山东省烟台市2025-2026学年高一上学期期中学业水平诊断英语试题

2025—2026学年度第一学期期中高一英语写作评分标准 2025—2026 学年度第一学期期中学业水平诊断 高一英语写作评分标准 第一节（满分 20 分） 假定你是李华，外教 Mary 想了解你班入学后的英语学习状况，请给 Mary 写一封邮件，内容包括： (1) 你的进步； (2) 你的困难与建议。 参考范文 Dear Mary, I’m glad to share my progress in English since entering the class. Earlier, I struggled with short passages, but now I can read longer English stories. What’s more, I used to be too shy to speak English. However, I dare to answer your questions in class now. But I still have some problems. First, I find it hard to catch key points when you speak too fast in class even if I focus fully. Also, I have much difficulty with my oral English. Would you please give us more guidance on figuring out the general idea of a passage and speak a little slower in our English class? And we’d appreciate it if you could organize more fun activities like English games or role-plays to practice our oral English. Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 一、评分原则 1. 本题总分为 20 分，按六个档次进行评分。 2. 评卷时，首先根据文章要点的涵盖度和语言表达水平初步确定其是否达到及格线（12 分），然后以该档次的语言和衔接要求来衡量或调整档次，最后给分。 3. 评分时还应注意： 1）要点：根据考生写对的有效要点量进行评分，大部分要点表达正确，一般在及格线（12 分）以上；要点可以用不同的表达方式。 2）内容：可以适当发挥，但要紧扣主题。 3）时态：时态错误，档内酌情扣分。 4）词数：词数太少酌情扣分，词数多了不扣分。 5）拼写、标点：根据错误多少或其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。 6）书写：书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 二、要点赋分 1. 你的进步：7 分 2. 你的困难与建议：13 分 三、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第二节（满分 20 分） 参考范文 On the contest day, Jenny felt nervous at first on the stage. But the thought of her parents’ encouragement and guidance from AI calmed her down. Her sweet voice, now steady and firm, echoed through the hall. The audience gave her warm applause for her passionate and deeply persuasive speech. Eventually she finished in second place, which filled her with a sense of achievement. From this experience, Jenny came to realize that bravely trying new tools like AI can open up new possibilities. Besides, she learned that real self-improvement comes from challenging herself and learning new skills. The contest impressed her so deeply that it always inspired her to fight for her dream. 评分标准 一、评分原则 1. 分值及档次：本题总分为 20 分，按五个档次进行评分。 2. 打分依据：先根据整体情况对文章进行定档，然后依据该档次的相应要求来确定或调节档次，最后打分。打分主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考虑： 1）创造情节的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度； 2）语言表达的准确性、恰当性和多样性； 3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 （注意：先看故事情节、再看衔接、语言表达、语言错误、书写等） （不能以孤立的亮点词句作为采分点，不得按点给分。） 3. 其它注意事项： 1）词数少于 60 的，从总分中扣去 2 分； 2）小错：单词拼写、冠词、介词、大小写、标点符号等错误。 （偶尔的小错可忽略不计，但小错较多，应视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分） 大错：时态、语态、主谓一致、非谓语动词、句式等（影响所属档次）。 时态全错扣 3 分（如果语言较好，可在本档内酌情扣分）。 时态部分错误，根据错的程度酌情扣分。 3）只要有与原文有关而非完全抄袭原文的句子，就不能判 0 分。 4）书写清晰可见，能够辨认出即可；书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 二、续写内容解析 这是一篇故事类续写。从前文可知，Jenny 因为害怕当众演讲，对于是否参加即将举办的学校演讲比赛犹豫不决。Mr. Hill 鼓励大家借助 AI 工具提升演讲技能，Jenny 由此受到启发决定报名参赛。她的决定得到了父母的支持。在 AI 的帮助下，Jenny 通过反复练习，其演讲能力得到日渐提升。根据续写段落首句“On the contest day, Jenny felt nervous at first on the stage.”，可推断续写段落应接着描写 Jenny 如何调整自己的情绪、如何顺利完成比赛、比赛的结果以及她的比赛感悟等。本段可侧重心理、动作和情感描写等。 注意：考生可以有多种不同角度的描写，情节合理即可，但主题思想一定要体现克服恐惧与自我挑战、个人成长与进步等积极正确的价值观导向。 3、 各档次的给分范围和要求： 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025—2026 学年度第一学期期中学业水平诊断 高一英语参考答案 第一部分 听力（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分） 1—5 BACAC 6—10 CACBB 11—15 CBABB 16—20 CBACA 第二部分 阅读（共 20 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 50 分） 21—25 DABAC 26—30 CDDCA 31—35 DABBC 36—40 FCEGB 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 41—45 ABADD 46—50 DCBAB 51—55 ACDCB 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 56. sharpens 57. strength 58. were sent 59. an 60. amazing 61. to 62. To train 63. its 64. dramatic 65. that/which 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节（满分 20 分）（One possible version） Dear Mary, I’m glad to share my progress in English since entering the class. Earlier, I struggled with short passages, but now I can read longer English stories. What’s more, I used to be too shy to speak English. However, I dare to answer your questions in class now. But I still have some problems. First, I find it hard to catch key points when you speak too fast in class even if I focus fully. Also, I have much difficulty with my oral English. Would you please give us more guidance on figuring out the general idea of a passage and speak a little slower in our English class? And we’d appreciate it if you could organize more fun activities like English games or role-plays to practice our oral English. Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分 20 分）（One possible version） On the contest day, Jenny felt nervous at first on the stage. But the thought of her parents’ encouragement and guidance from AI calmed her down. Her sweet voice, now steady and firm, echoed through the hall. The audience gave her warm applause for her passionate and deeply persuasive speech. Eventually she finished in second place, which filled her with a sense of achievement. From this experience, Jenny came to realize that bravely trying new tools like AI can open up new possibilities. Besides, she learned that real self-improvement comes from challenging herself and learning new skills. The contest impressed her so deeply that it always inspired her to fight for her dream. 附：高一听力录音文稿 Text 1 W: Sam, would you like to come to my party this evening? M: I wish I could, but I’m flying to Guangzhou on business tonight. I have several meetings to attend there over the next week. Text 2 M: What is the quickest way to get to the science museum from here? W: You should use the subway. Take the red line to Central Station, and then change to the blue line to the museum stop. M: That’s great. Thank you for your help. Text 3 M: I’m so glad I took up running again! It makes me feel happy. I love getting fitter! W: I know! And my favourite thing is getting out earlier in the morning. Text 4 M: Mary, can you take the dog for a walk so that I can clean the house? W: Of course. I’m just finishing my homework. It won’t be more than 10 minutes. Text 5 M: I just wanted to call and say good luck with the interview. W: Thanks. It’s 2:00 p.m. now, so I still have an hour to prepare. M: You’ll do fine. I believe in you. Text 6 M: I was thinking about inviting some people from work over for dinner one evening. What do you think? W: Sure. Your office friends are a nice enough group. How about next Saturday? M: That might not be enough notice. We’ll probably need to check out dates next month. W: Hmm…OK, next month. How about June 14th? M: Perfect! That’s just after we finish our team project. We can treat it as a celebration! W: Great. We can start planning the food soon! Text 7 M: Hi, Jane. How was school today? W: It was terrible, Dad. We had a math test and I only managed to finish half the questions before the teacher said the time was up. M: How many questions were there? W: There were 30 questions, and we had an hour to do it, but I spent so much time on the first few questions that I had to rush the rest. M: Well, your mom is good at math. She can help you build your confidence to answer questions quicker. W: That’s a good idea. I’ll speak to her now. Text 8 M: How do you feel now that you have got the grades you need to go to university? W: I think I’m still in shock. I can’t quite believe it. M: I knew you could do it. You’ve spent all year studying and never going out. W: Even though I missed out on some events, this feels worth it. M: I know what you mean. W: I’m the first person in my family that will go to university. M: We should go out to celebrate. It’s going to be such a lovely day. We should have a picnic in the park and enjoy the weather. W: Great idea. Shall we invite some of our friends? M: Yes. I’ll send them a text message. Text 9 W: Hi, Matt. I’m just calling to let you know about a basketball team I’m setting up. I remember you played in college. M: Great to hear from you, Tess. I haven’t seen you since graduation. Yes, I used to love basketball. Actually, it’s good timing. I’m looking for a team to play with! W: Really? That’s wonderful! We’re going to train at the sports field located on Denham Street, on Mondays from 6:30 p.m. to 8:30 p.m. M: I’ll be there. Mondays are a good day for me, as I don’t work late. W: Perfect! If you know any other players who are interested, let them know. M: Sure. Do you remember my brother Edward? He might be interested. I’ll call him and let him know the time and place. W: I do remember Ed! It would be good to see him again. M: One thing, is this a mixed team for men and women? My best friend is also a great basketball player. Could I ask her to join in? W: Oh, yes. I’m playing too. Text 10 Thank you all for coming to our office this evening to find out about the new environmentally friendly housing that we’re building. You’re here because you’re interested in buying one of the houses, and doing your bit for a greener, safer and better future for the planet. We’re really excited for you to find out more. If you’ve already decided which house you are interested in, then please put up your hand, so I can see how many people are already at that point. I can see that actually all of you here tonight have made that decision already, so I’ll move straight on to the features about these houses. Lower bills, bigger gardens and environmentally friendly buildings mean that your new homes will be warm, comfortable and easy to live in! The group of houses in this area will be next to their own green spaces, and we encourage neighbours to grow vegetables and flowers. We want to help build better futures for everyone! 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025—2026 学年度第一学期期中学业水平诊断 高一英语 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，只交答题卡。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is Sam going to do tonight? A. Attend a party. B. Catch a flight. C. Go to a meeting. 2. Which subway line will the man get on first? A. The red line. B. The blue line. C. The central line. 3. What does the woman love most about running? A. Getting fit. B. Feeling happy. C. Being out early. 4. What does the man ask the woman to do? A. Walk the dog. B. Clean the house. C. Finish her homework. 5. When will the woman have the interview? A. At 1:00 p.m. B. At 2:00 p.m. C. At 3:00 p.m. 第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the man want to do? A. Start a team project. B. Plan an evening out. C. Hold a dinner party. 7. What will the speakers start planning soon? A. What they will eat. B. Who they will invite. C. Where they will celebrate. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. How does Jane probably feel? A. Doubtful. B. Curious. C. Unhappy. 9. How much time did Jane have to finish the test? A. 30 minutes. B. 60 minutes. C. 90 minutes. 10. What will Jane do next? A. Check her watch. B. Talk to her mother. C. Finish her math homework. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. How does the woman feel about her exam results? A. Disappointed. B. Ashamed. C. Shocked. 12. What does the man suggest they do? A. Have a gathering. B. Go for a picnic. C. Run in the park. 13. What will the man do next? A. Text his friends. B. Meet his parents. C. Apply to a university. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. How long will the training last each week? A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. Three hours. 15. What will the man probably do on Monday evening? A. Work late. B. Practice basketball. C. Hang out with his friends. 16. Who can play in the basketball team? A. Men only. B. Women only. C. Both men and women. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the main topic of the talk? A. The future of the planet. B. The introduction to new houses. C. The ways to protect the environment. 18. Where is the talk being given? A. In an office. B. In a garden. C. On a farm. 19. Why does the speaker ask the listeners to raise their hands? A. To learn about their questions. B. To count the number of people present. C. To see how many people have made up their minds. 20. What are the neighbours encouraged to do? A. Plant vegetables. B. Pick flowers. C. Relax in the garden. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Australia’s road trips, with various landscapes, top many visitors’ wish lists. We offer 4 great trip plans with local-insights to help organize your journey. 21. What do the Tasmania Road Trip and the South Australia Road Trip have in common? A. They feature sea sports. B. They cover the same travel distance. C. They last more than 8 days. D. They offer food-related experiences. 22. When is the best time to enjoy the Victoria Road Trip? A. March. B. August. C. October. D. December. 23. What can a tourist do during the Uluru Self-Drive Tour? A. Take a steam train ride. B. Admire stars shining overhead. C. Pan for gold in the desert. D. Visit a winery and do wine tasting. B After high school, Maggie Doyne’s life took a meaningful turn. During a trip to Nepal, she met a girl whose life was destroyed by years of war. Deeply touched, she decided to stay and help kids like the girl. Her journey started small. In 2006, Maggie Doyne used the $5,000 she had made by working as a babysitter to buy an acre of land in Nepal, on which she built the Kopila Valley Children’s Home. Later, to support and expand her charitable work, Doyne founded BlinkNow Foundation. Her human-focus work soon became a global model for fighting poverty and driving development. 2015 brought both honor and bitterness to Doyne. She won that year’s CNN Hero of the Year for caring for and educating at-risk Nepali children, but soon her beloved son died in an accident. “The following years were about putting pieces back together and pulling through as a family,” she later said. Afterwards, Doyne found hope again. At a Los Angeles speaking meeting, she met Jeremy Power, a filmmaker who shared a passion for humanitarian causes and storytelling. They became partners both professionally and personally. Now married, they raise their biological kids in Nepal with the 93 other children. “It’s been a chapter of partnership and building this beautiful family,” Doyne said. Doyne’s Kopila Valley School has grown into a top-facility campus with modern tech, various classes, onsite daycare and a “Futures” program, which helps students in their readiness for college, professional training or careers. Her Kopila Valley Children’s Home is devoted to offering all-round services that address poverty at its roots (根源). “We’ve raised a generation of children who are now making a difference in the world,” she said. This year, Jeremy directed and filmed the documentary (纪录片) *Between the Mountain and the Sky* about Doyne, which shows the real, painful parts of her work — not just her “hero” side. “Undoubtedly, it lifts the curtain on what lies behind heroism,” she said. “By showing that imperfection, it’s inspired people in a way I never imagined.” 24. Where did the money to start Maggie’s first job in Nepal come from? A. Her childcare pay. B. Prize money from CNN. C. Local organizations’ support. D. Pocket money from her family. 25. What can we know about 2015 for Maggie Doyne? A. It marked a big career turning point. B. It was packed with positive surprises. C. It was an unusual and eventful year. D. It saw her quickly recover from sadness. 26. What does the “Futures” program focus on? A. Holding after-school activities. B. Solving the issue of student poverty. C. Preparing students for future development. D. Teaching students subject-based skills. 27. What is the main idea of the text? A. Maggie Doyne’s family story in Nepal. B. The painful choices of Maggie Doyne. C. The advancement of BlinkNow Foundation. D. Maggie Doyne’s humanitarian work in Nepal. C Glow-in-the-dark plants bright enough to light up streets at night may sound like something from fantasy, but American scientists have already made plants that send out a greenish glow (微光). A team of Chinese researchers led by biologist Shuting Liu has just gone even further, creating the first brightest-ever glowing plants that can give off light of many colors. “Picture the world in the movie *Avatar*, where glowing plants light up an entire ecosystem,” Liu said. “We want to turn that into reality. Imagine glowing plants replacing streetlights!” Her team injected (注射) the leaves of the plant “Mebina” with strontium aluminate, a material often used in glow-in-the-dark toys that absorbs light and gradually sends it out over time. Mebina produced a strong light and then weakened for up to two hours — in different colors, depending on the injection. Once injected and placed under direct sunlight for minutes, the plant continued to glow for up to two hours. “While the brightness of the afterglow gradually weakened during that period, plants can be recharged repeatedly with sunlight,” Liu said. “It shows that glowing plants could be sustainable (可持续的) and effective lighting systems, harvesting sunlight during the day and giving off light at night. However, other scientists doubt about the practicality. “It’s out of the reach of current technology, and it might be more than what plants can bear,” John Carr, a British biochemist who was not involved in the study, tells CNN. “Because of the limited amount of energy these plants can give off, I don’t really see them as streetlights anytime soon.” Liu said truthfully, “The plants are still far from providing functional light, as their light remains too weak for practical lighting applications. Additionally, the safety assessment (评估) is still ongoing. The plants currently can primarily serve as decorative night lights.” But Liu added, “Looking ahead, if we can greatly increase brightness and make the light last longer, and once safety is proven, we’re sure to see gardens or public spaces being softly lit by glowing plants at night.” 28. What is the Chinese researchers’ breakthrough in the plant-related study? A. Producing ever-lasting plants. B. Growing plants that glow green. C. Using shining plants as streetlights. D. Making brightest multicolored glowing plants. 29. What happens to Mebina when injected with strontium aluminate? A. It stops growing. B. It falls ill easily. C. It shines for a while. D. It glows endlessly. 30. About what did Carr express doubt regarding the new creation? A. Its actual use. B. Its testing approaches. C. Its operating costs. D. Its environmental impacts. 31. Which of the following best describes Shuting Liu from the last paragraph? A. Curious. B. Caring. C. Humorous. D. Determined. D More than 1.2 billion smartphones are produced annually across the world, with electronic device (设备) production consuming valuable natural resources and giving off a significant amount of CO\(_2\) into the atmosphere. Meanwhile, devices are aging faster than ever and often end up in landfills. Though changing consumer behavior to avoid unnecessary replacement of older electronic devices is the most sustainable solution, it is easier said than done, as rapid tech development eliminates older devices in no time. Therefore, other solutions are very much needed, such as giving them an entirely new purpose. Huber and other researchers from the University of Tartu’s Institute of Computer Science demonstrated a groundbreaking novel approach: turning outdated smartphones into micro data (数据) centers, the building of which is inexpensive, around 8 euros per device. These centers can be widely used. In city settings, they can collect real-time passenger data at bus stops to improve public transport, or monitor air quality and noise levels to build more livable communities. The researchers made changes to the phones by removing batteries (电池) and replacing them with other power sources to reduce the risk of chemicals for the environment. Then, four phones were connected together, fitted with 3D-printed holders and turned into a working facility ready to be reused, making sustainable practices for old electronics possible. It was successfully tested underwater, helping with sea life observation by counting species — doing away with the need to bring videos to the surface for analysis (分析), as the process was done underwater. The team’s findings show outdated technology doesn’t have to end up as waste. “With minimal resources, these devices can gain new uses, driving eco-friendly and sustainable digital solutions. Sustainability isn’t just about protecting the future — it’s about reimagining the present, where yesterday’s devices become tomorrow’s opportunities,” notes Huber. 32. What situation does the author show in paragraph 1? A. Electronics cause pollution and waste. B. Electronics’ quality is dropping. C. Consumers like recycling their phones. D. Smartphones are popular with users. 33. What does the underlined word “eliminates” mean in paragraph 2? A. Speeds up. B. Knocks out. C. Takes advantage of. D. Catches up with. 34. How does the author present the new applications of old smartphones? A. By providing data. B. By listing examples. C. By making comparisons. D. By gathering users’ feedbacks. 35. What does Huber suggest doing about the outdated electronics? A. Using them as toys. B. Taking them apart. C. Repurposing them. D. Leaving them as they are. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 While it may seem like there’s nothing you can do about stress in your life, there are healthy steps you can take to destress and regain control. First, think about the ways you currently deal with stress. ____36____ Are they healthy or unhealthy? Many of us deal with stress in unhealthy ways that make us feel better for a short time but worsen the problem over time. Replace these ways with healthy ones that work in the long run. ____37____ You can’t prevent or change stressors such as the death of a loved one or a serious illness. In such cases, the best way to manage stress is to accept things as they are. Acceptance may be difficult, but in the long term, it’s easier than fighting a situation you can’t change. When you’re stressed, the last thing you probably feel like doing is getting up and exercising. ____38____ Exercise produces endorphins (内啡肽) that make you feel good and also serves as a valuable distraction from your daily worries. There is nothing more calming than spending quality time with another human being who makes you feel safe and understood. Actually, face-to-face interaction starts a chain of hormones that works against the body’s protective “fight-or-flight” reaction. ____39____ In addition to a hands-on approach and a positive attitude, you can reduce stress by setting aside “me” time. ____40____ Taking care of your own needs is a necessity. If you regularly make time for fun and relaxation, you’ll be in a better place to handle life’s stressors. A. Feeling discouraged again? B. Stop being tied up in your daily tasks. C. Some sources of stress are unavoidable. D. Hold on to your belief and go all out for it. E. But physical activity is a huge stress reducer. F. Your stress journal can help you recognize them. G. Make it a point to connect in person with family and friends. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 On October 10, 2025, Andrew Nixon, a firefighter from Louisiana, was driving home after a wedding when there came a deafening “bang” not far ahead. He ____41____ something had gone wrong on the highway. As he ____42____, he noticed a car had just crashed into an 18-wheeler, and its tires were quickly catching fire. Realizing someone was stuck inside, Nixon ____43____ immediately and ran to the ____44____ car. He called out to ask if the woman was okay, but she made no ____45____. Obviously, the serious traffic ____46____ had left her senseless. Nixon’s ____47____ told him time was running out, so he decisively went to the passenger side, his mind focused only on saving her. As fires grew bigger, Nixon used his ____48____ to hit the car glass, cutting himself deeply, but he didn’t ____49____. Smoke filled the car, and he knew every second counted. He lifted the woman up, pulled her out through the narrow gap of the half-open door and brought her to ____50____ just before the car was fully consumed by fire. It wasn’t long before firefighters arrived, but the car was reduced to ashes. Fire Chief Chris praised Nixon, “His training and ____51____ made him act fast. He was her last ____52____.” The woman was airlifted to hospital and soon came to herself. Despite his aching hands, Nixon said, “It felt good to save somebody.” His ____53____ act reminds us courage doesn’t mean the ____54____ of fear, but that the thought that someone else’s life ____55____ more than your own safety wins out over fear. 41. A. sensed B. agreed C. regretted D. heard 42. A. sought B. approached C. planned D. rose 43. A. pulled over B. got away C. moved around D. set out 44. A. deserted B. speeding C. used D. burning 45. A. apology B. impression C. comment D. reaction 46. A. condition B. control C. rule D. crash 47. A. intelligence B. belief C. experience D. goal 48. A. knee B. hands C. feet D. shoulder 49. A. stop B. struggle C. argue D. ignore 50. A. attention B. safety C. hospital D. life 51. A. responsibility B. honesty C. patience D. pressure 52. A. option B. challenge C. chance D. memory 53. A. confusing B. thoughtless C. unique D. heroic 54. A. source B. presence C. absence D. effect 55. A. acquires B. matters C. prefers D. measures 第二节 （共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 At the center of Ilala Mchikichini, a busy neighborhood in Tanzania, 9-year-old Aisha Juma, a fourth-grader at Ilala Boma School, turns hula hoops (圈) skillfully. “I like acrobatics (杂技) because it makes me healthy, ____56____ (sharpen) my mind and raises my confidence,” she says. Since beginning her training two years ago, Aisha has built ____57____ (strong) and got better results in school. Her story is the latest chapter in a tradition which began nearly sixty years ago, when 20 young Tanzanians ____58____ (send) to China to study acrobatics — ____59____ important event in the history of Sino-Tanzanian cultural exchange. The program took shape after a Chinese acrobatic troupe (演出团) put on an ____60____ (amaze) performance in Tanzania that impressed national leaders and inspired the idea of sending young talents for formal training in China. Nyota and 19 other teenagers, arrived in Wuhan in 1965. Despite the challenges, they trained diligently at the Wuhan Acrobatic Institute. Thanks ____61____ their hard work, they had a historic meeting in 1968 with Chairman Mao, during a visit by Tanzania’s founding President Julius Nyerere. The group returned home in 1969. ____62____ (train) more excellent acrobatics talents, they set up the National Acrobatics Troupe, the first of ____63____ (it) kind in Africa. Under government guidance, they toured widely within Tanzania and abroad, performing in Kenya, Uganda, Zambia and Malawi. Nyota, one of the teammates, believes the Tanzania-China bond remains strong. “Comparing the China we visited with the China of today shows a ____64____ (drama) change,” he says. “They have progressed impressively.” From the icy streets of Wuhan to the sunlit training grounds of Dar es Salaam, the story of Tanzanian acrobatics continues to unfold, and youngsters like Aisha carry forward a tradition ____65____ bridges countries and generations. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节 （满分 20 分） 假定你是李华，外教 Mary 想了解你班入学后的英语学习状况，请给 Mary 写一封邮件，内容包括： (1) 你的进步； (2) 你的困难与建议。 注意： (1) 写作词数应为 80 个左右； (2) 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Mary, I’m glad to share my progress in English since entering the class. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 （满分 20 分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Jenny was a shy girl with a sweet voice. She had a passion for writing and her compositions were so beautifully written that her teacher Mr. Hill often read them in front of the whole class. One day, Mr. Hill announced a school speech contest (比赛) that was to take place in two weeks and Jenny secretly wanted to take part. But speaking in front of so many people made her heart race, so she was afraid to sign up. The next day, in class, Mr. Hill talked about the contest. “To anyone feeling nervous,” he said loudly enough for everyone to hear. “Don’t let fear hold you back. You can make full use of AI tools — they can listen to your reading, tell you how to change your tone (语气) and speed, and help you develop speaking skills. It’s a great way to learn something new while practicing!” Jenny’s eyes widened with surprise, as she’d never thought of AI as a helper for speeches. Encouraged by Mr. Hill’s words, Jenny signed up for the contest, for she thought to herself, “At least I can have a shot and challenge myself.” After school, Jenny told her parents about Mr. Hill’s advice and her determination to try. They reacted positively. Her dad downloaded a speech-training app, through which Jenny tried reading her draft (稿子). To her great joy, the app not only pointed out where she spoke too softly but suggested proper pausing between lines. Following the tips, she repeated her speech draft section by section until she felt confident. Her mom and dad took turns acting as her audience and she was surprised to find herself improving greatly day by day. 注意： (1) 续写词数应为80个左右； (2) 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 On the contest day, Jenny felt nervous at first on the stage. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $