安徽省合肥市第四十二中学湖畔分校2024-2025学年八年级下学期期末考试英语试卷

合肥市第四十二中学湖畔分校 2024/2025学年度第二学期2026届八年级期末阶段评价英语试卷 第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1 What does the woman advise Fred to do? A. B. C. 2. What is Tony’s probably? A. B. C. 3. What language is the boy learning? A. French. B. Russian. C. German. 4. Where is John going now? A. To the fruit store. B. To the cinema. C. To the library. 5. What is the girl’s hobby? A. Collecting stamps. B. Taking photos. C. Drawing cartoons. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. How many times has Joe taken the driving test? A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times. 7. What does Emily play in the music group? A. The violin. B. The piano. C. The drums. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. Which part of the body did Sam hurt? A. His arm. B. His knee. C. His back. 9. How long should Sam stay in hospital? A. For a week. B. For ten days. C. For two weeks. 10. What did Peter bring to Sam last Sunday? A. A model car. B. Some candy. C. Some fruit. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 听短文，回答以下各小题。 11. What pictures has Sarah put on her bedroom wall? A. Ones of birds. B. Ones of pandas. C. Ones of bears. 12. Who did Sarah go to the zoo with? A. Her cousin. B. Her mother. C. Her classmate. 13. How was the weather yesterday? A. Hot. B. Cool. C. Cold. 14. How did Sarah feel when she saw rabbits and ducks? A. Happy. B. Surprised. C. Lucky. 15. How many photos of the animals did Sarah take in the zoo? A. About 30. B. About 130. C. About 230. Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 The storytelling competition Place On the third floor of the 16 building Time From 9:30 to 11:00 next Thursday morning Things to know ▶Only 12students can join in the competition. ▶5 teachers from the school will 17 the winners. ▶Tell the story in English in 18 minutes. ▶Tell Mr Brook before this 19 . ▶Winners will get a(n) 20 prize. ▶Remember to dress up for the competition. 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题，满分35分) Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Could you tell me ________ you have learned English? —Sure. I have learned it since five years ago. A. how often B. how long C. when D. how 2. Daniel’s new radio programme is popular and he has millions of ________. A. writers B. readers C. listeners D. speakers 3. Having some hobbies is good, ________ don’t let them get in the way of your study. A. and B. or C. but D. so 4. My teacher told us the earth ________ from the west to the east. A. moves B. moved C. is moving D. has moved 5. Some students ________ AI too much and this may make them lose their skills of being able to do things on their own. A. join in B. search for C. write about D. depend on 6. —Why is Mr. Wu the most popular teacher in our school? —Because he is ________. He always tells funny stories to his students. A. humorous B. handsome C. brave D. patient 7. Everyone may agree that the most important thing in friendship is to ________ each other. A. refuse B. trust C. discover D. treat 8. More and more people want to see the stars and the moon during their holidays. ________, dark sky tourism is increasing. A. As a result B. For example C. For the first time D. From now on 9. —What do you think of the life in Hefei now? —Wonderful! I can ________ believe my eyes when I see the great changes there. A. only B. hardly C. really D. almost 10. —Mum, my watch doesn’t work. Could you buy a new one for me? —________! Let’s go shopping this weekend. A. That’s right B. Good job C. No problem D. Never mind Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A I read lots of books about China before I came here. So when I arrived, I was ____11____ to be living in this great country. It was so different from the UK. The food, the buildings, and everyday life—I couldn’t ____12____ to know more about it. However, I had no confidence to learn Chinese. For me, it was the most ____13____ language in the world. What’s more, I lived in Shanghai, an international city, with many people speaking English as a second language. So, I thought English would be ____14____. But after a year in China, I found many foreigners spoke Chinese. And I felt uncomfortable ____15____ I couldn’t speak any Chinese while so many Chinese people could speak English. To face the problem, I made up my mind to begin my ____16____ journey. Since I started to learn Chinese two years ago, I have made great ____17____. Now, when I speak to Chinese people in Chinese, they almost always understand. Learning to speak Chinese isn’t as difficult as I once thought. The most difficult thing is ____18____ since Chinese people talk at such a speed (速度). But my weekly online spoken Chinese lessons ____19____ this. Learning Chinese helps me know more about the culture of this wonderful country. There is still a long way to go and I will keep ____20____ and improving. I believe that every effort I put in will not be wasted. 11. A. surprised B. excited C. worried D. bored 12. A. wait B. afford C. stand D. expect 13. A. interesting B. valuable C. important D. difficult 14. A. different B. enough C. clear D. enjoyable 15. A. but B. so C. because D. although 16. A. language B. music C. photo D. space 17. A. products B. friends C. progress D. peace 18. A. speaking B. listening C. reading D. writing 19. A. feel like B. pay for C. look at D. help with 20. A. learning B. painting C. counting D. talking B “Ava, please read this paragraph to us,” Miss Margaret said. Ava was ____21____ because she stammered (口吃). She slowly stood up and began reading, “Em... Emma was stand...ing.” Hearing this, some of the students started ____22____ and speaking quietly. Ava felt so sorry. After school, Ava went to the library. She just wanted to stay away from those students and ____23____ reading. However, reading fluently (流利地) was very ____24____ for her. After several tries, she still couldn’t do it well. She was sad. The next day, Aliza, one of Ava’s classmates, offered some help. From then on, she would practise reading with Ava whenever they had time. A few weeks later, Ava began to ____25____ better and she was very happy. At the end of the term, Miss Margaret held a reading test. To everyone’s surprise, Ava read fluently. Miss Margaret said how great Ava was. Aliza felt very ____26____ Ava. Ava said thanks to Aliza for everything she did. She also came to ____27____ that there are always two kinds of people in the world: those who make fun of you and those who help you with your ____28____. The point is that we shouldn’t allow others’ ____29____ to hold us back. Instead, we should use them to push us to ____30____ ourselves. Most importantly, we should also work hard to be the same kind of helpful person for others in need. 21. A. angry B. tired C. excited D. nervous 22. A. laughing B. thinking C. cheering D. learning 23. A. remember B. finish C. practice D. enjoy 24. A. crazy B. difficult C. common D. valuable 25. A. swim B. sing C. write D. read 26. A. sorry for B. proud of C. worried about D. confident about 27. A. understand B. decide C. refuse D. promise 28. A. interests B. lessons C. choices D. problems 29. A. hobbies B. words C. skills D. experiences 30. A. satisfy B. discover C. improve D. check Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Mum, I don’t feel well. B: ___31___ A: I have a stomach ache. B: ___32___ A: I just ate some rice with vegetables. B: Did you drink anything cold? A: No. ___33___ B: Oh, that may be the problem. A: ___34___ B: Drink some hot water, and then you’ll feel better. A: ___35___ B: No. If you feel worse, I will take you to a doctor. A. What should I do? B. What’s the matter, my dear? C. What did you do in PE class? D. Do I need to take some medicine? E. I took some medicine after school. F. What did you eat for lunch at school? G. Oh, I had an ice cream after PE class. 第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题：每小题2分，满分40分) 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Dear Sir or Madam, I hope you’re doing well. I’m a big fan of your company. I’m about to finish school, and I will soon have a university degree (学位) in computer science. I’ve learned a lot about programming and software development. Also, I have lots of programming experience from my past two summer jobs. I know I can put that to good use at your company. I feel certain that my skills and experience match well with the requirements (要求) of your company. I’m really interested in your projects and I believe I can contribute to (有助于) them. I’m excited to bring my skills and ideas to your team and help your company grow. I would love the chance to meet with you and show you what I have got. I’m free at any time, so just let me know when is good for you. Thank you for considering me. I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon. Sincerely, Phil O. Smith 36. What is Phil studying at university? A. Life science. B. Environmental science. C. Space science. D. Computer science. 37. What does the underlined word “that” refer to (指的是)? A. Phil’s future job. B. Phil’s old computer. C. Phil’s work experience. D. Phil’s university degree. 38. Which of the following best describes Phil? A. He’s unsure of himself. B. He’s confident in himself. C. He’s afraid to ask for help. D. He’s easy to get along with. 39. Why did Phil write the email? A. To enter a competition. B. To help the company. C. To look for work. D. To give thanks. B In 1824, people found some huge fossils (化石) in the village of Stonesfield near Oxford, UK. William Buckland, an English scientist, discovered these fossils belonged to (属于) a huge animal, and the animal was not a known living one. Then he gave the animal a name: Megalosaurus, meaning “a great lizard (蜥蜴)”. *①* At the time, Buckland thought the fossils were those of a lizard. *②* He described that the lizard was around 12 metres long and that it walked on four legs and could live both on land and in water. Although Buckland mistook the fossils for those of a lizard, his naming of the animal was very important. Before that, humans found many large animal fossils, but nobody knew what animal they belonged to. Buckland introduced the animal to others as a new organism (生物). It was the beginning of our interest in the large animal. *③* However, the animal didn’t get the name “dinosaur (恐龙)” until the 1840s. Following Buckland’s steps, more scientists began to find and study more large animal fossils. Richard Owen was one of them. He studied the fossils of Megalosaurus found in southern England and two other large animals called Iguanodon and Hylaeosaurus. He found that they had something in common. They weren’t just big lizards. They were something different, and that’s what led him to come up with the name “dinosaur” in 1842. *④* Scientists have found more fossils of different dinosaurs, and technology (科技), has helped us learn more about them. 40. What was the first name of the dinosaur? A. Lizard. B. Megalosaurus. C. Iguanodon. D. Hylaeosaurus. 41. What does Paragraph 3 clearly explain? A. Why the naming of the dinosaur was important. B. How scientists compared different dinosaurs. C. How scientists gave names to dinosaurs. D. Why scientists studied dinosaurs. 42. Where can we put the sentence “As time went by, dinosaur science has grown fast.”? A. ① B. ② C. ③ D. ④ 43. What is the passage mainly about? A. The world of dinosaurs. B. Fossils found in the UK. C. Discovery of dinosaurs. D. Dinosaurs in scientists’ eyes. C Aunt Gertie likes to try new things. Not only does she want to try new things, but she wants me to try them too. When I see her with a wide smile on her face, I know something is about to happen. Pretty soon, Aunt Gertie is saying, “Let’s have an adventure (冒险)!” Our last adventure together was a trip to the Hawaiian Islands. We went snorkelling (带呼吸管潜水) to see the beautiful fish and underwater plants. But the adventure didn’t start until we caught the plane to the islands. We had a lot to learn before we headed there. We took snorkelling classes at the sports centre. We had to learn how to breathe (呼吸) with a snorkel and how to swim wearing a mask (面罩) and fins (脚蹼). We learned safety skills. Next, we went to buy our equipment. We each got a snorkel. One end goes in our mouth and the other end sticks out of the water. We each bought a face mask to keep water out of our eyes and nose. And we got fins to wear on our feet. The fins help us have more power when we kick our feet as we swim. At last, we were ready to go. We put our clothes and equipment into the bags and went to the airport. As soon as we landed, we checked in at the hotel. We changed our clothes and headed for the beach. We couldn’t wait to start our underwater adventure. Aunt Gertie is starting to smile again. What will the next adventure be? 44. What will Aunt Gertie do when the writer sees her wide smile? A. She will ask the writer for help. B. She will give the writer some gifts. C. She will offer the writer some advice. D. She will invite the writer to have an adventure. 45. What does the underlined word “equipment” in Paragraph 4 probably mean? A. 纪念品 B. 设备 C. 急救包 D. 食材 46. What is the right order (顺序) of the following things the writer and Aunt Gertie did? a. They checked in at the hotel. b. They caught the plane to Hawaii. c. They took classes at the sports centre. d. They bought snorkels, masks and fins. A. c→a→d→b B. c→d→b→a C. d→b→a→c D. d→a→b→c 47. What’s the best title for the passage? A. Aunt Gertie, how great! B. Aunt Gertie, thank you! C. Learning with Aunt Gertie D. Adventures with Aunt Gertie D It’s commonly said that flying is safer than riding a bus or train. While this is true, flying still has some risks. One risk is bird strikes (击)—when a plane hits a bird while flying. Bird strikes usually happen when a plane is taking off or landing. In 2022, there were 16,960 animal strikes in the US and most of them were bird strikes. Although most bird strikes do not damage (破坏) planes, some can be very serious. In 2009, US Airways Flight 1549 hit a group of birds after taking off. Both of its engines (引擎) stopped working, and the plane had to land on the Hudson River in New York City. Big birds can cause a lot of damage, but even small birds can break windows. Sadly, bird strikes almost always end up killing the birds. To stop bird strikes, airports use many ways. For example, some use loud sounds to drive birds away, and others remove birds’ food source (来源) and homes by covering grassy areas. However, birds can get used to loud sounds, and covering green land is bad for the environment. Now, airports are trying new ideas. At Salt Lake City Airport, people let pigs eat the eggs of nearby birds. At Southwest Florida Airport, people use dogs to drive birds away. Some airports even use special ways to find birds. With these new ideas, people hope to keep birds away from planes and make flying safer in the future. 48. When do bird strikes usually happen? A. When a plane is flying above clouds. B. When a plane is flying near grassy areas. C. When a plane is taking off or landing. D. When a plane is preparing to take off. 49. Why did the writer write Paragraph 3? A. To explain how bird strikes happen. B. To introduce the dangers of bird strikes. C. To show how airports try to stop bird strikes. D. To tell most bird strikes do not damage planes. 50. What does the underlined word “remove” in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Tidy up B. Search for C. Take away D. Give away 51. How does Salt Lake City Airport stop bird strikes? A. By using dogs to drive birds away. B. By letting pigs eat the eggs of birds. C. By using special ways to find birds. D. By making loud sounds to drive birds away. 52. What’s the best title for the passage? A. The Safety of Flying B. New Ideas at Airports C. The Danger of Birds near Airports D. Bird Strikes and Ways to Stop Them E 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求)。 A poor farmer was working in his field when suddenly he heard an unusual sound. He left his work and ran towards the sound, and then he found a small child in a hole shouting for help. Without thinking twice, he got the child out of the hole safely. The next day a luxurious carriage (豪华马车) came to the house of the farmer. A rich man came down and told the farmer that he was the father of the child. The farmer welcomed the guest, and the man thanked him a lot for saving his son. The man took out a bag of money and wanted to give it to the farmer. But the farmer refused to take anything. At this moment, a little boy came out of the house. “Is this child your son?” the rich man asked. “Yes, he is my son and his name is Felix,” the farmer said. After thinking for a moment, the rich man offered to help the farmer’s son with his education (教育). “I will give him the same education that I give my son,” the rich man said. The farmer agreed. In the following years, Felix was educated in the best schools until he graduated (毕业) from a famous medical school. Later, he became an excellent doctor. Years later, the rich man was seriously ill. Do you know who saved his life? It was Felix. The small good things you do can really make a big difference. 53. How did the farmer help the child in the hole? (不超过10个词) __________________________________________________________________________________ 54. What did the rich man offer to do for the farmer’s son? (不超过10个词) _________________________________________________________________________________ 55. What can we learn from the passage? (不超过15个词) _________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分) Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. Have you read that a________ (文章) about the young presenters? 57. The children often come to visit the old man, so he doesn’t feel ________ (孤独的). 58. Dad offered to drive us to the history museum, but we p________ (更喜爱) to walk. 59. The snowman lost its s________ (形状) as the sun came out. 60. Today, many famous scientists still think Einstein is the s________ (聪明) man in the world. Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题；满分20分) 61. 随着短视频的兴起，越来越多的人丢掉了阅读的习惯，如何在喧嚣的世界中静下心来阅读是现在很多人面临的难题。假如你们班下节英语口语课的主题是“How to make a habit of reading”，请你根据以下要点，用英语写一篇短文为口语课做准备。 要点如下： 1.读有趣的书； 2.每天花一些时间阅读； 3.读完一本书后奖励自己； 4.…… 注意： 1.短文须包含以上所有要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2.文中不得出现真实姓名和地名； 3.词数80~100 (短文的开头和结尾已为你写好在答题卷，不计入总词数)。 参考词汇：reward (v.奖励) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 合肥市第四十二中学湖畔分校 2024/2025学年度第二学期2026届八年级期末阶段评价英语试卷 第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the woman advise Fred to do? A. B. C. 2. What is Tony’s probably? A. B. C. 3. What language is the boy learning? A. French. B. Russian. C. German. 4. Where is John going now? A. To the fruit store. B. To the cinema. C. To the library. 5. What is the girl’s hobby? A. Collecting stamps. B. Taking photos. C. Drawing cartoons. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. How many times has Joe taken the driving test? A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times. 7. What does Emily play in the music group? A. The violin. B. The piano. C. The drums. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. Which part of the body did Sam hurt? A. His arm. B. His knee. C. His back. 9. How long should Sam stay in hospital? A. For a week. B. For ten days. C. For two weeks. 10. What did Peter bring to Sam last Sunday? A. A model car. B. Some candy. C. Some fruit. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 听短文，回答以下各小题。 11. What pictures has Sarah put on her bedroom wall? A. Ones of birds. B. Ones of pandas. C. Ones of bears. 12. Who did Sarah go to the zoo with? A. Her cousin. B. Her mother. C. Her classmate. 13. How was the weather yesterday? A. Hot. B. Cool. C. Cold. 14. How did Sarah feel when she saw rabbits and ducks? A. Happy. B. Surprised. C. Lucky. 15. How many photos of the animals did Sarah take in the zoo? A. About 30. B. About 130. C. About 230. Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 The storytelling competition Place On the third floor of the 16 building Time From 9:30 to 11:00 next Thursday morning Things to know ▶Only 12students can join in the competition. ▶5 teachers from the school will 17 the winners. ▶Tell the story in English in 18 minutes. ▶Tell Mr Brook before this 19 . ▶Winners will get a(n) 20 prize. ▶Remember to dress up for the competition 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题，满分35分) Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】D 【6题答案】 【答案】A 【7题答案】 【答案】B 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】C Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. A B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. C Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. F 33. G 34. A 35. D 第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题：每小题2分，满分40分) 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~39题答案】 【答案】36. D 37. C 38. B 39. C B 【40~43题答案】 【答案】40. B 41. A 42. D 43. C C 【44~47题答案】 【答案】44. D 45. B 46. B 47. D D 【48~52题答案】 【答案】48. C 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. D E 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. He got the child out of the hole. 54. To help with his education. 55. Small good things can make a big difference. 第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分) Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】(a)rticle 【57题答案】 【答案】lonely 【58题答案】 【答案】(p)referred 【59题答案】 【答案】(s)hape 【60题答案】 【答案】(s)martest Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题；满分20分) 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 How to make a habit of reading It’s important to make a habit of reading. Here are some ways to help. First, choose interesting books. If the book is boring, you’ll find it hard to keep reading. Second, spend some time reading every day. Even 15 to 20 minutes is enough. You can read before going to bed or during breakfast. Third, reward yourself after finishing a book. You can watch a movie or eat your favorite snack. What’s more, join a reading club. Sharing ideas with others makes reading more fun. I hope the advice is helpful. Let’s start reading and enjoy the journey. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $