精品解析：云南省昆明市五华区2024-2025学年上学期七年级新生均衡分班英语测试卷

云南省昆明市五华区2024年初一新生均衡分班测试卷 英语 (全卷分为四个部分，共3页； 满分：100分，考试时间：90分钟) 考生须知： 1.考生务必在每张答题卡上将自己的学校、姓名等信息填写清楚， 条形码由监考教师在指定位置粘贴。 2.判断题、单项选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂； 其余用黑色碳素笔作答， 务必在指定答题区作答， 超出黑色框区域的答案无效。 3.书写工整， 字迹清楚， 填涂规范， 试卷保持平整， 不要折叠。 第一部分 听力 (共四节 满分30分) 第一节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 共7.5分) 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。 第二节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 满分7.5分) 听下面5个句子， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后， 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。 6. A. By subway. B. I’m fine. C. It was cold. 7. A. It’s one yuan. B. It’s black and white. C. It’s on the desk. 8. A. I’m going there by car. B. I’m going to go fishing. C. I’m going with my grandma. 9. A. I’m 46 kilograms. B. I’m eleven. C. I’m 1.65 meters. 10. A. It’s my mother’s. B. It’s beautiful. C. It’s too big. 第三节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后， 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 11. Is there a lake in the nature park? A. No, there isn’t. B. No, it isn’t. C. Yes, there is. 12. What’s my brother like? A. He is active. B. He likes listening to music. C. He likes playing ping- pong. 13. Which season does Amy like best? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Winter. 14. Where is the post office? A It’s next to the bus stop. B. There is a post office near here. C. It’s near the post office. 15. When does John usually get up? A. At 6 a. m. B. At 6:30 a. m. C. At 6:30 p. m. 第四节 (本题共5小题; 每小题 1.5分, 共7.5分) 听下面短文， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完短文后， 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。短文听两遍。 16. How was Li Lin’s summer holiday? A. It was busy. B. It was great. C. It was bad. 17. When did they go to Chengdu? A. On August 2nd. B. On August 12th. C. On August 20th. 18. How did they went to Chengdu? A. They went there by plane. B. They went there by ship. C. They went there by train. 19. What was the weather like in Chengdu? A. It was cold. B. It was warm. C. It was hot. 20. What did they do there? A They saw pandas. B. They took lots of pictures of pandas. C. Both A and B. 第二部分 英语知识运用 (共二节 满分25分) 第一节 单项选择题。 请从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的选项， 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 (本题共10小题； 每小题1.5分， 共15分) 1. There is ________ university near my home. A. a B. an C. the D. / 2. —What are ________? —They are ________. A. that; tomato B. these; tomatos C. those; tomatoes D. this; tomatoes 3. Last Labour Day holiday, I went to Shanghai ________. A. by bus B. by bike C. by train D. by subway 4. —________ is your father? — He is 68 kilograms. A. How tall B. How heavy C. How long D. How old 5. Your hair is ________ than ________. A. short; me B. long; mine C. shorter; me D. longer; mine 6. My birthday is ________ September. A. on B. in C. at D. between 7. There ________ no computers ________ the Internet in the 1920s. A. weren’t; or B. are; and C. were; or D. was; and 8. —________ is Papa Westray? —It’s in Scotland. A. Where B. What C. When D. Whose 9. —How ________ Sam ________ now? —He is feeling well. A. does; feel B. is; feel C. did; feel D. is; feeling 10. —Chen Jie what does your aunt do? —________ A. She does kung fu. B. She can do kung fu. C. She is a coach. D. She did kung fu. 第二节 完型填空。(本题共 10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分) Lucy is a five-year-old girl. She ____11____ a big brother. ____12____ name is Tom and he ____13____ nine years old. Tom is very ____14____. He teaches Lucy to ____15____ computer games. He often takes Lucy to the ____16____, and they like reading books there. On Lucy’s birthday, Tom often gives ____17____ cards and pencils as gifts. Now her parents have a new ____18____. Lucy is a big sister! She is very ____19____. “I will be friendly to you, too.” Lucy says to her little ____20____, “I will give you gifts. I will read books to you. I will teach you how to play.” 11. A. finds B. sees C. has D. have 12. A. His B. Her C. My D. Your 13. A. am B. is C. are D. be 14. A. tall B. fat C. short D. friendly 15. A. watch B. make C. play D. look 16. A. library B. park C. party D. zoo 17. A. him B. her C. me D. it 18. A. friend B. pet C. room D. baby 19. A. worried B. sad C. happy D. angry 20. A. cousin B. brother C. aunt D. uncle 第三部分 阅读理解 (共三节 满分 25分) 第一节 (本题共5小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5分) 根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”，错误“F”）。 All over the world, people drink tea. There are many kinds of tea. They are black tea, green tea, white tea, dark tea and yellow tea. People drink a lot of tea in China. Some people think it is good for their health. It is delicious. People drink a lot of green tea in Japan. People drink a lot of green tea in Korea (韩国), too. In Vietnam (越南), some people drink coffee first. Then they drink tea. People drink a lot of tea in England. Every afternoon, everyone drinks tea. It’s “tea time”. English people put milk into their tea. Many people drink black tea in the USA. Most tea comes from China. Some tea comes from India or Sri Lanka (斯里兰卡). 21. People drink green tea in Japan and Korea. 22. People drink tea with milk in India. 23. A lot of people in the USA drink black tea. 24. Most tea comes from Sri Lanka. 25. There are five kinds of tea in the passage. 第二节 根据短文内容， 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 (本题共 10 小题； 每小题 1.5分， 满分15 分) A Get ready for the hiking! Mr Green and Mrs. Green want to go hiking this weekend. They bought a lot of things for the hiking the day before yesterday. First, they each bought a pair of hiking shoes. Mr. Green’s feet are much bigger than Mrs. Green’s. He wears size 42 shoes! Mrs. Green just wears size 36 shoes. Second, they bought a tent (帐篷) for camping. There were two tents in the shop. One was green with a big window. The other was brown with two small windows. The green one was bigger but shorter than the brown one. Mr. Green is very tall. He is 1.8 meters. Mrs. Green likes watching the beautiful mountains. She thought two windows were much better. Finally they only bought one. 26. Mr. Green and Mrs. Green want to ________ this weekend. A. go for a walk B. go swimming C. go hiking D. go on a picnic 27. The day before yesterday, what did Mr. Green and Mrs. Green do for the hiking? A. They ate a lot. B. They looked at the map. C. They washed the clothes. D. They bought a lot of things. 28. What size of hiking shoes do Mr. Green and Mrs. Green wear? A. Size 36 and size 42. B. Size 42 and size 36. C. Size 36 and size 36. D. Size 42 and size 38. 29. The brown tent is ________ but ________ than the green tent. A. smaller; taller B. bigger; taller C. smaller; shorter D. bigger; shorter 30. Which tent did they buy? A. The green one. B. The brown one. C. They bought nothing. D. They bought two. B The Spring Festival is the most important festival for Chinese people. Before, people could not often have meat, candies or other delicious food. They could only eat these on Spring Festival. So every year they hoped the Spring Festival would come soon. Now, people have a better life and can eat delicious food every day. But they still like the festival. In the evening before the Spring Festival, families get together and have a big meal. People usually eat chicken, duck, fish and dumplings. Dumplings are the most traditional (传统的) food. In many places, people like to set off firecrackers. Children like the festival very much, because they can have delicious food and wear new clothes. They can also get some money from their parents. The money is for good luck. People can have a happy time. They can go on a trip or visit their friends. 31. Which festival is the most important festival for Chinese people? A. Tree Planting Day. B. New Year’s Day. C. Mid- Autumn Day. D. Spring Festival. 32. Why did people hope the Spring Festival would come soon before? A. Because they could have a big meal. B. Because they could have delicious food. C. Because they could play with friends. D. Because they could get together with family. 33. The most traditional food for the Spring Festival is ________. A. dumplings B. duck C. chicken D. fish 34. What does the underlined phrase “set off firecrackers” mean? A. 贴窗花 B. 舞狮 C. 放鞭炮 D. 贴春联 35. Children like the festival very much because ________ A. they can have delicious food and wear new clothes. B. they can get some money from their parents. C. they can go on a trip or visit their friends. D. they can have delicious food, wear new clothes and get some money from their parents. 第三节 (本题共5小题；每小题1分， 共5分) 根据对话内容，从对话后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Mike: Hi, John. The weather is good. Let’s go and play! John: OK. ____36____ Mike: How about the Green Lake Park? We can go boating there. John: Good idea. ____37____ Mike: Sounds great. How can we go there? John: ____38____ It’s not far. Mike: Do you know the way to the park? John: No. We can use the GPS. ____39____ Mike: Cool! Let’s go! John: Hey, don’t go at the red light! ____40____ Mike: Yes, you’re right. A. And we can also take some beautiful pictures. B. What can we do there? C. Look! Go straight, and then turn left. D. We must pay attention to the traffic lights. E. Where do you want to go? F. We can go on foot. 第四部分 写作 (共三节 满分 20分) 第一节 根据句意， 用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 (本题共5小题； 每小题1分， 共5分) 41. December is the ________ month of the year. (twelve) 42. Who is ________ than you in your family? (thin) 43. Listen! Lisa ________ the song “Jasmine Flower” at the party. (sing) 44. —What ________ Ann ________ last Sunday? —She went shopping. (do) 45. Oliver ________ Chinese every day. (study) 第二节 根据汉语意思， 用英文补全句子，注意使用适当的形式。 (本题共5小题； 每小题1分， 满分5分) 46. Jerry ________ with his friends this morning. 今天早上，杰瑞和他的朋友们看了一场电影。 47. Do you see ________ on the farm? 你在农场里看到一些绵羊吗? 48. I ________ dance. 我不会跳舞。 49. Mike likes ________. 迈克喜欢踢足球。 50. ________, Peter lived in Beijing. 三年前，彼得住在北京。 第三节 书面表达 (满分 10分) 51 My favourite animal 提示：云南有“动物王国”之称，请同学们以“My favourite animal”为题，用英文写一篇短文，介绍一种你最喜欢的动物。 要求： 1.语言通顺、时态准确、书写规范、卷面整洁，不少于50词。 2.文中不能使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计算。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 云南省昆明市五华区2024年初一新生均衡分班测试卷 英语 (全卷分为四个部分，共3页； 满分：100分，考试时间：90分钟) 考生须知： 1.考生务必在每张答题卡上将自己的学校、姓名等信息填写清楚， 条形码由监考教师在指定位置粘贴。 2.判断题、单项选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂； 其余用黑色碳素笔作答， 务必在指定答题区作答， 超出黑色框区域的答案无效。 3.书写工整， 字迹清楚， 填涂规范， 试卷保持平整， 不要折叠。 第一部分 听力 (共四节 满分30分) 第一节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 共7.5分) 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。 第二节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 满分7.5分) 听下面5个句子， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后， 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。 6. A. By subway. B. I’m fine. C. It was cold. 7. A. It’s one yuan. B. It’s black and white. C. It’s on the desk. 8. A. I’m going there by car. B. I’m going to go fishing. C. I’m going with my grandma. 9. A. I’m 46 kilograms. B. I’m eleven. C. I’m 1.65 meters. 10. A. It’s my mother’s. B. It’s beautiful. C. It’s too big. 第三节 (本题共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后， 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 11. Is there a lake in the nature park? A. No, there isn’t. B. No, it isn’t. C. Yes, there is. 12. What’s my brother like? A. He is active. B. He likes listening to music. C. He likes playing ping- pong. 13. Which season does Amy like best? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Winter. 14. Where is the post office? A. It’s next to the bus stop. B. There is a post office near here. C. It’s near the post office. 15. When does John usually get up? A. At 6 a. m. B. At 6:30 a. m. C. At 6:30 p. m. 第四节 (本题共5小题; 每小题 1.5分, 共7.5分) 听下面短文， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完短文后， 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。短文听两遍。 16. How was Li Lin’s summer holiday? A. It was busy. B. It was great. C. It was bad. 17. When did they go to Chengdu? A. On August 2nd. B. On August 12th. C. On August 20th. 18. How did they went to Chengdu? A. They went there by plane. B. They went there by ship. C. They went there by train. 19. What was the weather like in Chengdu? A. It was cold. B. It was warm. C. It was hot. 20. What did they do there? A. They saw pandas. B. They took lots of pictures of pandas. C. Both A and B. 第二部分 英语知识运用 (共二节 满分25分) 第一节 单项选择题。 请从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的选项， 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 (本题共10小题； 每小题1.5分， 共15分) 1. There is ________ university near my home. A. a B. an C. the D. / 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：我家附近有一所大学。 考查冠词，不定冠词a/an表泛指，定冠词the表特指。观察句子，这里是泛指一所大学，应该用不定冠词，university不是以元音音素开头发音的单词，故选A。 2. —What are ________? —They are ________. A. that; tomato B. these; tomatos C. those; tomatoes D. this; tomatoes 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：——那些是什么？——它们是西红柿。 考查代词辨析和名词的单复数。that那个；these这些；those那些；this这个。根据“What are”可知，第一空应用these/those，故排除A和D；tomato“西红柿”，其复数为tomatoes。故选C。 3. Last Labour Day holiday, I went to Shanghai ________. A. by bus B. by bike C. by train D. by subway 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：去年劳动节假期，我坐火车去了上海。 考查短语辨析。by bus坐公交车；by bike骑自行车；by train坐火车；by subway坐地铁。根据“Last Labour Day holiday, I went to Shanghai”和常识可知，劳动节去上海，长距离旅行坐的应是火车；ABD选项是短距离旅行的交通工具，不符合语境。故选C。 4. —________ is your father? — He is 68 kilograms. A. How tall B. How heavy C. How long D. How old 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：——你爸爸多重？——他68公斤。 考查特殊疑问句。How tall多高；How heavy多重；How long多长；How old多大年纪。根据回答“He is 68 kilograms.”可知，是询问体重。故选B。 5. Your hair is ________ than ________. A. short; me B. long; mine C. shorter; me D. longer; mine 【答案】D 【解析】 【详解】句意：你的头发比我的长。 考查比较级和名词性物主代词。short短的；me我，宾格人称代词；long长的；mine我的，名词性物主代词；shorter更短的；longer更长的。根据“than”可知，第一个空用形容词比较级；第二个空应用名词性物主代词mine，代替my hair。故选D。 6. My birthday is ________ September. A. on B. in C. at D. between 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：我的生日在9月。 考查介词辨析。on用于具体某一天前；in用于年月季节等前；at用于时刻前；between在……之间。根据“September”可知，应用介词in。故选B。 7. There ________ no computers ________ the Internet in the 1920s. A. weren’t; or B. are; and C. were; or D. was; and 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：20世纪20年代没有电脑和互联网。 考查时态，there be句型和连词辨析。or或者；and和。根据“in the 1920s”可知，时态为一般过去时，故排除B；根据“There...no computers...the Internet”可知，表示没有电脑和互联网，there be句型中be动词的使用根据就近原则，此处be动词应用复数形式were，该句为否定句，应用or表示并列。故选C。 8. —________ is Papa Westray? —It’s in Scotland. A. Where B. What C. When D. Whose 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：——帕帕韦斯特雷岛在哪里？——它在苏格兰。 考查特殊疑问词。Where在哪里；What什么；When什么时候；Whose谁的。根据“It’s in Scotland.”可知，问句是问位置，所以用where提问。故选A。 9. —How ________ Sam ________ now? —He is feeling well. A. does; feel B. is; feel C. did; feel D. is; feeling 【答案】D 【解析】 【详解】句意：——山姆现在感觉怎么样？——他感觉很好。 考查时态。根据答句“He is feeling well.”可知，时态为现在进行时，构成为主语+am/is/are+doing。故选D。 10. —Chen Jie, what does your aunt do? —________ A. She does kung fu. B. She can do kung fu. C. She is a coach. D. She did kung fu. 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：——陈杰，你阿姨是做什么的？——她是一名教练。 考查情景交际。She does kung fu.她练功夫；She can do kung fu.她会功夫；She is a coach.她是一名教练；She did kung fu.她练过功夫。根据“what does your aunt do”是问职业可知，C选项回答符合语境。故选C。 第二节 完型填空。(本题共 10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分) Lucy is a five-year-old girl. She ____11____ a big brother. ____12____ name is Tom and he ____13____ nine years old. Tom is very ____14____. He teaches Lucy to ____15____ computer games. He often takes Lucy to the ____16____, and they like reading books there. On Lucy’s birthday, Tom often gives ____17____ cards and pencils as gifts. Now her parents have a new ____18____. Lucy is a big sister! She is very ____19____. “I will be friendly to you, too.” Lucy says to her little ____20____, “I will give you gifts. I will read books to you. I will teach you how to play.” 11. A. finds B. sees C. has D. have 12. A. His B. Her C. My D. Your 13. A. am B. is C. are D. be 14. A. tall B. fat C. short D. friendly 15. A. watch B. make C. play D. look 16. A. library B. park C. party D. zoo 17. A. him B. her C. me D. it 18. A. friend B. pet C. room D. baby 19. A. worried B. sad C. happy D. angry 20. A. cousin B. brother C. aunt D. uncle 【答案】11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. B 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了露西和哥哥的相处状态以及家里添新成员后她的反应。 【11题详解】 句意：她有一个哥哥。 finds找到；sees看见；has有，have的第三人称单数；have有。根据“She ... a big brother. ”可知，露西有一个哥哥，主语She为第三人称单数，谓语动词要用三单形式。故选C。 【12题详解】 句意：他的名字叫汤姆，他九岁了。 His他的；Her她的；My我的；Your你的。根据“a big brother”和“name is Tom”可知，哥哥是男性，故此处是“他的”名字叫汤姆。故选A。 【13题详解】 句意：他的名字叫汤姆，他九岁了。 am是，主语为I；is是，主语为第三人称单数；are是，主语为复数或you；be原形。根据“he ... nine years old”可知，主语he是第三人称单数，be动词应用is。故选B。 【14题详解】 句意：汤姆很友好。 tall高的；fat胖的；short矮的；friendly友好的。根据“He teaches Lucy to ... computer games.”和“Tom often gives ... cards and pencils as gifts.”可知，哥哥汤姆教妹妹露西打游戏，以及给她买礼物，由此判断汤姆很友好。故选D。 【15题详解】 句意：他教露西玩电脑游戏。 watch观看；make制作；play玩；look看起来。根据“computer games”可知，此处指玩电脑游戏，用play。故选C。 【16题详解】 句意：他经常带露西去图书馆，他们喜欢在那里读书。 library图书馆；park公园；party聚会；zoo动物园。根据“they like reading books there”可知，可以阅读的地方应是图书馆。故选A。 【17题详解】 句意：在露西的生日那天，汤姆经常送她卡片和铅笔作为礼物。 him他；her她；me我；it它。根据“On Lucy’s birthday, Tom often gives ... cards and pencils as gifts.”可知，此处指送露西礼物，应用her指代。故选B。 【18题详解】 句意：现在她的父母有了一个新的孩子。 friend朋友；pet宠物；room房间；baby婴儿。根据“Lucy is a big sister! ”可知，露西成为了姐姐，即她的父母又有了一个孩子。故选D。 【19题详解】 句意：她非常高兴。 worried担心的；sad难过的；happy高兴的；angry生气的。根据“I will be friendly to you, too.”可知，露西很高兴有弟弟。故选C。 【20题详解】 句意：露西对她的弟弟说：“我会给你礼物的。我给你读书。我来教你怎么玩。” cousin表弟；brother弟弟；aunt姑姑；uncle叔叔。根据上文“Now her parents have a new ... Lucy is a big sister!”可知，露西的父母有了一个新的孩子，结合选项推知这个孩子是露西的弟弟。故选B。 第三部分 阅读理解 (共三节 满分 25分) 第一节 (本题共5小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5分) 根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”，错误“F”）。 All over the world, people drink tea. There are many kinds of tea. They are black tea, green tea, white tea, dark tea and yellow tea. People drink a lot of tea in China. Some people think it is good for their health. It is delicious. People drink a lot of green tea in Japan. People drink a lot of green tea in Korea (韩国), too. In Vietnam (越南), some people drink coffee first. Then they drink tea. People drink a lot of tea in England. Every afternoon, everyone drinks tea. It’s “tea time”. English people put milk into their tea. Many people drink black tea in the USA. Most tea comes from China. Some tea comes from India or Sri Lanka (斯里兰卡). 21. People drink green tea in Japan and Korea. 22 People drink tea with milk in India. 23. A lot of people in the USA drink black tea. 24. Most tea comes from Sri Lanka. 25. There are five kinds of tea in the passage. 【答案】21. T 22. F 23. T 24. F 25. T 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了世界各地的茶，包括茶的种类，以及不同国家人们的饮茶习惯，还提到了茶叶的主要来源地。 【21题详解】 细节理解题。根据“People drink a lot of green tea in Japan. People drink a lot of green tea in Korea (韩国), too.”可知，在日本和韩国，人们喝绿茶。故答案为T。 【22题详解】 细节理解题。根据“English people put milk into their tea.”可知，英国人在茶里放牛奶。不是印度人。故答案为F。 【23题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Many people drink black tea in the USA.”可知，在美国，很多人喝红茶。故答案为T。 24题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Most tea comes from China. Some tea comes from India or Sri Lanka (斯里兰卡).” 可知，大多数茶来自中国。不是斯里兰卡。故答案为F。 【25题详解】 细节理解题。根据“There are many kinds of tea. They are black tea, green tea, white tea, dark tea and yellow tea.”可知，文章提到了红茶、绿茶、白茶、黑茶和黄茶，共五种茶。故答案为T。 第二节 根据短文内容， 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 (本题共 10 小题； 每小题 1.5分， 满分15 分) A Get ready for the hiking! Mr Green and Mrs. Green want to go hiking this weekend. They bought a lot of things for the hiking the day before yesterday. First, they each bought a pair of hiking shoes. Mr. Green’s feet are much bigger than Mrs. Green’s. He wears size 42 shoes! Mrs. Green just wears size 36 shoes. Second, they bought a tent (帐篷) for camping. There were two tents in the shop. One was green with a big window. The other was brown with two small windows. The green one was bigger but shorter than the brown one. Mr. Green is very tall. He is 1.8 meters. Mrs. Green likes watching the beautiful mountains. She thought two windows were much better. Finally they only bought one. 26. Mr. Green and Mrs. Green want to ________ this weekend. A. go for a walk B. go swimming C. go hiking D. go on a picnic 27. The day before yesterday, what did Mr. Green and Mrs. Green do for the hiking? A. They ate a lot. B. They looked at the map. C. They washed the clothes. D. They bought a lot of things. 28. What size of hiking shoes do Mr. Green and Mrs. Green wear? A. Size 36 and size 42. B. Size 42 and size 36. C. Size 36 and size 36. D. Size 42 and size 38. 29. The brown tent is ________ but ________ than the green tent. A. smaller; taller B. bigger; taller C. smaller; shorter D. bigger; shorter 30. Which tent did they buy? A. The green one. B. The brown one. C. They bought nothing. D. They bought two. 【答案】26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了Green夫妇为周末徒步旅行做准备，购买相关物品的经历。 【26题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Mr. Green and Mrs. Green want to go hiking this weekend.”可知，Green夫妇周末想去徒步旅行，故选C。 【27题详解】 细节理解题。根据“They bought a lot of things for the hiking the day before yesterday.”可知，前天他们为徒步旅行买了很多东西，故选D。 【28题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Mr. Green’s feet are much bigger than Mrs. Green’s. He wears size 42 shoes! Mrs. Green just wears size 36 shoes.”可知，Green 先生穿42码鞋，Green夫人穿36码鞋，故选B。 【29题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The green one was bigger but shorter than the brown one.”可知，棕色帐篷比绿色帐篷小但更高，即棕色帐篷smaller但taller，故选A。 【30题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Mrs. Green likes watching the beautiful mountains. She thought two windows were much better. Finally they only bought one.”以及前文提到“The other was brown with two small windows.”可知，棕色帐篷有两个小窗户，故他们买了棕色的帐篷，故选B。 B The Spring Festival is the most important festival for Chinese people. Before, people could not often have meat, candies or other delicious food. They could only eat these on Spring Festival. So every year they hoped the Spring Festival would come soon. Now, people have a better life and can eat delicious food every day. But they still like the festival. In the evening before the Spring Festival, families get together and have a big meal. People usually eat chicken, duck, fish and dumplings. Dumplings are the most traditional (传统的) food. In many places, people like to set off firecrackers. Children like the festival very much, because they can have delicious food and wear new clothes. They can also get some money from their parents. The money is for good luck. People can have a happy time. They can go on a trip or visit their friends. 31. Which festival is the most important festival for Chinese people? A. Tree Planting Day. B. New Year’s Day. C. Mid- Autumn Day. D. Spring Festival. 32. Why did people hope the Spring Festival would come soon before? A. Because they could have a big meal. B. Because they could have delicious food. C. Because they could play with friends. D. Because they could get together with family. 33. The most traditional food for the Spring Festival is ________. A. dumplings B. duck C. chicken D. fish 34. What does the underlined phrase “set off firecrackers” mean? A. 贴窗花 B. 舞狮 C. 放鞭炮 D. 贴春联 35. Children like the festival very much because ________ A. they can have delicious food and wear new clothes. B. they can get some money from their parents. C. they can go on a trip or visit their friends. D. they can have delicious food, wear new clothes and get some money from their parents. 【答案】31. D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了春节作为中国最重要的传统节日，其传统习俗、食物以及人们在节日期间的活动。 【31题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The Spring Festival is the most important festival for Chinese people.”可知，春节对中国人而言是最重要的节日。故选D。 【32题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Before, people could not often have meat, candies or other delicious food. They could only eat these on Spring Festival. So every year they hoped the Spring Festival would come soon.”可知，以前，很多美味的食物只能在春节吃到，所以人们盼望春节早点来。故选B。 【33题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Dumplings are the most traditional (传统的) food.”可知，饺子是最传统的食物。故选A。 【34题详解】 词义猜测题。根据“In many places, people like to set off firecrackers. ”和常识可知，在许多地方，人们喜欢春节放鞭炮，因此“set off firecrackers”表示“放鞭炮”。故选C。 【35题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Children like the festival very much, because they can have delicious food and wear new clothes. They can also get some money from their parents.”可知，孩子们非常喜欢这个节日，因为他们可以吃美味的食物、穿新衣服、还可以从父母那里得到一些钱。故选D。 第三节 (本题共5小题；每小题1分， 共5分) 根据对话内容，从对话后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Mike: Hi, John. The weather is good. Let’s go and play! John: OK. ____36____ Mike: How about the Green Lake Park? We can go boating there. John: Good idea. ____37____ Mike: Sounds great. How can we go there? John: ____38____ It’s not far. Mike: Do you know the way to the park? John: No. We can use the GPS. ____39____ Mike: Cool! Let’s go! John: Hey, don’t go at the red light! ____40____ Mike: Yes, you’re right. A. And we can also take some beautiful pictures. B. What can we do there? C. Look! Go straight, and then turn left. D. We must pay attention to the traffic lights. E. Where do you want to go? F. We can go on foot. 【答案】36. E 37. A 38. F 39. C 40. D 【解析】 【导语】本文是Mike和John关于外出游玩的对话，主要讨论了目的地、活动内容、交通方式以及交通安全问题。 【36题详解】 根据“How about the Green Lake Park?”可知，此处是询问去哪里，选项E“你想去哪里？”符合语境。故选E。 【37题详解】 根据“We can go boating there.”及“Sounds great.”可知，此处是补充了其他活动建议，选项A“而且我们还可以拍些漂亮的照片。”符合语境。故选A。 【38题详解】 根据“How can we go there?”及“It’s not far.”可知，此处是建议步行，选项F“我们可以步行去。”符合语境。故选F。 【39题详解】 根据“We can use the GPS.”可知，此处应是介绍导航的路线，选项C“看！直走，然后左转。”符合语境。故选C。 【40题详解】 根据“don’t go at the red light!”可知，此处内容与“交通规则”有关，选项D“我们必须注意交通信号灯。”符合语境。故选D。 第四部分 写作 (共三节 满分 20分) 第一节 根据句意， 用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 (本题共5小题； 每小题1分， 共5分) 41. December is the ________ month of the year. (twelve) 【答案】twelfth 【解析】 【详解】句意：十二月是一年中第十二个月。根据“December is the ... month of the year.”可知，十二月是一年中第十二个月，这里作定语修饰名词month，应该用序数词，twelve的序数词为twelfth“第十二的”。故填twelfth。 42. Who is ________ than you in your family? (thin) 【答案】thinner 【解析】 【详解】句意：你们家里谁比你更瘦？根据“than you”可知，此处应用thin的比较级thinner“更瘦的”。故填thinner。 43. Listen! Lisa ________ the song “Jasmine Flower” at the party. (sing) 【答案】is singing 【解析】 【详解】句意：听！丽莎在聚会上唱着《茉莉花》这首歌。根据“Listen! ”可知，时态应用现在进行时，结构为be doing；主语Lisa为第三人称单数，be动词用is。故填is singing。 44. —What ________ Ann ________ last Sunday? —She went shopping (do) 【答案】 ①. did ②. do 【解析】 【详解】句意：——Ann上个星期天做了什么？——她去购物了。do“做”，为实义动词；根据“last Sunday”可知，时态为一般过去时，助动词应用did，后接动词原形。故填did；do。 45. Oliver ________ Chinese every day. (study) 【答案】studies 【解析】 【详解】句意：奥利弗每天学习中文。根据“every day”可知，时态为一般现在时，主语Oliver是第三人称单数，谓语动词用第三人称单数形式studies。故填studies。 第二节 根据汉语意思， 用英文补全句子，注意使用适当的形式。 (本题共5小题； 每小题1分， 满分5分) 46. Jerry ________ with his friends this morning. 今天早上，杰瑞和他的朋友们看了一场电影。 【答案】watched a movie 【解析】 【详解】看电影：watch a movie，固定短语；根据时间状语“this morning”可知，本句用一般过去时，谓语动词为watched。故填watched a movie。 47. Do you see ________ on the farm? 你在农场里看到一些绵羊吗? 【答案】any sheep 【解析】 【详解】根据中英文对照可知，缺少“一些绵羊”。一般疑问句中表示“一些”用any；sheep“绵羊”，单复数同形。故填any sheep。 48. I ________ dance. 我不会跳舞。 【答案】can’t 【解析】 【详解】根据英汉句子可知，空格处缺少“不会”的英文。“不会，不能”常用“can’t”来表达，情态动词后接动词原形，符合句子“我不会跳舞”的语义需求。故填can’t。 49. Mike likes ________. 迈克喜欢踢足球。 【答案】playing football##playing soccer 【解析】 【详解】play football/soccer表示“踢足球”，动词短语；根据like doing sth.“喜欢做某事”可知，play应用动名词playing。故填playing football/soccer。 50. ________, Peter lived in Beijing. 三年前，彼得住在北京。 【答案】Three years ago 【解析】 【详解】由中英文对比可知，缺少“三年前”；“一段时间+ago”表示“多久之前”，three years表示“三年”，注意three位于句首，首字母要大写。故填Three years ago。 第三节 书面表达 (满分 10分) 51. My favourite animal 提示：云南有“动物王国”之称，请同学们以“My favourite animal”为题，用英文写一篇短文，介绍一种你最喜欢的动物。 要求： 1.语言通顺、时态准确、书写规范、卷面整洁，不少于50词。 2.文中不能使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计算。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 My favourite animal Animals are our friends. My favourite animal is the panda. Pandas are black and white. They like eating bamboo and also like sleeping. You may think they are a little boring. Actually, they aren’t boring—they are amazing. Pandas are one of the symbols of China. So please try your best to help them. First, people shouldn’t cut down trees so that there are more forests for them to live in. Besides, people should not hurt pandas. What’s more, we should take good care of them, especially the baby pandas. Pandas are very important animals. Let’s take action and save pandas together. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文一篇话题作文； ②时态：时态为“一般现在时”； ③提示：介绍最喜欢的动物，具体包括该动物的特征、现状以及我们该如何保护它们；注意适当发挥，突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，开篇点明喜欢的动物是什么，具有什么特征； 第二步，列举保护动物的方法； 第三步，呼吁大家行动起来，保护动物。 [亮点词汇] ①amazing 惊人的，了不起的 ②try one’s best to do sth. 尽某人最大努力做某事 ③cut down 砍倒 ④take good care of 好好照顾 [高分句型] First, people shouldn’t cut down trees so that there are more forests for them to live in.（so that引导的目的状语从句） 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$