湖南省永州市零陵区永州市第一中学2025-2026学年高三上学期开学英语试题

永州一中2025年下期高三入学考试试卷 英语 温馨提示： 1. 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并按规定贴好条形码。 3. 请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Why did the woman go to Mallorca? A. To teach Spanish. B. To look for a job. C. To see a friend. 2. What does the man ask the woman to do? A. Take him to hospital. B. Go to a class with him. C. Submit a report for him. 3. Who will look after the children? A. Jennifer. B. Suzy. C. Marie. 4. What are the speakers going to do? A. Drive home. B. Go shopping. C. Eat out. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to fry fish. B. How to make coffee. C. How to remove a bad smell. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. When does Gomez watch a football game on TV? A. When he fails to get a ticket. B. When the stadium is crowded. C. When his friends are too busy. 7. How much did Gomez pay for the football game last time? A. $20. B. $25. C. $50. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8 What did Alex do in the afternoon? A He had a walk. B. He went hunting. C. He planted trees. 9. What did Alex bring back? A. Flowers. B. Leaves. C. Books. 10. What was Bob doing when Alex saw him? A. Fishing. B. Taking pictures. C. Swimming. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What did David do on his most recent holiday? A. He had a boat trip. B. He took a balloon flight. C. He climbed a mountain. 12. What is on David’s list? A. Gifts he needed to buy. B. Things he wished to do. C. Date s he had to remember. 13. Where does the woman suggest David go for his next holiday? A. Australia. B. California. C. The Amazon. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. Why did Sarah make the phone call? A. To ask a favor. B. To pass on a message. C. To make an appointment. 15. Where is Sarah now? A. In Brighton. B. At her home. C. At the Shelton Hotel. 16. What time is Michael leaving his place tomorrow morning? A. At 7:40. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:20. 17. What is the probable relationship between John and Sarah? A. Neighbors. B. Fellow workers. C. Husband and wife. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What do most people think is very important in spoken communication? A. Pronunciation. B. Vocabulary. C. Grammar. 19. Why should you listen to experts according to the speaker? A. To develop your reading fluency. B. To improve your note-taking skills. C. To find out your mispronunciations. 20. What is the speaker’s last suggestion? A. Spell out the difficult words. B. Check the words in a dictionary. C. Practice reading the words aloud. 第二部分 阅读（共两节） 第一节 阅读理解 请认真阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸/卡上将该项涂黑。 A Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature Grading Scale 90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E. Essays (60%) Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%. Group Assignments (30%) Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system. Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%) Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded. Late Work An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted. 1. Where is this text probably taken from? A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article. 2. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date? A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade. C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it. B Black Friday The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving is always on a Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This day has come to be known as Black Friday. It has been the busiest shopping day of the year since 2005. Most stores offer great deals on Black Friday. They open their doors in the small hours of the morning. They try to attract shoppers with big discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper than usual. Stores may even lose money on these items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for other people while they are in the store. Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The problem is that there are not enough low-priced items to go around. Each store may only have a few. These items are in high demand. People stand in long lines to get such great deals. They may line up hours before a store opens. They may be hoping to get a low price on a TV or laptop, but not everyone who wants one will get one. Some people leave disappointed. The situation can be tense. Some Black Friday events have been violent. Large, eager crowds have trampled workers. Fights have broken out over toys or people cutting in line. People have shot one another over parking spots. But most Black Friday events are safe and fun. Still, if you plan on going, expect large crowds and a bit of pushing and shoving. So where does the name “Black Friday” come from? It was first used in Philadelphia in the 1950s. The police called this day Black Friday because of the heavy traffic it drew. In the 1960s, spread across the country. It seems that it is here to stay. Now people all over the country take part in the event known as Black Friday. It is even spreading to other parts of the world. Stores have held Black Friday events in the U.K., Australia, and Brazil since 2012. In Costa Rica Black Friday is known as “Viernes Negro.” And in Mexico, stores offer an annual weekend of discounts. They call it “EI Buen Fin,” which means “the good weekend” in Spanish. I guess the language of savings is universal. 4. Why do stores set prices so low on some items that they lose money? A. They want people to enjoy the holidays. B. They are generous at the beginning of the holiday season. C. They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store. D. They are trying to get rid of old items. 5. Which best concludes the main idea of the third paragraph? A. People stand in long lines on Black Friday. B. Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year. C. Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals. D. Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one. 6. Which best describes the overall structure of the fifth paragraph? A. Order of time. B. Problem and solution. C. Order of importance. D. Compare and contrast. 7. Which title best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this text? A. Black Friday: Stories from the Parking Lot B. Black Friday: Why You Should Go This Year C. Black Friday: The Stuff That You Should Know D. Black Friday: How to Save Money on the Big Day C The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely. The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use. Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ” “I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.” “It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.” There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide. Wendy Wilson extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.” Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.” 8. What is the purpose of the project? A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged. C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare. 9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier? A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement. C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality. 10. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7? A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate. 11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs? A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative. C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results. D On March 7, 1907, the English statistician Francis Galton published a paper which illustrated what has come to be known as the “wisdom of crowds” effect. The experiment of estimation he conducted showed that in some cases, the average of a large number of independent estimates could be quite accurate. This effect capitalizes on the fact that when people make errors, those errors aren’t always the same. Some people will tend to overestimate, and some to underestimate. When enough of these errors are averaged together, they cancel each other out, resulting in a more accurate estimate. If people are similar and tend to make the same errors, then their errors won’t cancel each other out. In more technical terms, the wisdom of crowds requires that people’s estimates be independent. If for whatever reasons, people’s errors become correlated or dependent, the accuracy of the estimate will go down. But a new study led by Joaquin Navajas offered an interesting twist (转折) on this classic phenomenon. The key finding of the study was that when crowds were further divided into smaller groups that were allowed to have a discussion, the averages from these groups were more accurate than those from an equal number of independent individuals. For instance, the average obtained from the estimates of four discussion groups of five was significantly more accurate than the average obtained from 20 independent individuals. In a follow-up study with 100 university students, the researchers tried to get a better sense of what the group members actually did in their discussion. Did they tend to go with those most confident about their estimates? Did they follow those least willing to change their minds? This happened some of the time, but it wasn’t the dominant response. Most frequently, the groups reported that they “shared arguments and reasoned together”. Somehow, these arguments and reasoning resulted in a global reduction in error. Although the studies led by Navajas have limitations and many questions remain, the potential implications for group discussion and decision-making are enormous. 12. What is paragraph 2 of the text mainly about? A. The methods of estimation. B. The underlying logic of the effect. C. The causes of people’s errors. D. The design of Galton’s experiment. 13. Navajas’ study found that the average accuracy could increase even if ________. A. the crowds were relatively small B. there were occasional underestimates C. individuals did not communicate D. estimates were not fully independent 14. What did the follow-up study focus on? A. The size of the groups. B. The dominant members. C. The discussion process. D. The individual estimates. 15. What is the author’s attitude toward Navajas’ studies? A. Unclear. B. Dismissive. C. Doubtful. D. Approving. 第二节 七选五阅读 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Personal Forgiveness Taking responsibility for mistakes is a positive step, but don’t beat yourself up about them. To err (犯错) is human. ____16____ You can use the following writing exercise to help you do this. In a journal or on a piece of paper, put the heading “Personal strengths.” ____17____ Are you caring? Creative? Generous? A good listener? Fun to be around? They don’t have to be world-changing, just aspects of your personality that you’re proud of. At the top of a second page, put the heading “Acts of kindness.” On this one, list all the positive things you’ve done for others. It might be the time when you helped a friend with their homework, when you did the ironing without being asked, or when you baked cookies after the family had had a tiring day. ____18____ You could ask a friend or family member to help add to your list. ____19____ That way, you could exchange thoughts on what makes each of you special and the aspects of your personality that shine through. In fact, don’t wait until you’ve made a mistake to try this — it’s a great way to boost self-confidence at any time. It’s something of a cliché (陈词滥调) that most people learn not from their successes but their mistakes. The thing is, it’s true. ____20____ We’ re all changing and learning all the time and mistakes are a positive way to develop and grow. A. A little self-forgiveness also goes a long way. B. Now list all the characteristics you like about yourself. C. They might even like to have a go at doing the exercise. D. It’s just as important to show yourself some forgiveness. E. It doesn’t mean you have to ignore what’s happened or forget it. F. Whatever it is, no matter how small it might seem, write it down. G. Whatever the mistake, remember it isn’t a fixed aspect of your personality. 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 完形填空 请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸/卡上将该项涂黑。 I’m a creature of habit. The walking route I’ve established around the block in New York____21____varies. On my walk, I take____22____in what my fellow gardeners have planted. Of all the sights, I think I____23____Nell’s Garden the most. Every morning, I pass Nell on her____24____showing respect for Mother Nature. While other women on the block ____25____noisily over coffee break, Nell communicates with her flowers in____26____spiritually. One morning Nell didn’t bend over the lilies. Nor did she prune (修剪) branches. Looking lost, she sat on her front porch and____27____off into space. “Nell! Nell! Are you all right?” Slowly she turned to me. With a long deep breath, she said in a whisper, “We are____28____.” Now I joined her in her____29____: What would I do without her fragrance and the flower heads_____30_____ in time to my footfalls. Several months going by, Nell rarely spent time among the flowers, leaving the garden_____31_____. Then one morning, a moving pickup_____32_____to block the driveway. The house sat vacant. Life is like Nell’s garden. We plan and plant, and one day we move on. This spring I planted an annual garden. A friend was_____33_____and asked, “Why did you go through all that effort? Aren’t you moving to England?” She is right. I won’t be here, but another woman will. She’ll move into my house and enjoy the flowers I’ve_____34_____. I hope that across the_____35_____another woman is planting flowers in front of a house that I’ll rent. We plant not only for ourselves, but also for those who come behind us. 21. A. occasionally B. constantly C. barely D. temporarily 22. A. part B. joy C. steps D. risks 23 A. treasure B. plant C. design D. tend 24. A. fingers B. fists C. arms D. knees 25 A. chat B. compete C. discuss D. play 26. A. fear B. amazement C. advance D. silence 27. A. flew B. stared C. blew D. went 28. A. harvesting B. packing C. travelling D. moving 29. A. sadness B. confusion C. sympathy D. madness 30. A. screaming B. dropping C. nodding D. kicking 31. A. unused B. unattended C. unmanned D. unexpected 32. A. pulled up B. drove away C. passed by D. settled down 33. A. genuine B. humble C. curious D. sensitive 34. A. taken away B. gone after C. left behind D. wondered at 35. A. country B. block C. garden D. ocean 第二节 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park(GPNP). ___36___ (cover)an area about three times ___37___ size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that ___38___ (be)previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority ___39___ (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management. After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP ___40___ (design)to reflect the guiding principle of “protecting the authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, ___41___ leaving behind precious natural assets(资产)for future generations”. The GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate ___42___ (population)and homes of giant pandas, and ___43___ (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild. Giant pandas also serve ___44___ an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species _____45_____ live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，外教Ryan准备将学生随机分为两人一组，让大家课后练习口语，你认为这样分组存在问题。请你给外教写一封邮件，内容包括： 1. 说明问题； 2. 提出建议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Ryan, I’m Li Hua from Class 3. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest. I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run. What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event! I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.” I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward. David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右; 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答. We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 永州一中2025年下期高三入学考试试卷 英语 温馨提示： 1. 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并按规定贴好条形码。 3. 请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Why did the woman go to Mallorca? A. To teach Spanish. B. To look for a job. C. To see a friend. 2. What does the man ask the woman to do? A. Take him to hospital. B. Go to a class with him. C. Submit a report for him. 3. Who will look after the children? A. Jennifer. B. Suzy. C. Marie. 4. What are the speakers going to do? A. Drive home. B. Go shopping. C. Eat out. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to fry fish. B. How to make coffee. C. How to remove a bad smell. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. When does Gomez watch a football game on TV? A. When he fails to get a ticket. B. When the stadium is crowded. C. When his friends are too busy. 7. How much did Gomez pay for the football game last time? A. $20. B. $25. C. $50. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What did Alex do in the afternoon? A. He had a walk. B. He went hunting. C. He planted trees. 9. What did Alex bring back? A. Flowers. B. Leaves. C. Books. 10. What was Bob doing when Alex saw him? A. Fishing. B. Taking pictures. C. Swimming. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What did David do on his most recent holiday? A. He had a boat trip. B. He took a balloon flight. C. He climbed a mountain. 12. What is on David’s list? A. Gifts he needed to buy. B. Things he wished to do. C. Date s he had to remember. 13. Where does the woman suggest David go for his next holiday? A. Australia. B. California. C. The Amazon. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. Why did Sarah make the phone call? A. To ask a favor. B. To pass on a message. C. To make an appointment. 15. Where is Sarah now? A. In Brighton. B. At her home. C. At the Shelton Hotel. 16. What time is Michael leaving his place tomorrow morning? A. At 7:40. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:20. 17. What is the probable relationship between John and Sarah? A. Neighbors. B. Fellow workers. C. Husband and wife. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What do most people think is very important in spoken communication? A. Pronunciation. B. Vocabulary. C. Grammar. 19. Why should you listen to experts according to the speaker? A. To develop your reading fluency. B. To improve your note-taking skills. C. To find out your mispronunciations. 20. What is the speaker’s last suggestion? A. Spell out the difficult words. B. Check the words in a dictionary. C. Practice reading the words aloud. 第二部分 阅读（共两节） 第一节 阅读理解 请认真阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸/卡上将该项涂黑。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. D 6. A 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D 第二节 七选五阅读 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. B 18. F 19. C 20. G 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 完形填空 请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸/卡上将该项涂黑。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. D 第二节 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. Covering 37. the 38. were 39. to increase 40. is designed 41. and 42. populations 43. eventually 44. as 45. that 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Ryan, I’m Li Hua from Class 3. I think it’s not a good idea to randomly pair up students for the spoken English training after class. The reasons are as follows. To begin with, randomly pairing up students may lead to unbalanced language abilities within the groups. This can hinder the progress of students as the more advanced one may dominate the conversation, leaving little room for the other students to improve. Besides, students may feel uncomfortable or less motivated if paired with someone who they don’t get along with or have difficulty communicating with. My suggestion is to group students based on their language abilities or to let students choose their own partners. This way, everyone can feel more comfortable practicing and improving their spoken English together. Thank you for considering my suggestion. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said gently and quietly, “No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire to challenge yourself, there is nothing to do with others’ thoughts.” He sat still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone. Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. His coach heard what David said and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone else’s. I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young children, not to mention a child with a brain disease. David insisted on running as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for him. “Come on! You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the 20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$