广西壮族泽桂未来教共体2025-2026学年高二上学期11月期中考试英语试题

“泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测 英语科评分细则 第三部分语言运用 第二节语法填空 (一)答案： 56.used 57.an 58.to find 59.as 60.how 61.functions 62.promoting 63.connection 64.develops 65.original (二)评分细则： 1.本节共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分。 2.严格按照参考答案给分，拼写错误、大小写错误一律不给分。 3.字母辨认不清的不给分。 4.写错的单词只改个别字母的，即使改对也不给分。 第四部分写作 第一节应用文参考范文： Dear fellow students, I'm so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here. When it comes to the scientist I admire the most,there is no doubt that Charles Darwin tops the list.When he was young,Darwin seemed to be a disgrace for leaving school without completing his degree.But in fact,he made his adventure on the Beagle,following what he truly loved.It was in this long journey that he generated the theory of the evolution and finally presented it in his book,On the Origin of Species,which changed ideas about life on Earth forever. Every time I read his book,I'm deeply touched by his devotion and passion in scientific studies.That's what a great scientist always shows me and leads me forward. 应用文评分标准： 1.本节满分15分，按5个档次给分，精确到1分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次要求衡量，确定或调整 档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。多于110、但都是有效表达，不扣分。 4评分时应关注内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性、准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英 美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6.如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。 应用文评分细则： 1.要点齐全（要点应基本准确，有适当拓展）；结构清晰，分三段进行。(10分) (1)点出“最令人钦佩的科学家”；(2分) (2)最钦佩的科学家经历、成就：(5分) (3)你的感受。(3分) 2.运用丰富的词汇、语法结构和高级句式：逻辑合理，衔接得当，有效使用过渡语衔接，行文 流畅。(3分) 3.卷面和书写。(2分) 附各档具体要求： 第五档（1315分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。 一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（10-12分) —完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所 致。 一应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第三档(7-9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 -应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目 的。 第二档(46分) 一未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档(1-3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 0分 一未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判：所写内容均与所要求内容无关 或所写内容无法看清。 第二节读后续写参考范文 2 Ifell hard to the ground.A sharp pain shot through my leg,and I couldn't help crying out. Sam,who was just a few steps behind,heard my cry and ran towards me at once.Seeing me lying there in agony,he stopped without any hesitation."Are you okay?"he asked,his face filled with concern.I was shocked.The boy I had looked down on was helping me instead of taking the chance to win."My leg...it cramps,"I said in a low voice.He then carefully helped me sit up and gently pressed my leg to ease my pain."Let me help you finish the race,"he said with a warm smile. Arm in arn we walked towards the finish line.The crowd fell into silence at first and then broke into loud clapping to cheer us on.Some people even stood up.With each step,I felt a mix of shame and gratitude.Sam,despite his poor eyesight and my earlier rudeness,was helping me with such kindness.When we finally reached the finish line,the entire audience erupted into thunderous applause.At that moment,I realized that true champions aren't just those who win races,but those who show compassion and sportsmanship. 读后续写评分标准： 1.本节满分25分，按5个档次给分，精确到0.5分。 2.评分时，先定档，后微调，再给分。根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次 要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3.原则上，两段写作的词数可以不绝对均等，总词数为150左右。词数少于120的，从总分 中减去1分。多于170，但都是有效表达，不扣分。 4评分时应关注与原文的融洽度（逻辑的严谨性）、内容的合理性、语言（应用词汇和语法结 构)的丰富性、准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、 美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。 注意：以下要点仅供参考，其他的情节只要合情合理，符合逻辑，即可给分。 读后续写评分细则： 方法一：采用整体评分法。（共25分） 评分时根据内容、词汇语法和篇章结构等方面确定档次，再微调，最后给分。 1.续写内容的的质量、完整性以及与原文情景的融洽度； 2.所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性： 3.上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性： 4.卷面整洁、美观。 方法二：踩“要点”评分法。 (一)内容（踩“要点”计分，共16分） 第一段： 要点1：“我”摔倒之后的感受。(2分) 要点2：Sam看到后询问以及“我”的回应。(4分) 要点3：Sam最终的做法。(2分) 第二段： 要点1：观众的反应。(2分) 要点2：“我”的羞愧和对San的重新认识。(4分) 3 要点3：通过“我”的感悟升华主题：运动精神sportsmanship,或者互相帮助。(2分) (二)全文内容连贯、衔接自然。（3分) (三)运用丰富的词汇、语法结构和高级句式。(4分) (四)卷面整洁、美观。(2分) 附：五档次具体要求 第五档(21-25分) 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理： 内容丰富，应用了短文中很多关键词语： 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达； 一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档(1620分) 一与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理； 内容比较丰富，应用了短文中较多关键词语； 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达： 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第三档(11-15分) 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接： 写出了若干有关内容，应用了短文中部分关键词语： 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义的表达： 第二档(6-10分) 与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接： 写出了一些有关内容，应用了短文中少数关键词语： 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇的错误，影响了意义的表达； 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档（1-5分) 一与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差： 产出内容太少，很少使用短文中的关键词语： 语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响 了意义的表达： 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0分 一白卷；内容太少，无法判断：或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 4“泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测 英语 (本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟) 注意事项： 1.答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 2.答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干 净后，再选涂其它答案标号。 3.答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 4.所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选 出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。 每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A.￡19.15. B.￡9.18. C.￡9.15. 答案是C 1.What will the man probably do this afternoon? A.Take an exam. B.Prepare for a test. C.Have some coffee. 2.What is the man doing? A.Walking through a forest. B.Visiting the woman's house. C.Planting flowers in his garden. 3.What is the relationship between the speakers? A.Classmates. B.Fellow workers. C.Family members. 4.Why is Mr.Brown going to Chicago? A.To attend college. B.To be with his son. C.To take a business trip. 5.What are the speakers talking about? A.Alecture. B.Some countries C.Traditional customs. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6.Where will the woman work? A.In the sports section.B.In the shoe department C.In the dress department. 7.What is the woman's main duty? A.Serve the customers. B.Display the dresses. C.Clean the window. 高二英语第1页共10页 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8.What is the man doing? A.Sharing his dream. B.Planning an academic project. C.Introducing his weekend plan. 9.What can the speakers do in the countryside? A.Watch the stars. B.Have a barbecue. C.Feed some animals. 10.Who will the woman invite? A.The man's sister. B.The woman's cousin. C.The woman's sister. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11.How many people will stay at the hotel? A.6. B.11. C.12. 12.When will the man check in? A.In early November. B.In mid-November. C.In late November. 13.What will the man do next? A.Confirm the checkout date. B.Ask about the course sessions. C.Offer his personal information 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14.What did the woman think of the film? A.It was scary. B.It was boring C.It was exciting. 15.What is the man going to do this evening? A.Go bowling. B.Watch a film. C.Visit a friend. 16.Where is the modern art museum? A.Across from the man's flat. B.Next to Riverside Bowling. C.On the north side of the river. 17.When will the man probably leave his flat? A.At 6:45 p.m. B.At 7:00 p.m C.At 7:15 p.m. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18.Where does the speaker come from? A.Australia. B.Thailand. C.China. 19.What does the speaker ask her family to do? A.Learn about sea animals. B.Recycle as much as possible. C.Make suggestions for the project. 20.What will the project focus on next year? A.Cleaning the rivers. B.Cleaning the seaside. C.Making the project international. 高二英语第2页共10页 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A Participating in art competitions is essential for students to gain formal recognition and impress college admission officers.Today,we have a list of art competitions on regional, national,and international scales. EarthX Eco-Art Competition It invites young artists aged 5-22 to create 2-D or 3-D art that illustrates the theme: Protectors for the Planet.The theme can be interpreted in various ways,including individuals taking action towards a more sustainable planet,or highlighting the efforts of environmental leaders working to sustain ecosystems. Deadline:May 15,2025 The Children's Drawing Contest Sponsored by International Certification Organization Network,the contest,whose theme this year is "Passing on Our Precious Earth to The Future",invites children aged 7-15 worldwide to draw the kind of natural environment they would like to live in.48 winners will receive special memorabilia.All entrants will receive a participation prize. Deadline:March 4,2025 Science without Borders Challenge The competition is open to children and young people under the age of 16.We welcome entries from both groups and individuals to create art to promote public awareness of the need to preserve,protect,and restore nature.The theme is "The Sixth Extinction"and you can focus on the protection of endangered species.Acceptable media include paint,pencil,marker, crayon,ink,felt,and oil pastel. Deadline:March 8,2025 21.Which competition will provide a participation prize to every entrant? A.Science without Borders Challenge B.The Children's Drawing Contest. C.EarthX Eco-Art Competition. D.All of the above. 22.On which date can participants send their entries to Science without Borders Challenge? A.March4,2025.B.March10,2025.C.May8,2025.D.May15,2025 23.What do the three competitions have in common? A.They all accept 3-D artworks. B.They are open to the same age group. C.They require participants to write a poetry. D.Their themes are related to environmental protection. 高二英语第3页共10页 B My life experience is anything but ordinary.Raised by my hardworking single mother on Australia's Gold Coast,I was encouraged to pursue higher education.To please her,though my passion was cooking,I enrolled in university while working part-time as a chef.However, my love for the kitchen soon overshadowed my studies,and I dropped out to pursue cooking full-time. Over the next 12 years,I climbed the ranks as a chef,landing head chef positions in North Queensland.But a trip to Bali became a turning point.I realized I desired something beyond conventional existence.Despite guilt,I walked away from my settled life,returning to my mother's home on the Gold Coast. Soon,I fell back into old patterns-working in kitchens and feeling unfulfilled.Then, Instagram changed everything.As an early user,I poured my creativity into the platform, discovering a talent for photography and storytelling.By 2012,my audience grew to 200,000 followers,and tourism boards began reaching out.Recognizing the opportunity,I quit my job to pursue travel photography and social media full-time. The early days were tough.I created a"solo influencer package",offering brands social media content,photography and campaign reports.As a pioneer in Australia's influencer market,my services became highly sought-after.I traveled constantly-50 trips a year at my peak-while expanding into consulting,public speaking,and project management. Now,I run a multifaceted business,combining photography,social media,and travel.I co-founded the Travel Bootcamp,teaching others to build careers in the industry,and launched an online photography course for beginners. My journey has been challenging yet deeply fulfilling.Money is no longer the main driver-instead,I seek meaningful experiences and opportunities to inspire others.What began as a small idea has grown into a life of adventure,creativity,and purpose 24.What does the underlined word mean in Paragraph 1? A.Surpassed. B.Quickened.C.Controlled D.Distracted. 25.Why did the author quit his/her job in North Queensland? A.The author wanted to make a trip to Bali. B.The author didn't enjoy working in the kitchen. C.The author preferred to live a conventional life. D.The author was eager to experience more in life 26.What is the main idea of Paragraph 4? A.How Instagram has changed the author's mindset. B.How the author started a career as a solo influencer. C.How many followers liked to read the author's posts D.How Internet has benefited millions of online users. 27.What message does the text convey? A.Big results require big ambitions. B.Bravery never goes out of fashion. C.Your heart is the birthplace of dreams. D.The future is built on the flow of new ideas. 高二英语第4页共10页 C The increasing frequency of rocket launches is crowding the region of space closest to Earth,known as low-Earth orbit ()-a zone that has tens of thousands of pieces of old hardware left over from past decades.Experts warn that the danger posed by all this space junk is rising sharply.In recent years,debris(H)has fallen on countries across the globe. Aside from falling to Earth,objects may also smash into each other in orbit,generating even more debris.Scientists also point to the potential danger to air transport,as well as the pollution caused by debris burning up in the atmosphere. To settle the growing problem,various strategies have been put forward for cleaning up low-Earth orbit.A Japanese company recently presented a model for a kind of"space garbage truck"that it hopes can get back inactive satellites from orbit.A Swiss company working with the European Space Agency is planning similar retrieval missions.Another solution,in the short term at least,is to boost objects to higher orbits,where they pose less of a danger.In 2022,a Chinese mission boosted an inactive BeiDou navigation satellite into a higher and less crowded zone. A longer-term solution would involve recycling such objects-and some of that recycling can happen in orbit,astrophysicist Jonathan McDowell says."At some point we're going to have to move from disposing()of old satellites in the atmosphere to taking them to recycling stations where their parts get reused for new satellites,and we actually do some of the manufacturing in orbit."Moriba Jah,a space scientist,calls this the "circular space economy",and the European Space Agency suggests it can be achieved by 2050. Another seemingly simple idea is to make satellites more durable(耐用的).“The message that I keep trying to deliver to anybody is:We need fewer satellites that can work longer-that is the big engineering challenge now,and I don't see anyone really taking that up."says astronomer Samantha Lawler. 28.How does the author present the issue in the first paragraph? A.By giving examples. B.By quoting an expert. C.By defining a concept. D.By providing statistics. 29.Why does the author mention the Chinese mission in 2022? A.To prove the difficulty of space junk cleaning. B.To criticize the lack of global action on space junk C.To introduce a successful case of dealing with space junk. D.To emphasize the importance of international cooperation. 30.What does the author try to show by mentioning the "circular space economy"? A.The necessity of recycling reusable parts. B.The importance of manufacturing in orbit. C.The possibility of circular space economy. D.The difficulty in disposing of old satellites. 31.What is Samantha Lawler's suggestion about? A.Potential application of satellites. B.Choice of new launching technology. C.Possible direction for further cooperation. D.Need to improve the duration of satellites 高二英语第5页共10页 D Scientists in Australia have used Artificial Intelligence (AD to help them locate a rare bird called the Plains-wanderer.This new information will help scientists protect the birds, which are endangered. The Plains-wanderer is a small bird that lives in Australia's grasslands,not just any grasslands.Plains-wanderers are picky.There can't be too much grass or too little.For this reason,scientists sometimes call them the "Goldilocks"of animals.The birds were once common in eastern Australia.But that's changed,as grasslands have been turned into farms and cities.The birds'number has fallen by over 85%in recent decades.Scientists believe there are now only 250 to 1,000 of the birds left in the wild. To protect these rare birds,scientists first had to learn where they were.So Zoos Victoria, the group behind the recent effort to locate Plains-wanderers,worked with Queensland University of Technology on a plan to locate the birds.Since Plains-wanderers are hard to spot,the team chose to "listen"for the birds instead.Female Plains-wanderers make an unusual "Ooom"call,and this was the key to locating them. The researchers set up 35 special recording devices called"song meters"in nine different grassy areas where Plains-wanderers could possibly have been.Song meters record all the sounds made in an area over a long period of time.The song meters collected tens of thousands of hours of recordings-far more than humans could analyze.So the researchers fed the recordings to an AI system trained to identify the calls of Plains-wanderers. The AI system discovered Plains-wanderer calls coming from two of the sites.It's the first time in over 30 years that the Plains-wanderer has been found west of Melbourne.Mr. Hartnett says the discovery is“huge”. The new information will help scientists protect the birds.The team plans to work with the land owners to help protect the birds,and the grasslands they depend on.And the researchers are still "listening"-using song meters and AI to locate more of these Goldilocks birds. 32.Why are Plains-wanderers called the"Goldilocks"of animals? A.They only live in eastern Australia. B.They are very rare and hard to find. C.They make an unusual "Ooom"call. D.They are particular about grassland density. 33.What was the main challenge for scientists to protect Plains-wanderers at first? A.Lack of financial support from local farms B.Difficulty in finding the birds'living places. C.The AI system's failure to analyze recordings. D.The loss of all grasslands in western Melbourne. 34.According to the text,how did AI contribute to the project? A.It recorded the birds'calls in the wild. B.It helped collect recordings of the birds'calls. C.It distinguished the birds'calls from other sounds D.It designed and placed the song meters in optimal locations. 高二英语第6页共10页 35.What can be a suitable title for the text? A.The“Goldilocks'”Birds Are Endangered. B.Scientists Use AI to Track Down Endangered Bird. C.New Song Meters Improve Bird Call Identification. D.The Loss of Grasslands Threatens Australian Wildlife. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项 为多余项。 Skateboarding Changes My Life On my 35th birthday,I gave myself my first skateboard.Most friends and family thought I was crazy,but only I knew why. Two years ago,I fell 12 meters down a waterfall and broke my pelvis ()36.I went from a wheelchair to walking stick,then to walking a block,and finally miles.Physical activity grew important to me.So why not make it enjoyable?37,but I've wanted to learn to skateboard since I was a kid.To me,skating was actually very similar to dancing 38.I even avoided going to the skate park during peak hours to hide from others' eyes.I had no idea what I was doing and felt awkward when strangers saw me skate or just try to balance.That fear of being judged often stopped me from just getting out there for practice. One day,my friend Monica and I met members of GRLSWIRL,a skate club.They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it.The club was amazing:even though everyone was better than me,they helped happily and cheered my progress.39. During the practice,falling is a part of skating.For me,a big challenge of skating was overcoming my PTSD(创伤后应激障碍).40_.Gradually,the more I learned from smal falls,the less my PTSD took over.I knew it was OK to drop and get up.Although I started skating for therapy ()I never expected it would open up a new world of excitement and possibilities for me. A.There,I grew more confident B.For a long time,I tried learning skating alone C.Most of my time and energy went into dancing D.Dancing had acted as a comfort of mine for years E.But the accident made it hard for me to get over it F.Soon I was able to skate in front of others without fear G.My journey back to physical health was long and challenging 高二英语第7页共10页 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分) 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳 选项。 My family has a special sugar maple tree in our yard.It's been there for decades, 41 us with cool shade in summer and fiery red leaves each fall.My children played under it daily,and I often drank tea beside it.It was like a silent 42 of our family Three years ago,things began to go 43.The leaves started turning yellow too early, and some small branches dried up.A tree expert said a fungus ()made worse by warm weather,was the 44.We tried treatments,but the tree grew 45 each month. Last autumn,we had to make a 46:cut it down.It felt heartbreaking,like saying goodbye to an old friend.I didn't want its wood to go to waste,so I asked a craftsman named Cory to 47 something from it.Weeks later,Cory brought a box.Inside were lovely wooden bowls,each with unique lines from the tree's growth rings."Every mark here 48 tells a story,"he said-of rainy years,dry seasons,and its long life. Holding the bowls,I 49 the tree wasn't really gone.It had changed form,but its 50 stayed with us.My kids now use the bowls for fruit,and when I touch the wood,I 51 the happy times under its branches.Sadly,other local trees face similar 52 Warm temperatures and new pests harm them.But these bowls give me 53 endings can be new starts. That maple taught me life isn't just about staying the same-it's about 54,and finding beauty in what 55.What once stood tall in our yard may be gone,but its warmth and memories never truly leave. 41.A.helping B.covering C.providing D.mixing 42.A.member B.visitor C.leader D.neighbor 43.A.wild B.wrong C.viral D.bad 44.A.result B.sign C.problem D.reason 45.A.weaker B.taller C.thinner D.greener 46.A.wish B.decision C.rule D.promise 47.A.do B.try C.make D.find 48.A.silently B.loudly C.clearly D.proudly 49.A.forgot B.denied C.doubted D.realized 50.A.duty B.spirit C.courage D.patience 51.A.fear B.recall C.miss D.regret 52.A.changes B.choices C.challenges D.chances 53.A.hope B.pride C.comfort D.fun 54.A.ending B.waiting C.growing D.changing 55.A.seize B.hides C.improves D.remains 高二英语第8页共10页 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In the mountain valleys of Fujian Province,China,thousands of large buildings called tulou lie abandoned ()Once 56(use)for defense and collective housing,these buildings are.57 important part of the region's natural heritage,some of them recognized by UNESCO as World Heritage Sites.However,the rural(communities surrounding these buildings have struggled58(find)new roles and purposes for them. Going beyond the need for conservation(),architect Xu Tiantian set out to reintroduce it into community life.The project suggests the adaptive reuse of abandoned tulou buildings,seeing it 59 a pressing social strategy to address both their current state and the needs of rural communities.Rather than keeping the structures only as historical relics,it explores 60 they can be reused to serve present-day roles. By introducing new cultural and public 61(function),these structures can transform into community centers and pubic cultural spaces,62 (promote)rural economic and social development. The process focuses on the collective memory and emotional 63 (connect)to tulou. Working with local craftsmen and traditional building technologies 64(develop)a strong sense of pride within the community.The project also introduces new materials and building methods that work well with the 65 (origin)styles thus keeping the character of tulou while creating new open spaces for public use. 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假如你是李华，你的英国朋友James邀请你参加一个文化交流活动，主题为“最令 人钦佩的科学家”。请你准备一篇发言稿，内容包括： 1.简介一位你最钦佩的科学家（经历、成就等)； 2.你的感受。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； 2.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear fellow students, I'm so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here 高二英语第9页共10页 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面的材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短 文。 The Real Champion I loved running more than anything,and to me,success meant nothing but winning every race I joined.My classmates called me"Speedy Tom",a nickname I showed off like a prize. One autumn day,my school held a sports meet,and I,who had practiced after school for weeks,signed up for nearly all the running events.A big crowd filled the stands,chatting and larghing because everyone knew the running races were the most exciting part of the day. W en the 400-meter race started,I dashed forward right away,leaving the other boys far behind.As expected,I crossed the finish line first,and the crowd broke into loud applause. My legs felt tired,but pride rushed through me.I felt like I could win anything. The 200-meter race came next,and I ran as fast as my legs could carry me.I took first place again,and this time the cheers were even louder.I jumped up and down happily,pumping my fists in the air.I didn't even look at the other runners who held out their hands for a shake. Winning was all I cared about. Then it was time for the 100-meter race.Most boys gave up before it started,scared off by my two wins.Only one boy stayed:Sam.Sam was born with poor eyesight,but he loved sports and never said no to a chance to compete.The judge walked over to Sam,told him only he and I would race,and asked if he wanted to quit too.But to everyone's surprise,he shook his head.“I want to finish the race,”he said firmly.I sniffed(嗤之以鼻)，saying to myself,. "This is a waste of time.He can barely see and probably won't even find where the finish line is.” The starting gun went off,and both Sam and I ran forward.I quickly sped up,leaving him far behind.With just 30 meters left,I was already imagining the crowd's cheers for my third win.But suddenly,a sharp pain hit my calf.My leg had cramped (up. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式作答。 Paragraph 1 I fell hard to the ground. Paragraph 2 Arm in arm,we walked towards the finish line. 高二英语第10页共10页高二英语科听力部分，该部分分为第一第二两节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。例如现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。你将听到以下内容。excuse me, can you tell me how much the shirt is? Yes, it's nine fifteen. 你将有。5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。衬衫的价格为九磅15便是。所以你选择C项并将其标在试卷上。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。Why don't we have a coffee and take IT easy this afternoon. aren't you for getting that big exam we will have in two days. I want to get well prepared. There are so many plants in your house. Yeah. I used to be a professional gardener, but my aid eventually made IT impossible. So now I have my lovely little garden. It's beautiful. I feel like i'm traveling through a forest. It's friday today. Sofie, what are you going to do this weekend? Tomorrow i'll attend lecture on how to speak in public the day after tomorrow. IT is my eighteenth birthday, and I will take some photos. Would you join me? sure. We can go to the park near our school. mr. Brown, I heard you're going to chicago. Are you going there for a business trip? No, my son is attending college there. He has no time to come back. I'm going there with my wife so we can stay together as a family. Doctor read really packed a lot of information in this lecture. I've taken so many notes yeah . IT was a really interesting in topic, especially the part about traditional customs in different countries. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Jessica, i'll tell you what you'll do . in your job OK. since you are interested in fashion. So we've decided to put you in the dress department. Oh, that's great. Is that next to the sports section? No, it's next to the show department. Your main task is to serve the customers. Will I have any other duties? Good question. We do ask you to help do the window dressing and check the supply of goods . if others are busy. Oh, i'll enjoy that. Jessica. I'll tell you what you'll do . in your job, okay. since you are interested in fashion, so we've decided to put you in the . dress department. Oh, that's great. Is that next to the sports section? No, it's next to the show department. Your main task is to serve the customers. Will I have any other duties? Good question. We do ask you to help do the window dressing and check the supply of goods if others are busy. Oh, i'll enjoy that. 听下面一段对话，回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hello, AManda, what are you going to do this weekend? I don't have any plans. What about you? I'm going to my grandpas farm in the countryside. IT will be very interesting. Would you like to join me? I love to. Who else is going? My sister. what can we do there? We can play games, enjoy the scenery and cooked dinner. The elder is quite fresh, and we can observe the . stars at night. How far is that from the city? About fifteen kilometers. You can invite your cousin Henry to come with us. Okay, i'll get in touch with them. Hello. amenda, what are you going to do this weekend? I don't . have any plans. What about you? I'm going to my grandpas farm in the countryside. IT will be very interesting. Would you like to join me? I love to. Who else is going? My sister? What can we do there? We can play games, enjoy the scenery and cook dinner. The elder is quite fresh, and we can observe the . stars at night. How far is that from the city? About fifteen kilometers. You can invite your cousin Henry to come with us. okay? I'll get in touch with them. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13 3个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Green mountain golf course, how may I help you? Hello, i'd like to make a booking of the hotel and a golf course. When would you like to visit us, sir? I can check if there are available rooms and golfing sessions . we are thinking of any weekend in november. And we're going to be six couples, so we'd prefer six double rooms if that's possible. Well, you're in luxor. The fourth weekend is quite empty right now. We have several open golf sessions, and it's rare that we have so many openings at . the weekend of the fourth weekend sounds suitable for us. Could I book two sessions, the one for saturday and also sunday morning? We might leave around sunday afternoon? Well, yes, of course. Now i'll need some specific details. Well, please tell me your name, address and phone number. Green mountain golf course, how may I help you? Hello, i'd like to make a booking of the hotel and a golf course. When would you like to visit us, sir? I can check if there are available rooms and golfing sessions. We are thinking of any weekend in november, and we're going to be six couples, so we'd prefer six double rooms if that's possible. Um well, you're in lux, sir. The fourth weekend is quite empty right now. We have several open golf sessions, and it's rare that we have so many openings at the weekend. Oh, the fourth weekend sounds suitable for us. Could I book two sessions, the one for saturday and also sunday morning? We might leave around sunday afternoon. Well, yes, of course. Now i'll need some specific details. Well, please tell me your name, address and phone number. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17 4个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Have you seen the new horror film that came out . last friday? Yes, I saw the day that came out. What do you . think I didn't really enjoy IT, the post said. IT was the scariest film of the decade, but I didn't find IT frightening at all, and I didn't find that exciting either. That's a shame. I was going to see you tonight, but i'm having second thoughts. Now. if you like horror films, then you should probably go and see IT. You might have a different opinion. Our opinions on films are usually pretty much the same. Well, if you're not going to the cinema tonight, do you want to join my friends and me for a game of bowling? We need one more player to make . a team of six. Yeah, that sounds like fun. Where are you going? Riverside bowling. It's on the south side of the river. Yeah, I know where IT is. Its next to the modern art museum. That's the one we are meeting there at seven P. M. okay. It's only a fifteen minute walk from my flat. I ll see . you then. Have you seen . the new hall film that came out last friday? Yes, I saw the day I came out. What do you think . I didn't really enjoy IT, the post said. IT was the scariest film of the decade, but I didn't find IT frightening at all. And I didn't find that exciting either. That's a shame. How is going to see IT tonight? But i'm having second thoughts. Now if you like horror films, then you should probably go and see IT. You might have a different opinion. Our opinions on films are usually pretty much the same. Well, if you're not going to the cinema tonight, do you want to join my friends and me for a game of polling? We need one more player to make a team of six. Yeah, that sounds like fun. Where are you going? Riverside bowling. It's on the south side of the river. Yeah, I know where IT is. It's next to the modern art museum. That's the one we are meeting there at seven P. M. okay. It's only a fifteen minute walk from my flat. I will . see you then. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至第23个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。This summer, I took part in a really interesting project called one day cleanup, whose aim is to make our environment clear. I heard about IT from my neighbors who used to take part in. And a year ago, I thought I would be fun and persuaded some of my cousins to join me. Most of the people there were teenagers. Over half of the people there were from australia, thailand and the U. S. A. But there were also people from china like me. We had to pick up all the rubbish that we could find on the sea side. IT has all made me realize how important this is for everyone to be aware of the environment. So I determined to get my family to recycle as much as possible. It'll be worth that if we can make our seas safer for all those beautiful sea animals. So if you'd like to join me in this project next year, the focus will be on clearing rubbish from the rivers. This summer, I took part in a really interesting project called one day cleanup, whose aim is to make our environment clear. I heard about IT from my neighbours who used to take part in. And a year ago I thought I would be fun and persuaded some of my cousins to join me. Most of the people there were teenagers. Over half of the people there were from australia, thailand and the U. S, A, but there were also people from china like me. We had to pick up all the rubbish that we could find on the sea side. IT has all made me realize how important this is for everyone to be aware of the environment. So I determined to get my family to recycle as much as possible. It'll be worth that if we can make our seas safer for all those beautiful sea animals. So if you'd like to join me in this project next year, the focus will be on clearing rubbish from the rivers. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到。答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 “泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测 英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 2．答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。 3．答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 4．所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What will the man probably do this afternoon? A Take an exam. B. Prepare for a test. C. Have some coffee. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is the man doing? A. Walking through a forest. B. Visiting the woman’s house. C. Planting flowers in his garden. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Fellow workers. C. Family members. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Why is Mr. Brown going to Chicago? A. To attend college. B. To be with his son. C. To take a business trip. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What are the speakers talking about? A. A lecture. B. Some countries. C. Traditional customs. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Where will the woman work? A. In the sports section. B. In the shoe department. C. In the dress department. 7. What is the woman’s main duty? A. Serve the customers. B. Display the dresses. C. Clean the window. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. What is the man doing? A. Sharing his dream. B. Planning an academic project. C. Introducing his weekend plan. 9. What can the speakers do in the countryside? A. Watch the stars. B. Have a barbecue. C. Feed some animals. 10. Who will the woman invite? A. The man’s sister. B. The woman’s cousin. C. The woman’s sister. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. How many people will stay at the hotel? A. 6. B. 11. C. 12. 12. When will the man check in? A. In early November. B. In mid-November. C. In late November. 13. What will the man do next? A. Confirm the checkout date. B. Ask about the course sessions. C. Offer his personal information. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. What did the woman think of the film? A. It was scary. B. It was boring. C. It was exciting. 15. What is the man going to do this evening? A. Go bowling. B. Watch a film. C. Visit a friend. 16. Where is the modern art museum? A. Across from the man’s flat. B Next to Riverside Bowling. C. On the north side of the river. 17 When will the man probably leave his flat? A. At 6:45 p.m.. B. At 7:00 p.m.. C. At 7:15 p.m.. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 18. Where does the speaker come from? A. Australia. B. Thailand. C. China. 19. What does the speaker ask her family to do? A. Learn about sea animals. B. Recycle as much as possible. C. Make suggestions for the project. 20. What will the project focus on next year? A. Cleaning the rivers. B. Cleaning the seaside. C. Making the project international. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A Participating in art competitions is essential for students to gain formal recognition and impress college admission officers. Today, we have a list of art competitions on regional, national, and international scales. EarthX Eco-Art Competition It invites young artists aged 5-22 to create 2-D or 3-D art that illustrates the theme: Protectors for the Planet. The theme can be interpreted in various ways, including individuals taking action towards a more sustainable planet, or highlighting the efforts of environmental leaders working to sustain ecosystems. Deadline: May 15, 2025 The Children’s Drawing Contest Sponsored by International Certification Organization Network, the contest, whose theme this year is “Passing on Our Precious Earth to The Future”, invites children aged 7-15 worldwide to draw the kind of natural environment they would like to live in. 48 winners will receive special memorabilia. All entrants will receive a participation prize. Deadline: March 4, 2025 Science without Borders Challenge The competition is open to children and young people under the age of 16. We welcome entries from both groups and individuals to create art to promote public awareness of the need to preserve, protect, and restore nature. The theme is “The Sixth Extinction” and you can focus on the protection of endangered species. Acceptable media include paint, pencil, marker, crayon, ink, felt, and oil pastel. Deadline: March 8, 2025 21. Which competition will provide a participation prize to every entrant? A. Science without Borders Challenge. B. The Children’s Drawing Contest. C. EarthX Eco-Art Competition. D. All of the above. 22. On which date can participants send their entries to Science without Borders Challenge? A. March 4, 2025. B. March 10, 2025. C. May 8, 2025. D. May 15, 2025. 23. What do the three competitions have in common? A. They all accept 3-D artworks. B. They are open to the same age group. C. They require participants to write a poetry. D. Their themes are related to environmental protection. B My life experience is anything but ordinary. Raised by my hardworking single mother on Australia’s Gold Coast, I was encouraged to pursue higher education. To please her, though my passion was cooking, I enrolled in university while working part-time as a chef. However, my love for the kitchen soon overshadowed my studies, and I dropped out to pursue cooking full-time. Over the next 12 years, I climbed the ranks as a chef, landing head chef positions in North Queensland. But a trip to Bali became a turning point. I realized I desired something beyond conventional existence. Despite guilt, I walked away from my settled life, returning to my mother’s home on the Gold Coast. Soon, I fell back into old patterns — working in kitchens and feeling unfulfilled. Then, Instagram changed everything. As an early user, I poured my creativity into the platform, discovering a talent for photography and storytelling. By 2012, my audience grew to 200,000 followers, and tourism boards began reaching out. Recognizing the opportunity, I quit my job to pursue travel photography and social media full-time. The early days were tough. I created a “solo influencer package”, offering brands social media content, photography and campaign reports. As a pioneer in Australia’s influencer market, my services became highly sought-after. I traveled constantly — 50 trips a year at my peak — while expanding into consulting, public speaking, and project management. Now, I run a multifaceted business, combining photography, social media, and travel. I co-founded the Travel Bootcamp, teaching others to build careers in the industry, and launched an online photography course for beginners. My journey has been challenging yet deeply fulfilling. Money is no longer the main driver — instead, I seek meaningful experiences and opportunities to inspire others. What began as a small idea has grown into a life of adventure, creativity, and purpose. 24. What does the underlined word mean in Paragraph 1? A. Surpassed. B. Quickened. C. Controlled. D. Distracted. 25. Why did the author quit his/ her job in North Queensland? A. The author wanted to make a trip to Bali. B. The author didn’t enjoy working in the kitchen. C. The author preferred to live a conventional life. D. The author was eager to experience more in life. 26. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4? A. How Instagram has changed the author’s mindset. B. How the author started a career as a solo influencer. C. How many followers liked to read the author’s posts. D. How Internet has benefited millions of online users. 27. What message does the text convey? A. Big results require big ambitions. B. Bravery never goes out of fashion. C. Your heart is the birthplace of dreams. D. The future is built on the flow of new ideas. C The increasing frequency of rocket launches is crowding the region of space closest to Earth, known as low-Earth orbit (轨道) — a zone that has tens of thousands of pieces of old hardware left over from past decades. Experts warn that the danger posed by all this space junk is rising sharply. In recent years, debris (碎片) has fallen on countries across the globe. Aside from falling to Earth, objects may also smash into each other in orbit, generating even more debris. Scientists also point to the potential danger to air transport, as well as the pollution caused by debris burning up in the atmosphere. To settle the growing problem, various strategies have been put forward for cleaning up low-Earth orbit. A Japanese company recently presented a model for a kind of “space garbage truck” that it hopes can get back inactive satellites from orbit. A Swiss company working with the European Space Agency is planning similar retrieval missions. Another solution, in the short term at least, is to boost objects to higher orbits, where they pose less of a danger. In 2022, a Chinese mission boosted an inactive BeiDou navigation satellite into a higher and less crowded zone. A longer-term solution would involve recycling such objects — and some of that recycling can happen in orbit, astrophysicist Jonathan McDowell says. “At some point we’re going to have to move from disposing (处理) of old satellites in the atmosphere to taking them to recycling stations where their parts get reused for new satellites, and we actually do some of the manufacturing in orbit.” Moriba Jah, a space scientist, calls this the “circular space economy”, and the European Space Agency suggests it can be achieved by 2050. Another seemingly simple idea is to make satellites more durable (耐用的). “The message that I keep trying to deliver to anybody is: We need fewer satellites that can work longer — that is the big engineering challenge now, and I don’t see anyone really taking that up.” says astronomer Samantha Lawler. 28. How does the author present the issue in the first paragraph? A. By giving examples. B. By quoting an expert. C. By defining a concept. D. By providing statistics. 29. Why does the author mention the Chinese mission in 2022? A. To prove the difficulty of space junk cleaning. B. To criticize the lack of global action on space junk. C. To introduce a successful case of dealing with space junk. D. To emphasize the importance of international cooperation. 30. What does the author try to show by mentioning the “circular space economy”? A. The necessity of recycling reusable parts. B. The importance of manufacturing in orbit. C. The possibility of circular space economy. D. The difficulty in disposing of old satellites. 31. What is Samantha Lawler’s suggestion about? A. Potential application of satellites. B. Choice of new launching technology. C. Possible direction for further cooperation. D. Need to improve the duration of satellites. D Scientists in Australia have used Artificial Intelligence (AI) to help them locate a rare bird called the Plains-wanderer. This new information will help scientists protect the birds, which are endangered. The Plains-wanderer is a small bird that lives in Australia’s grasslands, not just any grasslands. Plains-wanderers are picky. There can’t be too much grass or too little. For this reason, scientists sometimes call them the “Goldilocks” of animals. The birds were once common in eastern Australia. But that’s changed, as grasslands have been turned into farms and cities. The birds’ number has fallen by over 85% in recent decades. Scientists believe there are now only 250 to 1,000 of the birds left in the wild. To protect these rare birds, scientists first had to learn where they were. So Zoos Victoria, the group behind the recent effort to locate Plains-wanderers, worked with Queensland University of Technology on a plan to locate the birds. Since Plains-wanderers are hard to spot, the team chose to “listen” for the birds instead. Female Plains-wanderers make an unusual “Ooom” call, and this was the key to locating them. The researchers set up 35 special recording devices called “song meters” in nine different grassy areas where Plains-wanderers could possibly have been. Song meters record all the sounds made in an area over a long period of time. The song meters collected tens of thousands of hours of recordings — far more than humans could analyze. So the researchers fed the recordings to an AI system trained to identify the calls of Plains-wanderers. The AI system discovered Plains-wanderer calls coming from two of the sites. It’s the first time in over 30 years that the Plains-wanderer has been found west of Melbourne. Mr. Hartnett says the discovery is “huge”. The new information will help scientists protect the birds. The team plans to work with the land owners to help protect the birds, and the grasslands they depend on. And the researchers are still “listening” — using song meters and AI to locate more of these Goldilocks birds. 32. Why are Plains-wanderers called the “Goldilocks” of animals? A. They only live in eastern Australia. B. They are very rare and hard to find. C. They make an unusual “Ooom” call. D. They are particular about grassland density. 33. What was the main challenge for scientists to protect Plains-wanderers at first? A. Lack of financial support from local farms. B. Difficulty in finding the birds’ living places. C. The AI system’s failure to analyze recordings. D. The loss of all grasslands in western Melbourne. 34. According to the text, how did AI contribute to the project? A. It recorded the birds’ calls in the wild. B. It helped collect recordings of the birds’ calls. C. It distinguished the birds’ calls from other sounds. D. It designed and placed the song meters in optimal locations. 35. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. The “Goldilocks” Birds Are Endangered. B. Scientists Use AI to Track Down Endangered Birds. C. New Song Meters Improve Bird Call Identification. D. The Loss of Grasslands Threatens Australian Wildlife. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余项。 Skateboarding Changes My Life On my 35th birthday, I gave myself my first skateboard. Most friends and family thought I was crazy, but only I knew why. Two years ago, I fell 12 meters down a waterfall and broke my pelvis. ___36___. I went from a wheelchair to a walking stick, then to walking a block, and finally miles. Physical activity grew important to me. So why not make it enjoyable? ___37___, but I’ve wanted to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. To me, skating was actually very similar to dancing. ___38___. I even avoided going to the skate park during peak hours to hide from others’ eyes. I had no idea what I was doing and felt awkward when strangers saw me skate or just try to balance. That fear of being judged often stopped me from just getting out there for practice. One day, my friend Monica and I met members of GRLSWIRL, a skate club. They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it. The club was amazing: even though everyone was better than me, they helped happily and cheered my progress. ___39___. During the practice, falling is a part of skating. For me, a big challenge of skating was overcoming my PTSD(创伤后应激障碍). ___40___. Gradually, the more I learned from small falls, the less my PTSD took over. I knew it was OK to drop and get up. Although I started skating for therapy, I never expected it would open up a new world of excitement and possibilities for me. A. There, I grew more confident B. For a long time, I tried learning skating alone C. Most of my time and energy went into dancing D. Dancing had acted as a comfort of mine for years E. But the accident made it hard for me to get over it F. Soon I was able to skate in front of others without fear G. My journey back to physical health was long and challenging 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My family has a special sugar maple tree in our yard. It’s been there for decades, ____41____ us with cool shade in summer and fiery red leaves each fall. My children played under it daily, and I often drank tea beside it. It was like a silent ____42____ of our family. Three years ago, things began to go ____43____. The leaves started turning yellow too early, and some small branches dried up. A tree expert said a fungus (真菌) , made worse by warm weather, was the ____44____. We tried treatments, but the tree grew ____45____ each month. Last autumn, we had to make a ____46____: cut it down. It felt heartbreaking, like saying goodbye to an old friend. I didn’t want its wood to go to waste, so I asked a craftsman named Cory to ____47____ something from it. Weeks later, Cory brought a box. Inside were lovely wooden bowls, each with unique lines from the tree’s growth rings. “Every mark here ____48____ tells a story,” he said — of rainy years, dry seasons, and its long life. Holding the bowls, I ____49____ the tree wasn’t really gone. It had changed form, but its ____50____ stayed with us. My kids now use the bowls for fruit, and when I touch the wood, I ____51____ the happy times under its branches. Sadly, other local trees face similar ____52____.Warm temperatures and new pests harm them. But these bowls give me ____53____: endings can be new starts. That maple taught me life isn’t just about staying the same — it’s about ____54____, and finding beauty in what ____55____. What once stood tall in our yard may be gone, but its warmth and memories never truly leave. 41. A. helping B. covering C. providing D. mixing 42. A. member B. visitor C. leader D. neighbor 43. A. wild B. wrong C. viral D. bad 44 A. result B. sign C. problem D. reason 45. A. weaker B. taller C. thinner D. greener 46. A. wish B. decision C. rule D. promise 47. A. do B. try C. make D. find 48. A. silently B. loudly C. clearly D. proudly 49. A. forgot B. denied C. doubted D. realized 50. A. duty B. spirit C. courage D. patience 51. A. fear B. recall C. miss D. regret 52. A. changes B. choices C. challenges D. chances 53. A. hope B. pride C. comfort D. fun 54. A. ending B. waiting C. growing D. changing 55. A. seizes B. hides C. improves D. remains 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In the mountain valleys of Fujian Province, China, thousands of large buildings called tulou lie abandoned (遗弃). Once ____56____(use) for defense and collective housing, these buildings are ____57____ important part of the region’s natural heritage, some of them recognized by UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. However, the rural (农村的) communities surrounding these buildings have struggled ____58____(find) new roles and purposes for them. Going beyond the need for conservation (保护), architect Xu Tiantian set out to reintroduce it into community life. The project suggests the adaptive reuse of abandoned tulou buildings, seeing it ____59____ a pressing social strategy to address both their current state and the needs of rural communities. Rather than keeping the structures only as historical relics, it explores ____60____ they can be reused to serve present-day roles. By introducing new cultural and public ____61____(function), these structures can transform into community centers and public cultural spaces, ____62____(promote) rural economic and social development. The process focuses on the collective memory and emotional ____63____(connect) to tulou. Working with local craftsmen and traditional building technologies ____64____(develop) a strong sense of pride within the community. The project also introduces new materials and building methods that work well with the ____65____(origin) styles thus keeping the character of tulou while creating new open spaces for public use. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 66. 假如你是李华，你的英国朋友James邀请你参加一个文化交流活动，主题为“最令人钦佩的科学家”。请你准备一篇发言稿，内容包括： 1．简介一位你最钦佩的科学家（经历、成就等）； 2．你的感受。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； 2．请在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear fellow students, I’m so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面的材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The Real Champion I loved running more than anything, and to me, success meant nothing but winning every race I joined. My classmates called me “Speedy Tom”, a nickname I showed off like a prize. One autumn day, my school held a sports meet, and I, who had practiced after school for weeks, signed up for nearly all the running events. A big crowd filled the stands, chatting and laughing because everyone knew the running races were the most exciting part of the day. When the 400-meter race started, I dashed forward right away, leaving the other boys far behind. As expected, I crossed the finish line first, and the crowd broke into loud applause. My legs felt tired, but pride rushed through me. I felt like I could win anything. The 200-meter race came next, and I ran as fast as my legs could carry me. I took first place again, and this time the cheers were even louder. I jumped up and down happily, pumping my fists in the air. I didn’t even look at the other runners who held out their hands for a shake. Winning was all I cared about. Then it was time for the 100-meter race. Most boys gave up before it started, scared off by my two wins. Only one boy stayed: Sam. Sam was born with poor eyesight, but he loved sports and never said no to a chance to compete. The judge walked over to Sam, told him only he and I would race, and asked if he wanted to quit too. But to everyone’s surprise, he shook his head. “I want to finish the race,” he said firmly. I sniffed（嗤之以鼻）, saying to myself, “This is a waste of time. He can barely see and probably won’t even find where the finish line is.” The starting gun went off, and both Sam and I ran forward. I quickly sped up, leaving him far behind. With just 30 meters left, I was already imagining the crowd’s cheers for my third win. But suddenly, a sharp pain hit my calf. My leg had cramped（抽筋）up. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150个左右； 2．请按如下格式作答。 Paragraph 1 I fell hard to the ground. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2 Arm in arm, we walked towards the finish line. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ “泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测 英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 2．答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。 3．答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 4．所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. A 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. A 10. B 【11~13题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. C 13. C 【14~17题答案】 【答案】14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 【18~20题答案】 【答案】18. C 19. B 20. A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. D B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. A 29. C 30. C 31. D D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. G 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. E 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. used 57. an 58. to find 59. as 60. how 61. functions 62. promoting 63. connection 64. develops 65. original 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】参考范文： Dear fellow students, I’m so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here. When it comes to the scientist I admire the most, there is no doubt that Charles Darwin tops the list. When he was young, Darwin seemed to be a disgrace for leaving school without completing his degree. But in fact, he made his adventure on the Beagle, following what he truly loved. It was in this long journey that he generated the theory of the evolution and finally presented it in his book, On the Origin of Species, which changed ideas about life on Earth forever. Every time I read his book, I’m deeply touched by his devotion and passion in scientific studies. That’s what a great scientist always shows me and leads me forward. 第二节（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】参考范文： I fell hard to the ground. A sharp pain shot through my leg and I couldn’t help crying out. Sam, who was just a few steps behind, heard my cry and ran towards me at once. Seeing me lying there in agony, he stopped without any hesitation. "Are you okay?" he asked, his face filled with concern. I was shocked. The boy I had looked down on was helping me instead of taking the chance to win. “My leg... it cramps,” I said in a low voice. He then carefully helped me sit up and gently pressed my leg to ease my pain. “Let me help you finish the race,” he said with a warm smile. Arm in arm, we walked towards the finish line. The crowd fell into silence at first and then broke into loud clapping to cheer us on. Some people even stood up. With each step, I felt a mix of shame and gratitude. Sam, despite his poor eyesight and my earlier rudeness, was helping me with such kindness. When we finally reached the finish line, the entire audience erupted into thunderous applause. At that moment, I realized that true champions aren’t just those who win races, but those who show compassion and sportsmanship. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $