (敬畏) of nature. Instead, villagers set up their own hives nearby. "We have an old belief: If somebody's hive is empty, it's a sign of the tree's punishment," Nan says. "The owner must have done something to break our rules." Nan is an old-time Blang leader's grandson. Following a leader named Pa Aileng, Nan's ancestors (祖先) came to live near the Jingmai Mountain centuries ago. It is said that Pa Aileng found tea leaves and cured his people of the diseases using them. So the hero is also honored as a "tea ancestor". Blang people chose a peak as their sacred mountain to remember him. They call it Peak Aileng. "We Blang people believe tea has its own spirit," Nan says. "The first planted tea tree in every field is called the tea spirit tree. That means the field has an owner. And the symbol also urges everyone to follow moral rules and protect the plants." On Sunday, the Cultural Landscape of Old Tea Forests of the Jingmai Mountain in Pu'er was listed as a World Heritage Site in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, becoming China's 57th entry on the list. 31. Where do tea trees grow according to the ancient planting skill? A. Under tall trees in forests. B. At the top of a mountain. C. By a river with much water. D. On the south side of a mountain. 32. No one would like to fetch honey from honeycombs because ______. A. it's dangerous to touch honeycombs B. the villagers have enough hives nearby C. the branches are too high off the ground D. the villagers have great respect for nature 33. What does Paragraph 5 mainly talk about? A. The history of Pu'er tea. B. The popularity of Pu'er tea. C. The production of Pu'er tea. D. The different kinds of Pu'er tea. 34. Which of the following is the tea spirit tree? A. The one that grows best. B. The one that is the oldest. C. The one that is the tallest. D. The one that produces the most tea. 35. In which section of a newspaper can we read this passage? A. Science Study. B. Diet and Health. C. History and Culture. D. Travel Stories. 【答案】31. A 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 【导语】本文介绍了云南普洱景迈山的古树茶种植技术、当地文化及被列入世界遗产的情况。 31. 解析：根据文中“Tea trees grow under forest canopies (树冠), known as the ‘under-story’ method”可知，古树茶种植技术是让茶树生长在森林树冠下。故选A。 32. 解析：文中提到“no one will touch them to fetch honey as they are in awe (敬畏) of nature”，说明村民们出于对自然的敬畏而不采摘蜂巢中的蜂蜜。故选D。 33. 解析：第5段主要讲述了布朗族祖先Pa Aileng发现茶叶并治病的历史，以及布朗族对他的纪念，因此该段主要介绍了普洱茶的历史。故选A。 34.解析：根据文中“The first planted tea tree in every field is called the tea spirit tree”可知，茶魂树是每块茶地里最早种植的那棵树，也就是最古老的那棵。故选B。 35.解析：本文主要介绍了景迈山的古树茶种植技术、当地文化和历史，因此最可能出现在报纸的历史与文化板块。故选C。 D If you see a white and a pink mascot with a wave, recognize them. They are the official mascots for the 15th National Games, originally named “Xi Yangyang” and “Le Rongrong.” Their design is inspired by the Chinese white dolphin, representing the spirit of the Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao Greater Bay Area. However, it was the internet that gave them a much funnier name. Because the wave on their heads looked like a rooster’s crest, people lovingly called them the “Bay Chicken.” The name “Bay Chicken” (Da Wan Ji) spread quickly on social media platforms like Douyin and Xiaohongshu. It was both cute and memorable. People love them not just for their look, but for their performances. During the opening ceremony and at many sports venues, the performers in the heavy costumes did handstands, jumped around, and even bumped into railings. These funny and energetic actions were filmed and shared online millions of times. As a result, the mascots’ toys and other products sold out immediately. It became very difficult to buy one, and some official bags sold for very high prices online. So, ✱ First, their silly behavior provided a happy escape for people from their busy lives. Furthermore, the event organizers were very smart with the public. They happily accepted the funny nickname and shared many videos and memes online. Finally, the mascots became a symbol of local culture and pride for people in the region. 36. What inspired the design of the official mascots “Xi Yangyang” and “Le Rongrong”? A. The Chinese white dolphin. B. The rooster’s crest. C. The Bay Chicken legend. D. The Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao bridge. 37. Why did the mascots’ toys and products become difficult to buy? A. They were only sold at the opening ceremony. B. The performers damaged most of the products. C. People preferred to buy them online rather than in stores. D. Their popularity led to high demand and resale at high prices. 38. Which one can be filled in the blank ✱ ? A. how did the event organizers reply to the mascots’ funny nickname “Bay Chicken”? B. how did these mascots become so popular? C. why did these mascots become so popular? D. who made these mascots become so popular? 39. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the mascots’ popularity? A. Their funny performances attracted online attention. B. They symbolized local cultural pride. C. Their costumes were lightweight and easy to move in. D. They provided a light-hearted escape for busy people. 40. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To criticize the internet’s influence on mascot design. B. To explain how the mascots became a cultural phenomenon（现象）. C. To compare the official names and nicknames of the mascots. D. To describe the opening ceremony performances in detail. 【答案】36. A 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. B 【导语】本文介绍了第15届全运会吉祥物“喜洋洋”“乐融融”的设计灵感、网络昵称“湾鸡”的由来，以及它们成为文化现象的原因和影响。 36. 解析：根据文中“Their design is inspired by the Chinese white dolphin”可知，吉祥物的设计灵感来自中华白海豚。故选A。 37.解析：文中提到“These funny and energetic actions were filmed and shared online millions of times. As a result, the mascots’ toys and other products sold out immediately... some official bags sold for very high prices online”，结合前文“它们的受欢迎程度导致需求激增，并且出现了高价转售的情况”，可知吉祥物的受欢迎度带来高需求和高价转售，使得相关产品难购买。故选D。 38.解析：空白处后接“First... Furthermore... Finally...”，列举的是吉祥物受欢迎的原因，且前文也有“So, why did these mascots become so popular?”的类似表达，此处应填入对应的设问句。A选项询问主办方对昵称的回应，B选项为疑问句语序错误（宾语从句需用陈述句语序），D选项询问是谁让吉祥物走红，均与后文内容不匹配。故选C。 39. 解析：根据文中“the performers in the heavy costumes”可知，吉祥物服装是厚重的，而非轻便易活动，C选项与原文不符；A选项对应“funny and energetic actions were filmed and shared online millions of times”，B选项对应“became a symbol of local culture and pride”，D选项对应“provided a happy escape for people from their busy lives”，均是吉祥物受欢迎的原因。故选C。 40. 解析：文章围绕吉祥物的设计、昵称由来、受欢迎的原因及影响展开，核心是解释它们如何成为一种文化现象。A选项“批评网络对吉祥物设计的影响”、C选项“对比吉祥物的官方名称和昵称”、D选项“详细描述开幕式表演”均未涵盖文章主旨。故选B。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Picture yourself sitting in a quiet place and enjoying a book. 41._______ It is a great way to relax. Now there is a hot discussion — physical books (实体书) vs audiobooks (有声书). Does the way you enjoy a book make any difference to you? First, let’s look at reading with your eyes — physical books. Being in print, it’s possible for you to feel the books. 42.________This is because when you see the words in books, your attention is held more closely. What’s more, with physical books, you can easily go back and find any part you missed. Some people like taking notes when they read. 43._________ But for those who can’t or don’t want to look at the words in a book, there are audiobooks to listen to. With earphones (耳机) in, you’re away from real life. 44._______ As you hear the voice of the reader, it is likely to help you develop a greater sense of empathy (共鸣). This can make you enjoy the story more. For people who are learning a new language, audiobooks can also help improve their language skills. 45.____________Maybe next time you start a book, think about changing your way — it may just change your experience. A. Physical books can help you get information better. B. Physical books can also be sweet memories. C. Physical books can also help with that. D. There are many kinds of books you can read. E. The story comes alive like you’re watching a film in your head. F. You are getting lost in a good story. G. Whichever way you choose to enjoy a book, there is sure something good for you. 【答案】41. F 42. A 43. C 44. E 45. G 【导语】本文讨论了实体书与有声书的不同阅读方式，分析了它们各自的优势，并建议读者可以尝试不同的阅读方式来改变体验。 41.解析：前一句提到“想象自己坐在安静的地方享受一本书”，后一句说“这是一种很好的放松方式”。F选项“你沉浸在一个好故事里”承接了“享受书”的场景，符合语境。故选F。 42. 解析：后文提到“当你看到书中的文字时，注意力会更集中”，这与A选项“实体书可以帮助你更好地获取信息”的内容相符，解释了实体书的优势。故选A。 43. 解析：前一句提到“有些人喜欢在阅读时做笔记”，C选项“实体书也可以帮助你做到这一点”中的“that”指代“做笔记”，与前文内容呼应。故选C。 44. 解析：前一句提到“戴上耳机，你就远离了现实生活”，后一句说“听到朗读者的声音可能会帮助你培养更强的共鸣感”。E选项“故事变得生动起来，就像你在脑海中看电影一样”符合有声书带来的沉浸式体验。故选E。 45. 解析：后文提到“下次开始读书时，可以考虑改变你的方式——这可能会改变你的体验”，G选项“无论你选择哪种方式享受一本书，肯定有对你有益的东西”是对前文两种阅读方式的总结，符合语境。故选G。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Anna: Hi, Jack. Have you seen that many people around are wearing Hanfu these days? Jack: Yeah, it's becoming really popular! 46.__________ Anna: I think it looks so beautiful. But I'm not sure how to pick a suitable one. 47.__________ Jack: Sure! You can first think about the style. There are different styles like ruqun and aoqun. They have different features. Anna: That's helpful. 48._________ Jack: You can buy them online. There are many online stores with different kinds of Hanfu. And it's usually more convenient. Anna: Great. 49.__________ Jack: You can check the size chart (尺码表) carefully. Different brands might have different size standards. It's important to measure your body size. Anna: Got it. 50.____________ Jack: You're welcome. I'm sure you'll look great in Hanfu. 46. A. Do they like it? B. What do you think of it? C. Why do you ask it? D. How about going out? 47. A. Where did you buy yours? B. Can you give me some advice? C. How much does it cost? D. When did you start wearing it? 48. A. Where can I buy one? B. Who buys it? C. How often should I wear it? D. How long has it been popular? 49. A. How should I clean it? B. Which brand is the best? C. How can I get the right size? D. Who can help me choose? 50. A. It doesn't matter. B. That's not right. C. Have a good time. D. Thanks for your help. 【答案】46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 【导语】本文是Anna和Jack关于汉服流行的对话，Anna询问如何挑选合适的汉服，Jack给出了关于款式、购买渠道和尺码选择的建议。 46. 解析：根据后文Anna的回答“I think it looks so beautiful”，可知Jack是在询问Anna对汉服的看法。选项B“你觉得它怎么样？”符合语境。故选B。 47. 解析：Anna说“但我不确定如何挑选合适的”，后文Jack给出了关于款式的建议，说明Anna是在请求建议。选项B“你能给我一些建议吗？”符合语境。故选B。 48. 解析：根据Jack的回答“You can buy them online”，可知Anna是在询问购买渠道。选项A“我可以在哪里买一件？”符合语境。故选A。 49. 解析：根据Jack的回答“You can check the size chart carefully”，可知Anna是在询问如何选对尺码。选项C“我如何能选到合适的尺码？”符合语境。故选C。 50. 解析：根据后文Jack的回答“You're welcome”，可知Anna是在表达感谢。选项D“谢谢你的帮助”符合语境。故选D。 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A lot of people admired our neighbor. One day a delivery truck unloaded a large 51____ system at their house. And the kids discussed the new sound equipment my neighbor had just bought. Meantime, we were living in a house decorated 52____ and dressing our kids in second-hand clothes. We lived a 53____ life. My poor mother-in-law, in town for a visit, got to hear my complaints that night. “I feel so 54____ sometimes,” I told her, as we 55____ the table after dinner. “I know we’re doing the right thing, living frugally (节俭的), saving money, but it feels so hard. There’re so many things I’d like to 56____, so many things I’d like to do, but we just can’t.” She sighed（叹气）57._______she folded a cloth napkin in silence. Then she turned to me and said, “When you make a comparison between yourself and others, it’s easy to 58____ what you don’t have. But there’s one thing you two do that many other couples may 59____ to do. You two often go out together and take time to focus on your 60____. And that’s a very important thing.” I stopped wiping the table and 61____ for a minute. I thought of the movie my husband and I had seen a week earlier. I 62____ the bike rides, the hikes and the picnics. Most of all, I remembered how 63____ we were together, even after twenty years. How many people can say that? I looked around my home in a new 64____. Our refrigerator was too small for a family of six, but it was usually filled 65____ delicious food. Our kitchen was small and we had no big TV, but we’re happy! And that’s enough! 51. A. entertainment B. tradition C. control D. management 52. A. carefully B. simply C. beautifully D. hopefully 53. A. peaceful B. healthy C. poor D. normal 54. A. curious B. powerful C. embarrassed D. sweet 55. A. cleared B. set C. laid D. turned 56. A. forgot B. own C. sell D. save 57. A. until B. after C. before D. as 58. A. look after B. work on C. care about D. give up 59. A. decide B. fail C. check D. improve 60. A. job B. marriage C. health D. dream 61. A. thought B. cried C. froze D. fought 62. A. touched B. chose C. exchanged D. recalled 63. A. cheerful B. lucky C. thankful D.special 64. A. city B. suggestion C. environment D. way 65. A. of B. with C. in D. for 【答案】51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. A 52. B 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. B 53. A 62. D 63. A 64. D 65. B 【导语】本文通过对比“我”与邻居的生活状态，讲述了“我”因节俭生活产生抱怨，在婆婆的点醒下，领悟到夫妻间的陪伴与幸福感比物质财富更重要的故事，传递了“知足常乐”的生活态度。 51.解析：根据后文“the new sound equipment”（新的音响设备）可知，邻居家卸载的是娱乐系统。A选项“entertainment”（娱乐）符合语境；B选项“tradition”（传统）、C选项“control”（控制）、D选项“management”（管理）均与“音响设备”无关。故选A。 52解析：前文提及邻居家有新娱乐设备，后文对比“我们”给孩子穿二手衣服，可推断“我们”的房子装修简单。B选项“simply”（简单地）契合节俭的生活状态；A选项“carefully”（仔细地）、C选项“beautifully”（漂亮地）、D选项“hopefully”（有希望地）均与语境相悖。故选B。 53. 解析：由“穿二手衣服”“装修简单”“生活节俭”等细节可判断，“我们”过着贫穷的生活。C选项“poor”（贫穷的）符合语境；A选项“peaceful”（平静的）、B选项“healthy”（健康的）、D选项“normal”（正常的）均未体现“物质匮乏”的核心特征。故选C。 54. 解析：根据前文“my complaints”（我的抱怨）和后文“it feels so hard”（这感觉太难了），结合选项可知“我”因生活拮据感到尴尬。C选项“embarrassed”（尴尬的）符合抱怨时的情绪；A选项“curious”（好奇的）、B选项“powerful”（有力量的）、D选项“sweet”（甜蜜的）均与语境不符。故选C。 55. 解析：由“after dinner”（晚饭后）可知，此处指收拾餐桌。A选项“cleared”（清理，收拾）符合场景；B选项“set”（摆放，set the table 指饭前摆餐具）、C选项“laid”（铺设，lay the table 也指摆餐具）、D选项“turned”（转动）均与“晚饭后”的动作逻辑不符。故选A。 56.解析：前文强调“我们”生活节俭，后文“so many things I’d like to do, but we just can’t”（很多想做的事却做不到）对应“很多想拥有的东西却得不到”。B选项“own”（拥有）符合语境；A选项“forgot”（忘记）、C选项“sell”（出售）、D选项“save”（节省）均与“物质需求”无关。故选B。 57. 解析：此处表示“她一边沉默地叠餐巾，一边叹气”，强调两个动作同时进行。D选项“as”（当……时，一边……一边……）符合逻辑；A选项“until”（直到……才）、B选项“after”（在……之后）、C选项“before”（在……之前）均无法体现动作的同步性。故选D。 58. 解析：婆婆的话意为“当你和别人比较时，很容易在意自己没有的东西”。C选项“care about”（关心；在意）符合语境；A选项“look after”（照顾）、B选项“work on”（致力于）、D选项“give up”（放弃）均与“比较时关注缺失”的逻辑不符。故选C。 59. 解析：后文提到“你们经常一起出去，专注于彼此”，这是很多夫妻没能做到的事。B选项“fail”（未能）符合“but”表转折的语义；A选项“decide”（决定）、C选项“check”（检查）、D选项“improve”（改善）均无法体现对比关系。故选B。 60. 解析：“我”和丈夫一起看电影、骑自行车、徒步、野餐，这些都是夫妻间的互动，体现对婚姻的重视。B选项“marriage”（婚姻）符合语境；A选项“job”（工作）、C选项“health”（健康）、D选项“dream”（梦想）均与夫妻互动场景无关。故选B。 61. 解析：婆婆的话让“我”停下擦桌子，思考了一分钟。A选项“thought”（思考）符合“领悟道理”的过程；B选项“cried”（哭泣）、C选项“froze”（冻结）、D选项“fought”（打架）均与语境不符。故选A。 62.解析：前文提到“想到一周前和丈夫看的电影”，后文列举“骑自行车、徒步、野餐”，这些都是对过往经历的回忆。D选项“recalled”（回忆）符合语境；A选项“touched”（触摸）、B选项“chose”（选择）、C选项“exchanged”（交换）均与“过往场景”无关。故选D。 63. 解析：即使过了二十年，“我们”在一起依然很快乐，这是“很多人无法企及的”。A选项“cheerful”（快乐的）符合夫妻相处的核心情绪；B选项“lucky”（幸运的）、C选项“thankful”（感激的）、D选项“special”（特别的）均未突出“相处时的愉悦感”。故选A。 64. 解析：“我”在婆婆的点醒下，以新的方式看待自己的家。D选项“way”（方式，in a new way 以新的方式）符合语境；A选项“city”（城市）、B选项“suggestion”（建议）、C选项“environment”（环境）均与“看待事物的视角”无关。故选D。 65. 解析：固定搭配“be filled with”表示“装满；充满”，此处指冰箱里经常装满美味的食物。A选项“of”（be full of 表“充满”，与filled搭配错误）、C选项“in”、D选项“for”均无法与filled构成正确搭配。故选B。 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Wan Haibo, a 43-year-old deliveryman (快递员) in Tianjin, 66____( honor) as a National Model Worker (全国劳动模范) in 2025. After receiving the honor, Wan said, “I feel very excited and proud.” Born in the countryside in Handan, Hebei, Wan went to Tianjin in 2018 and became 67____ deliveryman. “There’s no easy way to success. Every package (包裹) means responsibility and trust, so it’s necessary to send it in time,” he said. “I thought about stopping, 68____ finally got through all the difficulties.” Wan is responsible 69____ a large community. He sends about 500 packages a day, but it can increase to even 1,000 daily during online shopping festivals. He 70____ (usual) starts work around 6 am and finishes work around 8 pm—that can last to midnight during busy 71____ (season). In the past seven years, he 72____ (send) over 720,000 packages without any mistake. When facing terrible weather and possible delays (延迟), he will call customers right away to explain. Wan is a warm-hearted person who shows special care for older or disabled people. He always helps them buy medicine and take away 73____ (they) rubbish during deliveries. Since April 2022, he has volunteered to check and report safety risks in his community. “I’m satisfied that we deliverymen get 74._________(much) social respect now,” Wan said. “I’ll keep working hard and encourage people around me 75____ (help) others.” 【答案】 66. was honored 67. a 68. but 69. for 70. usually 71. seasons 72. has sent 73. their 74. more 75. to help 【解析】【导语】天津快递员万海波2025年获评全国劳动模范，零差错配送72万件包裹，热心帮扶他人。 66. 这里主语 “Wan Haibo” 与动词 “honor” 是被动关系，且动作发生在2025年，故填 was honored。 67. 这里表示“一名快递员”，是泛指，且 “deliveryman” 以辅音音素开头，故填 a。 68. 前半句“想过放弃”与后半句“克服所有困难”构成转折关系，需用转折连词，故填 but。 69. 固定搭配 “be responsible for” 表示“对……负责”，为中考高频短语，故填 for。 70. 此处需用副词修饰动词 “starts”，形容词 “usual” 的副词形式为 “usually”，故填 usually。 71. “season” 为可数名词，结合 “busy”（繁忙的）可知指多个购物旺季，需用复数形式，故填 seasons。 72. 时间状语 “In the past seven years”（过去七年）提示动作从过去持续到现在，需用现在完成时，故填 has sent。 73. 此处需用形容词性物主代词修饰名词 “rubbish”，人称代词 “they” 的所有格形式为 “their”，故填 their。 74. 此处暗含与过去的比较，需用形容词的比较级形式，故填 more。 75. 固定搭配 “encourage sb. to do sth.” 表示“鼓励某人做某事”，后接动词不定式，故填 to help。  第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片, 用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: Was your mother cooking when you were reading B: No, ________________________________________ 77. A: ____________________________________ B:Yes, it is really educational. 78. A:How long is the Yangtze River? B: __________________________________. 79. A: ______________________________ B: It was built in Sui Dynasty. 80. A:Are you supposed to bow when you meet people in China? B: No,____________________________________ 参考答案 76.She was doing the dishes. 77.Have you read Red Star Over China yet? 78.It’s about 6,300 kilometers long. 79.When was Zhaozhou Bridge built? 80.We’re supposed to shake hands. 第二节作文（满分25分） 81.生活在现代化社会的我们感受到了科技发展日新月异，尤其是 DeepSeek 的出现使人工智能AI（artificial intelligence）一度成为热门话题，同时也引发了人们对于人工智能取代人类的担忧。请根据以下要求写一篇100词左右的英语短文。 要求: 1. 告诉人们不必过于担心人工智能的发展； 2. 列举人工智能发展带来的好处（至少两点），并举例说明； 3. 谈谈你对未来人工智能发展的期待. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【范文】 The invention of DeepSeek has made AI a hot topic among people in our society. Many people feel worried about the development of AI. There is no need for people to worry too much about the development of AI. AI will never completely take the place of human beings. Instead, it has many advantages. First of all, AI can be used to do dangerous jobs and keep workers safe. If people don't want to repeat the same boring and tiring work day after day, they can ask AI for help. AI can also help a lot in scientific development. It improves the accuracy of data and helps scientists to do research. In my opinion, AI is a trend of the world. We will live happily and more conveniently with the help of it. / 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考英语一轮复习检测卷01（山东济南专用） 参考答案 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1．B 2．C 3．B 4．C 5．A 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6．C 7．A 8．C 9．C 10．B 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 11．A 12．C 13．A 14．B 15．C 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 16．B 17．A 18．A 19．B 20．C 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. B 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 41. F 42. A 43. C 44. E 45. G 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. A 52. B 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. B 53. A 62. D 63. A 64. D 65. B 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66. was honored 67. a 68. but 69. for 70. usually 71. seasons 72. has sent 73. their 74. more 75. to help  第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 76.She was doing the dishes. 77.Have you read Red Star Over China yet? 78.It’s about 6,300 kilometers long. 79.When was Zhaozhou Bridge built? 80.We’re supposed to shake hands. 第二节作文（满分25分） 【范文】 The invention of DeepSeek has made AI a hot topic among people in our society. Many people feel worried about the development of AI. There is no need for people to worry too much about the development of AI. AI will never completely take the place of human beings. Instead, it has many advantages. First of all, AI can be used to do dangerous jobs and keep workers safe. If people don't want to repeat the same boring and tiring work day after day, they can ask AI for help. AI can also help a lot in scientific development. It improves the accuracy of data and helps scientists to do research. In my opinion, AI is a trend of the world. We will live happily and more conveniently with the help of it. / 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考英语一轮复习检测卷01（山东济南专用） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．It can’t be Gina’s. B．It isn’t polite to talk loudly. C．They haven’t finished it. 2．A．What is your plan? B．Where did it happen? C．When was tea invented? 3．A．That is true. B．Sad movies make me cry. C．I saw something strange. 4．A．Why were you late? B．How is tea produced? C．When was the TV invented? 5．A．It can’t be a dog. B．He didn’t use to be popular. C．They aren’t serious enough. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．How does Lisa learn English? A．By working with friends. B．By watching videos. C．By reading English books. 7．What did Helen get? A．A sweater. B．A T-shirt. C．A bike. 8．How did John get to school yesterday? A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus. 9．Whose schoolbag is this? A．It’s Tom’s. B．It’s Mary’s. C．It’s Tom’s sister’s. 10．What does Tony do on weekends? A．He reads books. B．He plays football. C．He plays tennis. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．Where’s Ben going on vacation? A．France. B．Mexico. C．Canada. 12．Who is Ben going with? A．His mother. B．His father. C．His brother. 13．How are they going there? A．By train. B．By air. C．By car. 14．How long are they staying there? A．One week. B．Two weeks. C．Two months. 15．Why is Amy going to Hawaii on vacation? A．Because it’s very touristy. B．Because people are friendly there. C．Because it’s warm there. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．When did David call the speaker last time? A．A month ago. B．Half a year ago. C．A year ago. 17．Why is the speaker in London? A．To study English. B．To see places of interest. C．To join in a competition. 18．Where did the speaker go the day before yesterday? A．To a museum. B．To a sports center. C．To a library. 19．How much were the three T-shirts? A．£10. B．£20. C．£30. 20．Which book will the speaker read? A．Robinson Crusoe. B．Alice in Wonderland. C．Wild Country. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Welcome to Top Discovery Space (TDS)! This is a good place for you and your kids to have fun through different kinds of hands-on activities, including experiencing 3D-printing, doing chemistry games, growing vegetables and exploring the secrets of space. All these activities need close parent-child cooperation. It is what we value most. We organize many activities for parents and children to do together. To make sure every visitor enjoys their time at TDS, we have to remind you to follow these rules: Parents should stay with their children during the visit. For children’s safety, parents must go through the instructions for the activities carefully. All visitors are required to wear socks (no shoes allowed) within indoor areas. You may ask our workers at the front desk for a pair. Visitors are not supposed to take photos here. Our teachers will catch your unforgettable moments during your visit. Your photos will be sent to you by email if you need them. Eating and drinking is only allowed in the picnic area. Opening time: 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. every day Price: 50 dollars for one ticket Please note: One ticket covers one adult and one child. Please buy one more ticket for another adult or child. 21. What can visitors do at TDS? A. Watch 3D movies. B. Take chemistry tests. C. Learn about space. D. Make vegetable salads. 22. What does TDS care about most? A. Parent-child cooperation. B. Children’s learning experience. C. Children’s health and safety. D. Teacher-student communication. 23. Who is advised to read the activity directions carefully? A. Teachers. B. Children. C. Workers. D. Parents. 24. How many tickets do you need if you go to TDS with your parents? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. 25. What kind of text is this passage? A. A story. B. A diary. C. A notice. D. A report. B ①Tired of the busy city life? Visit the Bamboo Sea in Yibin, Sichuan. You will relax both your body and mind there. ②The Bamboo Sea is a large bamboo forest with a history of more than 2,000 years. It is the largest primeval bamboo park in China. It covers more than 500 hills and has over 50 kinds of bamboos. Since ancient times, bamboo has been important to the locals, who still use it to build houses, make tools for daily use, and create musical instruments. ③Hiking may sometimes seem tiring, but visitors walking in the Bamboo Sea always feel relaxed. It can be refreshing to walk through rows of thick bamboo, standing as tall as 10 metres. (As winter is the low season for tourism, there are not many visitors, and people can clearly hear birdsong and streams bubble.) Don’t miss the Emerald Gallery. It is a road paved with red sandstone and lined with green bamboo. Walking along this road is like entering a painted world. ④Another must-see place is the Bamboo Sea Museum. It shows almost all kinds of bamboo. It is a great place to learn about bamboo culture and its importance in Chinese history. ⑤Not far from the museum, visitors can see several hotels, and one of them is named “Forgetting Worries”. In addition to all the modern things common in hotels, the hotel is special for its collection of calligraphy works. The paintings on the wall of its canteen have words to encourage people to forget their pressure and enjoy life.⑥The Bamboo Sea is a must-visit place for anyone travelling to Sichuan. Its fantastic scenery, rich cultural heritage, and delicious dishes will make your journey a truly unforgettable experience. 26. Local people use bamboo to do the following things EXCEPT ______. A. making tools B. creating musical instruments C. building bridges D. building houses 27. What does the underlined word “refreshing” mean in Chinese? A. 发人深省的 B. 使人精神振作的 C. 令人费解的 D. 令人担心的 28. What can tourists do in Forgetting Worries? A. Learn to make things with bamboo. B. Learn something about bamboo. C. Walk on a road paved with red sandstone. D. See many calligraphy works. 29. What's the purpose of the writer? A. To explain the history of bamboo. B. To introduce the Bamboo Sea as a must-visit place in Sichuan. C. To describe the local people's life in Yibin. D. To compare the Bamboo Sea with other attractions in Sichuan. 30.What’s the structure of the text? A. ①/②③④⑤/⑥ B. ①②/③④/⑤⑥ C. ①②③/④/⑤⑥ D. ①②③/④⑤/⑥ C Pu'er is home to the world-famous tea of the same name. Being cut off from the outside by rivers, the Jingmai Mountain has become a heaven for an ancient planting technique. Tea trees grow under forest canopies (树冠), known as the "under-story" method, which filter (过滤) sunshine while ensuring water. Nan Kang was former head of Mangjing Village. He now prefers calling himself a "storyteller of the Jingmai Mountain". Running a team of more than 40 tea-producing families from different ethnic groups, he now wants to turn Jingmai into an influential name in the kingdom of tea. A 50-meter tree known as "the tree of the bee spirit" in Mangjing Village is sacred (神圣的) to local hearts. Hundreds of honeycombs (蜂巢) hang from its branches, but no one will touch them to fetch honey as they are in awe (敬畏) of nature. Instead, villagers set up their own hives nearby. "We have an old belief: If somebody's hive is empty, it's a sign of the tree's punishment," Nan says. "The owner must have done something to break our rules." Nan is an old-time Blang leader's grandson. Following a leader named Pa Aileng, Nan's ancestors (祖先) came to live near the Jingmai Mountain centuries ago. It is said that Pa Aileng found tea leaves and cured his people of the diseases using them. So the hero is also honored as a "tea ancestor". Blang people chose a peak as their sacred mountain to remember him. They call it Peak Aileng. "We Blang people believe tea has its own spirit," Nan says. "The first planted tea tree in every field is called the tea spirit tree. That means the field has an owner. And the symbol also urges everyone to follow moral rules and protect the plants." On Sunday, the Cultural Landscape of Old Tea Forests of the Jingmai Mountain in Pu'er was listed as a World Heritage Site in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, becoming China's 57th entry on the list. 31. Where do tea trees grow according to the ancient planting skill? A. Under tall trees in forests. B. At the top of a mountain. C. By a river with much water. D. On the south side of a mountain. 32. No one would like to fetch honey from honeycombs because ______. A. it's dangerous to touch honeycombs B. the villagers have enough hives nearby C. the branches are too high off the ground D. the villagers have great respect for nature 33. What does Paragraph 5 mainly talk about? A. The history of Pu'er tea. B. The popularity of Pu'er tea. C. The production of Pu'er tea. D. The different kinds of Pu'er tea. 34. Which of the following is the tea spirit tree? A. The one that grows best. B. The one that is the oldest. C. The one that is the tallest. D. The one that produces the most tea. 35. In which section of a newspaper can we read this passage? A. Science Study. B. Diet and Health. C. History and Culture. D. Travel Stories. D If you see a white and a pink mascot with a wave, recognize them. They are the official mascots for the 15th National Games, originally named “Xi Yangyang” and “Le Rongrong.” Their design is inspired by the Chinese white dolphin, representing the spirit of the Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao Greater Bay Area. However, it was the internet that gave them a much funnier name. Because the wave on their heads looked like a rooster’s crest, people lovingly called them the “Bay Chicken.” The name “Bay Chicken” (Da Wan Ji) spread quickly on social media platforms like Douyin and Xiaohongshu. It was both cute and memorable. People love them not just for their look, but for their performances. During the opening ceremony and at many sports venues, the performers in the heavy costumes did handstands, jumped around, and even bumped into railings. These funny and energetic actions were filmed and shared online millions of times. As a result, the mascots’ toys and other products sold out immediately. It became very difficult to buy one, and some official bags sold for very high prices online. So, ✱ First, their silly behavior provided a happy escape for people from their busy lives. Furthermore, the event organizers were very smart with the public. They happily accepted the funny nickname and shared many videos and memes online. Finally, the mascots became a symbol of local culture and pride for people in the region. 36. What inspired the design of the official mascots “Xi Yangyang” and “Le Rongrong”? A. The Chinese white dolphin. B. The rooster’s crest. C. The Bay Chicken legend. D. The Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao bridge. 37. Why did the mascots’ toys and products become difficult to buy? A. They were only sold at the opening ceremony. B. The performers damaged most of the products. C. People preferred to buy them online rather than in stores. D. Their popularity led to high demand and resale at high prices. 38. Which one can be filled in the blank ✱ ? A. how did the event organizers reply to the mascots’ funny nickname “Bay Chicken”? B. how did these mascots become so popular? C. why did these mascots become so popular? D. who made these mascots become so popular? 39. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the mascots’ popularity? A. Their funny performances attracted online attention. B. They symbolized local cultural pride. C. Their costumes were lightweight and easy to move in. D. They provided a light-hearted escape for busy people. 40. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To criticize the internet’s influence on mascot design. B. To explain how the mascots became a cultural phenomenon（现象）. C. To compare the official names and nicknames of the mascots. D. To describe the opening ceremony performances in detail. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Picture yourself sitting in a quiet place and enjoying a book. 41._______ It is a great way to relax. Now there is a hot discussion — physical books (实体书) vs audiobooks (有声书). Does the way you enjoy a book make any difference to you? First, let’s look at reading with your eyes — physical books. Being in print, it’s possible for you to feel the books. 42.________This is because when you see the words in books, your attention is held more closely. What’s more, with physical books, you can easily go back and find any part you missed. Some people like taking notes when they read. 43._________ But for those who can’t or don’t want to look at the words in a book, there are audiobooks to listen to. With earphones (耳机) in, you’re away from real life. 44._______ As you hear the voice of the reader, it is likely to help you develop a greater sense of empathy (共鸣). This can make you enjoy the story more. For people who are learning a new language, audiobooks can also help improve their language skills. 45.____________Maybe next time you start a book, think about changing your way — it may just change your experience. A. Physical books can help you get information better. B. Physical books can also be sweet memories. C. Physical books can also help with that. D. There are many kinds of books you can read. E. The story comes alive like you’re watching a film in your head. F. You are getting lost in a good story. G. Whichever way you choose to enjoy a book, there is sure something good for you. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Anna: Hi, Jack. Have you seen that many people around are wearing Hanfu these days? Jack: Yeah, it's becoming really popular! 46.__________ Anna: I think it looks so beautiful. But I'm not sure how to pick a suitable one. 47.__________ Jack: Sure! You can first think about the style. There are different styles like ruqun and aoqun. They have different features. Anna: That's helpful. 48._________ Jack: You can buy them online. There are many online stores with different kinds of Hanfu. And it's usually more convenient. Anna: Great. 49.__________ Jack: You can check the size chart (尺码表) carefully. Different brands might have different size standards. It's important to measure your body size. Anna: Got it. 50.____________ Jack: You're welcome. I'm sure you'll look great in Hanfu. 46. A. Do they like it? B. What do you think of it? C. Why do you ask it? D. How about going out? 47. A. Where did you buy yours? B. Can you give me some advice? C. How much does it cost? D. When did you start wearing it? 48. A. Where can I buy one? B. Who buys it? C. How often should I wear it? D. How long has it been popular? 49. A. How should I clean it? B. Which brand is the best? C. How can I get the right size? D. Who can help me choose? 50. A. It doesn't matter. B. That's not right. C. Have a good time. D. Thanks for your help. 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A lot of people admired our neighbor. One day a delivery truck unloaded a large 51____ system at their house. And the kids discussed the new sound equipment my neighbor had just bought. Meantime, we were living in a house decorated 52____ and dressing our kids in second-hand clothes. We lived a 53____ life. My poor mother-in-law, in town for a visit, got to hear my complaints that night. “I feel so 54____ sometimes,” I told her, as we 55____ the table after dinner. “I know we’re doing the right thing, living frugally (节俭的), saving money, but it feels so hard. There’re so many things I’d like to 56____, so many things I’d like to do, but we just can’t.” She sighed（叹气）57._______she folded a cloth napkin in silence. Then she turned to me and said, “When you make a comparison between yourself and others, it’s easy to 58____ what you don’t have. But there’s one thing you two do that many other couples may 59____ to do. You two often go out together and take time to focus on your 60____. And that’s a very important thing.” I stopped wiping the table and 61____ for a minute. I thought of the movie my husband and I had seen a week earlier. I 62____ the bike rides, the hikes and the picnics. Most of all, I remembered how 63____ we were together, even after twenty years. How many people can say that? I looked around my home in a new 64____. Our refrigerator was too small for a family of six, but it was usually filled 65____ delicious food. Our kitchen was small and we had no big TV, but we’re happy! And that’s enough! 51. A. entertainment B. tradition C. control D. management 52. A. carefully B. simply C. beautifully D. hopefully 53. A. peaceful B. healthy C. poor D. normal 54. A. curious B. powerful C. embarrassed D. sweet 55. A. cleared B. set C. laid D. turned 56. A. forgot B. own C. sell D. save 57. A. until B. after C. before D. as 58. A. look after B. work on C. care about D. give up 59. A. decide B. fail C. check D. improve 60. A. job B. marriage C. health D. dream 61. A. thought B. cried C. froze D. fought 62. A. touched B. chose C. exchanged D. recalled 63. A. cheerful B. lucky C. thankful D.special 64. A. city B. suggestion C. environment D. way 65. A. of B. with C. in D. for 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Wan Haibo, a 43-year-old deliveryman (快递员) in Tianjin, 66____( honor) as a National Model Worker (全国劳动模范) in 2025. After receiving the honor, Wan said, “I feel very excited and proud.” Born in the countryside in Handan, Hebei, Wan went to Tianjin in 2018 and became 67____ deliveryman. “There’s no easy way to success. Every package (包裹) means responsibility and trust, so it’s necessary to send it in time,” he said. “I thought about stopping, 68____ finally got through all the difficulties.” Wan is responsible 69____ a large community. He sends about 500 packages a day, but it can increase to even 1,000 daily during online shopping festivals. He 70____ (usual) starts work around 6 am and finishes work around 8 pm—that can last to midnight during busy 71____ (season). In the past seven years, he 72____ (send) over 720,000 packages without any mistake. When facing terrible weather and possible delays (延迟), he will call customers right away to explain. Wan is a warm-hearted person who shows special care for older or disabled people. He always helps them buy medicine and take away 73____ (they) rubbish during deliveries. Since April 2022, he has volunteered to check and report safety risks in his community. “I’m satisfied that we deliverymen get 74._________(much) social respect now,” Wan said. “I’ll keep working hard and encourage people around me 75____ (help) others.”  第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片, 用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: Was your mother cooking when you were reading B: No, ________________________________________ 77. A: ____________________________________ B:Yes, it is really educational. 78. A:How long is the Yangtze River? B: __________________________________. 79. A: ______________________________ B: It was built in Sui Dynasty. 80. A:Are you supposed to bow when you meet people in China? B: No,____________________________________ 第二节作文（满分25分） 81.生活在现代化社会的我们感受到了科技发展日新月异，尤其是 DeepSeek 的出现使人工智能AI（artificial intelligence）一度成为热门话题，同时也引发了人们对于人工智能取代人类的担忧。请根据以下要求写一篇100词左右的英语短文。 要求: 1. 告诉人们不必过于担心人工智能的发展； 2. 列举人工智能发展带来的好处（至少两点），并举例说明； 3. 谈谈你对未来人工智能发展的期待. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ / 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。IT isn't polite to talk loudly. Listen to the next . question, when was he invented? Listen to the next question. sad movie is make me cry. Listen to the next question. when was the TV invented? Listen to the next question. IT can't be a dog. Listen to the next question. Lisa, do you learn english by working with friends or watching videos? neither. I keep reading english books. IT really helps. Lisa, do you learn english by working with friends or watching videos? neither. I keep reading english books. IT really helps. Listen to the next question. Helen, did you go shopping with your mother yesterday? Yes, my mother bought me a . sweater. Helen, did you go shopping with your mother . yesterday? Yes, my mother bought me a sweater. Listen to the next question. How do you get to school, john? Well, I usually walk or ride my bike, but I took the bus yesterday. How do you get to school, john? Well. I usually walk or ride my bike, but I took the bus yesterday. Listen to the next . question. Is this your schoolbag, tom? No, IT isn't. It's my sisters. Is this your schoolbag. tom? No, IT isn't. It's my sisters. Listen to the next question. What do you do on weekends? Sally. I usually read history books. How about you, tony? I often play soccer with my best friends. What do you do on weekends? Sally. I usually read history books. How about you? tony? I often play soccer with my . best friends. Listen to the next question then. Where would you like to visit . on vacation? I'd love to go to france. Don't you think? Francis, to touristy? Yes, but I want to see the museums. Are you going there with your father? No, i'm going with my brother jack. How are you going there? We'll take a train. Why won't you go by air? Well, jack is afraid of flying in an airplane. How long are you staying there . for about two weeks? How about you, amy? Where are you going on vacation? I'm going hawaii. Hawaii, why are you going there? Because I want to go somewhere. Then where would you like to visit . on vacation? I'd love to go to france. Don't you think france is . to touristy? Yes, but I want to see the museums. Are you going there with your father? No, i'm going with my brother jack. How are you going there? We'll take a train. Why won't you go by air? Well. jack is afraid of flying in an airplane. How long are you staying there . for about two weeks? How about you, amy? Where are you going on vacation? I'm going to hawaii. hawaii. Why are you going there? Because I want to go . somewhere warm. Listen to the next question. Hi, David. Is half a year since you caught me last time. I'm in london now. I'm studying at the canada school of english. My classmates are from all over the world. The teacher is kid, and the classes are very interesting. Every day after class, I go into the center of london. Haven't been to some places of interest. I visited the british museum the day before yesterday. IT was fun. I went shopping yesterday and bought some clothes. I bought three t shirts because they were very cheap and looked really nice. I only paid a two zero for them. right? I must go now. I've got to the library to borrow a book called while the country. My teacher told me to do more reading practice. Talk to you soon. Hi David. It's been half a year since you caught me last time. I'm in london now. I'm studying at the common school of english. My classmates are from all over the world. The teacher is kid, and the classes are very interesting. Every day after class, I go into the center of london. I've been to some places of interest. I visited the british museum the day before yesterday. IT was fun. I went shopping yesterday and bought some clothes. I bought three t shirts because they were very cheap and looked really nice. I only paid two zero for the right. I must go now. I've got to the library to borrow a book called where the country my teacher told me to do more reading practice. Talk to you soon. 听力部分到此结束。