精品解析：四川省成都市龙泉驿区2024-2025学年八年级下学期期末考试英语试题

2024至2025学年度下期末考试，八年级英语听力考试正式开始。一听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语，每小题念两遍。听完每句话后，你都有5秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。One thanks for helping in the children's home. Thanks for helping in the children's home. Two, I have been to the history museum twice. I have been to the history museum twice. Three, could I invite some friends to my birthday party next week? Could I invite some friends to my birthday party next week? For it's everyone's job to protect the wild animals. It's everyone's job to protect the wild animals. Five, let's go to the library to borrow the book the old men and the sea. Let's go to the library to borrow the book the old man and the sea. 2、听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。在答题卡上只需填图代表图片的字母，每小题念两遍。听前你将有5秒钟的读图时间，听完后每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。Six, he puts some medicine on the cut and then bandaged IT. He puts the medicine on the cut and then banned IT. Seven journey to the west is my favorite book, and I like monkey king best. Journey to the west is my favorite book, and I like monkey king best. Eight, he was waiting for the bus when the heavy rain came. SHE was waiting for the bus when the heavy rain came. Nine, Sarah bought something useful in a yard sale at a very good prize. Sarah bought something useful in a yard sale at a very good Price. Ten, you could communicate with your parents so that they can understand you Better. You could communicate with your parents so that they can understand you Better. 3、听下面四段对话，根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案，每小题念两遍。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。听第一段对话，回答第十一、十二题。Dad, can I go to the cinema with ema this afternoon? I've already finished my homework and cleaned the living room. I guess so, but don't forget to walk the dog after you come back. Okay, I will. Could you give me a ride if I walk or take the bus? I'll be late. Sorry, Sarah, I have some work to do. You can take a taxi. All right, dad, can I go to the cinema with emma this afternoon? I've already finished my homework and cleaned the living room. I guess so, but don't forget to walk the dog after you come back. Okay, I will. Could you give me a ride? If I Walker take the bus, i'll be late. Sorry, Sarah, I have some work to do. You can take a taxi. All right? 听第二段对话，回答第十三、十四题。Mike, are you OK not really. Lily, I ate too much ice cream after lunch. Now my stomach hurts. Oh, sounds terrible. Maybe you should drink some hot water and rest. Go to the doctor. If IT doesn't work. I can't. I have to finish this science report before three P. M. You need to rest first. Why don't you explain the situation to miss lee? I think SHE will be understanding. okay. Thanks. mike. Are you OK not really. lily? I ate too much ice cream after lunch. Now my stomach hurts. Oh, sounds terrible. Maybe you should drink some hot water and rest. Go to the doctor. If IT doesn't work. I can't. I have to finish this science report before three P. M. You need to rest first. Why don't you explain the situation to miss lee? I think SHE will be understanding. Okay, thanks. 听第三段对话，回答第15至17题。Hi judie, what are you reading? Hi ben. It's a book full of fun facts about pandas. Oh, I know that pandas are good at swimming and climbing the trees. I once watch the video about IT online. Yes, but did you know that pandas have a sixth finger to help them hold the bamboo? That's amazing. I didn't know that. And they spent about twelve, sixteen hours eating bamboo a day. Sounds interesting. Can I borrow your book after you finish? sure. Hi judie. What are you reading? Hi ben. It's a book full of fun facts about pandas as. oh, I know that pandas are good at swimming and climbing the trees. I want to watch the video about IT online. Yes, but did you know that pandas have a sixth finger to help them hold the bamboo? That's amazing. I didn't know that. and they spent about twelve, sixteen hours eating bamboo a day. Sounds interesting. Can I borrow your book after you finish? sure. 听第四段对话，回答第18至20题。What kind of music do you like best? Lucy. pop music. I always listen to IT when i'm doing chores. How about you? Tom, I used to like rock, but now i'm a big fan of country music. I always listen to IT when i'm running, but I never listen to music when doing homework. That's interesting. By the way, have you been to a live concert? never. But I hope to go someday. How about going to the concert in river park this saturday with me? I'd love to, but I will volunteer to help in an animal hospital in the morning and visit the old people in the afternoon. Don't worry, the concert doesn't start until eight. P. M. great. Then let's go together. What kind of music do you like best? Lucy. pop music. I always listen to IT when i'm doing chores. How about you, tom? I used to like rock, but now i'm a big fan of country music. I always listen to IT when i'm running, but I never listen to music when doing homework. That's interesting. By the way, have you been to a live concert? never. But I hope to go someday. How about going to the concert in river park this saturday with me? I'd love to, but I will volunteer to help in an animal hospital in the morning and visit the old people in the afternoon. Don't worry, the concert doesn't start until eight. P, M. great. Then let's go together. 4、听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息，短文念三遍，听前你将有25秒钟的读题时间。The twenty twenty five chung ju marathon is coming on october twenty six this year. IT is a big event with about thirty five thousand runners from all over the world taking part to make sure as safe and successful event. We are now looking for volunteers. If you want to be one of us, here are some qualities you need to have. First, good communication skills are important. Speaking english is another necessary skill you need. You should know some simple english. Also, because of long hours of work, you should be in good physical condition, and you must be able to work well in a team. We have two volunteering groups. The service team is to provide runners with water, food and give them encouragement along the way. The medical team's task is to offer first aid and the medicine. When IT is necessary, all volunteers will get trained before the event. You need to take lessons in the classroom and practice outside to make sure you are fully prepared for your rules. If you love sports and enjoy helping others, we warmly welcome you to come and join us. The twenty twenty five chengdu marathon is coming on october twenty six this year. IT is a big event with about thirty five thousand runners from all over the world taking part to make sure a safe and successful event. We are now looking for volunteers. If you want to be one of us, here are some qualities you need to have. First, good communication skills are important. Speaking english is another necessary skill you need. You should know some simple english. Also, because of long hours of work, you should be in good physical condition, and you must be able to work well in a team. We have two volunteering groups. The service team is to provide runners with water, food and give them encouragement along the way. The medical teams task is to offer first date and some medicine. When IT is necessary, all volunteers will get trained before the event. You need to take lessons in the classroom and practice outside to make sure you are fully prepared for your rules. If you love sports and enjoy helping others, we warmly welcome you to come and join us. The twenty twenty five chengdu marathon is coming on october twenty six this year. IT is a big event with about thirty five thousand runners from all over the world taking part to make sure as safe and successful event. We are now looking for volunteers. If you want to be one of us, here are some qualities you need to have. First, good communication skills are important. Speaking english is another necessary skill you need. You should know some simple english. Also, because of long hours of work, you should be in good physical condition, and you must be able to work well in a team. We have two volunteering groups. The service team is to provide runners with water, food and give them encouragement along the way. The medical team's task is to offer first aid and the medicine. When IT is necessary, all volunteers will get trained before the event. You need to take lessons in the classroom and practice outside to make sure you are fully prepared for your roles. If you love sports and enjoy helping others, we warmly welcome you to come and join us. 听力考试到此结束。 2024-2025学年度（下）期末考试 八年级英语 注意事项: 1. 全卷分 A 卷和B 卷。A 卷满分100分, B卷满分 50分; 满分 150分, 考试时间 120 分钟. 2. 在作答前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号和准考证号填在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后, 监考人员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。 3. 选择题部分必须使用2B 铅笔填涂; 非选择题部分必须使用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔书写, 字体工整、笔迹清楚 4. 请按照题号在答题卡各题目对应的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效; 在草稿纸、试卷上答题均无效。 5. 保持答题卡清洁, 不得折叠、污染、破损等。 A卷（共 100 分） 第一部分 听力（共25小题, 计30分） 一、听句子, 根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。（共5小题: 每小题1分, 计5分） 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. That’s a deal. B. You are welcome. C. The same to you. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Good luck. B. So have I. C. Have fun! 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Yes, sure. B. Sorry, I can’t. C. Thanks for asking. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I agree. B. Don’t worry. C. I can’t stand it. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I think so. B. Never mind. C. Sounds like a good idea. 二、 6. 听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片，每小题念两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________ 5. __________ 三、听下面四段对话, 根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每小题念两遍。（共10小题: 每小题1分, 计10分） 听对话，回答下列各题【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 7. What does Sarah need to do after coming back home? A. Finish her homework. B. Clean the living room. C. Walk the dog. 8. How will Sarah get to the cinema? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. On foot. 听对话，回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 9. What caused Mike’s stomachache? A. Not having lunch. B. Drinking hot water. C. Eating too much ice cream. 10. Who may Ms. Li be? A. Mike’s teacher. B. Mike’s mother. C. Mike’s doctor. 听对话，回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What helps Judy know facts about pandas? A. A book. B. A video. C. The Internet. 12. What fact didn’t Ben know about pandas? A. Pandas can swim. B. Pandas can climb trees. C. Pandas have a “sixth finger”. 13. How many facts about pandas do the speakers talk about? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 听对话, 回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. When does Lucy like to listen to her favorite music? A. When she is running. B. When she is doing chores. C. When she is doing homework. 15. What kind of music does Tom like now? A. Pop music. B. Rock music. C. Country music. 16. What is Tom going to do on Saturday evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit the old people. C. Help in an animal hospital. 四、 听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息，短文念三遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 2025 Chengdu Marathon (马拉松) Volunteers Wanted Date of the event On ___17___. Qualities you need to have ·Good communication skills are necessary. ·You should be able to speak ___18___ English. ·Long hours’ work needs good health condition. ·You need to have the ___19___ of teamwork. Tasks of two teams ·The service team: to provide water and food. to ___20___ the runners along the way. ·The medical team: to offer first aid and medicine if needed. ___21___ to prepare for the event Take lessons in the classroom and practice outside. 第二部分 基础知识运用（共 20 小题; 计40分） 五、 阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A. raise money B. the importance of C. make a difference D. took part in E. in the face of challenges Last month, students in Class Three decided to organize a charity (慈善) activity to help children in need. They wanted to ___22___ to buy school things for students in the mountain areas. At first, they were ___23___ like how to plan the event. Some advised to have a charity sale, while others wanted to hold a talent show. Finally, they agreed to do both. Many classmates ___24___ the preparations. On that day, some students sold the old things while some sold the food they made like sandwiches. Some danced and others performed songs. At last, they collected over 2,000 yuan. Their teacher said, “Your kindness can truly ___25___. These things will bring smiles to many children.” The students know better about ___26___ helping others and will keep doing it. 六、 补全对话, 根据对话内容, 从方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。 A: Hey, Lily! Our group project is due tomorrow. ___27___ B: Sorry, I haven’t finished yet. A: ___28___ B: I know, but it’s a little difficult for me. What should we do now? A: ___29___ B: Good idea! How about meeting in Room 3B at 2 p.m.? A: OK. Do you need me to prepare anything? B: Yes. ___30___ Mine doesn’t work. A: No problem. We must work hard this afternoon. B: Of course! ___31___ A. Thanks so much. B. Could you bring your pad? C. Have you finished your part? D. But you promised to do your part last week. E. Maybe we can work on it together this afternoon. 七、完形填空, 阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共 10 小题: 每小题 2分, 计20分） I used to fear running in front of others. Things didn’t change ___32___ something happened to me in Grade Eight. One day, my PE teacher, Mrs. Green, advised me to join the school’s 800-meter race. “You’re a good runner, Lucy! Give it a try,” she said. I felt ___33___ about the idea. My hands would sweat (出汗) when I thought of people watching me. But my best friend, Tina, promised to ___34___ with me every day after school. She ran by my side and cheered me, “You can do it!” The day arrived. At first, I kept up with others, but my legs felt heavier and heavier. I wanted to ___35___. Just then, I heard Tina shouting, “Don’t stop! Keep going!” Her voice gave me energy. I took a deep ___36___ and pushed harder. In the final 100 meters, two runners were in front of me. I tried hard to be faster. To my surprise, I ___37___ them and crossed the finish line first! Tina ran over and held me in her arms. “I knew you could do it!” she said ___38___. This experience offered me an important ___39___: even when things seem hard we should always trust and ___40___ ourselves. Now, whenever I face difficulties, I tell myself, “Just have a try!” Since then, I became ___41___. I even joined the school’s running team and became more outgoing. This event truly made my life different. 32. A. after B. until C. though 33. A. strange B. satisfied C. nervous 34. A. talk B. practice C. compete 35. A. give up B. lie down C. hurry up 36. A. look B. thought C. breath 37. A. missed B. controlled C. passed 38. A. excitedly B. seriously C. suddenly 39. A. lesson B. memory C. progress 40. A. notice B. imagine C. challenge 41. A. busier B. braver C. healthier 第三部分阅读理解（共15小题计30分） 八、阅读下列短文, 根据短文内容选择最佳选项。（共15小题: 每小题2分, 计30分） A I share a bedroom and a desk with my younger sister. She hardly ever keeps quiet. I have to prepare for my exams these days, but I can’t focus my mind on my schoolwork when she’s in the room, too. The desk is always full of her things, so I can’t find my things easily. When I talk with my sister about that, she gets angry. I had a fight with my parents last night. I wanted to practice dancing on weekends with friends. But my parents didn’t allow me to. They think I should spend more time on studying. To be a dancer is always my dream. However, they want me to be a doctor. And they are always comparing me with my classmates. I can’t stand it. Most families argue sometimes. It’s quite normal. You might argue more with your family than with other people because you can offload your feelings to your family and they will still love you. If an argument starts, it’s better to take time out to cool off. When you come back you may see things differently. Write your feelings in a diary to help you understand the argument. Or speak to someone you trust. Talking it through can make you feel better. Don’t worry! Like anything, it takes practice to deal with (处理) arguments. 42. What is Claudia’s younger sister like? A. Noisy and untidy. B. Quiet but untidy. C. Noisy but tidy. 43. Why did Mason have a fight with his parents? A. Because Mason didn’t become a doctor. B. Because his parents always compared him with others. C. Because his parents didn’t allow him to dance on weekends. 44. What picture can best match the meaning of the underlined word “offload”? A. B. C. 45. How many pieces of advice does Dr. Hunt give? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 46. What are they talking about? A. Housework sharing. B. Study pressure. C. Relationship with family. B The Dead Sea lies in the Jordan Rift Valley in southwest Asia, with about 80 kilometres long and 18 kilometres wide at its widest point. What’s interesting is that the Dead Sea isn’t actually a sea. It’s a lake with a salt concentration (浓度) of more than 30 percent. That is about eight times saltier than typical seawater. The Dead Sea stays so salty due to its special natural conditions. It is the lowest point on Earth’s land so there is no outlet for the Dead Sea. Each year, it receives very little rainfall. And the hot weather around the Dead Sea causes the fresh water to evaporate quickly. That makes the salt concentration even higher. For these reasons, it is also known as the Salt Sea. If you were to swim in the Dead Sea, you wouldn’t see any sea life. The high salt concentration makes it impossible for them to live there. That’s actually why it’s called the Dead Sea. However, don’t let the name scare you. Even if you fall into the Dead Sea and can’t swim, you won’t die. The high concentration of salt in the Dead Sea allows anyone to float well, without the need for swim rings. In fact, many people visit the Dead Sea every year on vacation. They like floating in the water, reading books or magazines. But too many visitors also cause some pollution. The Dead Sea may face more challenges. 47. How does the writer start the passage? A By giving examples. B. By asking questions. C. By showing some facts. 48. What causes the Dead Sea to have such a high salt concentration? ①Low sea level ②Little rainfall ③Hot weather ④Human activities A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①③④ 49. Which of the following was answered in the passage? A. How deep is the Dead Sea? B. Why can people float in the Dead Sea? C. When was the best time to visit the Dead Sea? 50 What can we infer from the passage? A. The Dead Sea will become less salty in the future. B. Plants and animals are growing more in the Dead Sea. C. The salt concentration of typical seawater is about 3.5%. 51. In which part of the newspaper do you probably see the passage? A. History. B. Nature. C. Culture. C a West Village Courtyard in Chengdu is a city complex for shopping, dining and having fun. The most eye-catching part is that it looks like the letter C, giving an opening view and creating a comfortable inside space. There are many green bamboo plants growing all around. People chat or drink tea in the bamboo forest, making it full of “slow-life” style. b Shanghai Xintiandi was once a group of old houses—cool but broken. Designers kept the houses’ old style outside, but made their insides new. Dark rooms became bright cafes and empty yards turned into lively shops. Xintiandi is a place where the tradition meets the modernity. Visitors come to eat, shop and take photos of the old buildings. c In Anhui Province, a small village called Xicun has become a hit on the Internet. Xicun used to be a poor village on farming. Since 2016, big changes have taken place. Villagers built art spaces, outdoor theatres and cafes there. These bring tourists and improve villagers’ life. Because of that, more and more villagers who left before are coming back home. d Hangzhou’s “City Brain” is a smart system that helps with traffic control and government service with AI. For example, it collects real-time data from traffic lights, cameras, and GPS in cars. With its help, cars can move 11% faster on the roads. Experts say that the City Brain can deal with kinds of public events in real time, making the city work better and people’s life easier. 52. What is the most special part of West Village Courtyard in Chengdu? A. Its shape. B. Comfortable inner space. C. The bamboo plants. 53. Why does the writer say “Xintiandi is a place where the tradition meets the modernity” in passage b? A. Because Shanghai is a modern city. B. Because the stone buildings are very old. C. Because it mixes old style with modern life. 54. What does the underlined word “that” in passage c refer to? A. Becoming a hit on the Internet. B. The improvement of villagers’ life. C. Building art space, theatre and cafes. 55. How does Hangzhou’s “City Brain” work according to passage d? A. By doing with real-time data. B. By controlling traffic lights. C. By asking experts for help. 56. What is the best title shared by the four passages? A. Technology changes life. B. Creative ideas for better living. C. Bring tradition to modern life. B卷（共50分） 一、短文填空。 从下面方框中选出 10个单词, 将其正确形式填入短文, 使短文意思正确通顺（每词限用一次）。 against certain fit night object proper provide strong they turn weak what Have you wondered what it would be like to live in space? The following will explain astronauts’ daily life. Food is necessary for humans, ___57___ the situation is. Astronauts would prepare plenty of food when going into space and make sure to store them ___58___ . They have to eat food in special ways. So far, the space station has ___59___ astronauts with ovens to heat their meals. In the future, technology may offer more convenience. After a long day at work, nothing is better than a good ___60___ sleep! Just like on the earth, in space astronauts go to bed at a ___61___ time, then get up and prepare for work again. They usually sleep in small crew cabins (乘员舱). When going to sleep, they have to be in a sleeping bag so that they don’t float around or hit their bodies ___62___ something. Exercise is also an important part. Astronauts’ bodies will become ___63___ day by day without enough exercise. Every day, they must work out for two hours ___64___ in the space environment. Taking weights on the earth may be hard. But taking the same ___65___ in space would be much easier. That means exercise equipment in space station has to be specially designed. Living in space is not just all work and no play. There are also many ways for astronauts to enjoy ___66___ , whether by looking out the window or playing with floating food. All these moments make the life in space amazing and special. 二、补全短文。 根据短文内容，从短文后A~F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。 I really like jazz, but I’m not an expert. Some people think it’s unusual because not many young people and teenagers listen to jazz. ___67___ When I was little, my dad introduced me to the music. He knew many different kinds of music, but he introduced me to jazz most. ___68___ He was happily listening and humming jazz when he drove me to school. ___69___ I would say in 8th grade, when I decided to join the school jazz band. Every day after school, our band would meet for 45 minutes and play many pieces. That really opened my eyes to different kinds of jazz music. And I can tell you that jazz is much harder to play than concert band music. If you want to show your skills, you should join a jazz band. ___70___ Our school had two jazz bands, Jazz 1 and Jazz 2. Jazz 2 was for less able players, while Jazz 1 was the school’s flagship jazz band. It played at many events and took part in competitions. I was in Jazz 2 for my first two years and moved up to Jazz 1 in my third year. Since leaving high school, my love for jazz has only grown. ___71___ It helped me fight off homesickness, taking me back to my childhood when my father drove me around. Now I’m in the third year at college, doing well in many ways. Thanks to jazz, I’ve become who I am today. A. So why do I love it? B. I am far from being an expert of jazz. C. When did I really fall in love with jazz? D. Listening and playing it are still part of my life. E. I still have lots of memories of his love for jazz. F. In high school, jazz kept to be one of my hobbies. 三、阅读表达。（共10小题, 计20分） A. 完成图表。 A Swedish (瑞典的) slow TV program called The Great Moose Migration (驼鹿大迁徙) has become very popular. This slow TV program started in 2019 and livestreamed (直播) the moose migration. The idea for it came from Bergensbanen, a program in Norway (挪威). The seven-hour program about a train ride through snowy areas drew many people’s attention in 2009. Seeing how successful it is, Johan Erhag and Stefan Edlund, the producers (制片人) decided to create something like that. Then they chose to film the moose migration. The moose is Sweden’s largest animal, with about 300,000 of them in the country. A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and weigh 450 kilograms. However, moose are typically shy, and adult moose don’t like to live in groups. People don’t see them very often. The first appearance of the program drew nearly a million viewers’ attention, and by 2024, the number had risen to 9 million. This year it’s getting more popular. The Great Moose Migration began on April 15 and continued until May 4. It ran for 24 hours a day, allowing viewers to watch the moose whenever they want. One Facebook fan page about the moose migration has grown to 78,000 members. For hours at a time, not much happens on the livestream, but fans say that’s the beauty of it — it allows them to relax. Even the production team felt the peace in heart. “Everyone who works with it goes down in their normal stress,” one procedure said, after hours of watching the quiet wilderness. A Slow TV Program — The Great Moose Migration The start of it The ___72___ of a slow TV program in Norway led to the ideas of producing The Great Moose Migration. The ___73___ of it *The livestream started in 2019 with nearly a million people watching. *In 2024, the production hit 9 million viewers. *This year, the program ran ___74___ from April 15 to May 4. Fans on the Internet had been over 78,000. Feelings about it *People felt new and fresh because they hardly see moose in life. *People felt relaxed when seeing the journey. *The production team felt ___75___ and less stressed when working. Some facts about the moose *The moose is larger than any other animal in Sweden. *A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and 450 kilograms in weight. *The moose are shy and would like to stay ___76___. B. 任务型阅读。 根据短文内容, 按要求回答问题。 Have you ever heard of an AED? AED means Automated External Defibrillator (自动体外除颤器). When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating—an AED can restart it. This small medical machine is truly a life-saver. Using an AED isn’t as hard as many people think! Using it includes just a few steps. First, turn on the AED. It will give both voice and visual (视觉的) instructions (指令). Next, put the sticky pads on the person’s chest. Make sure to place them where the AED shows. These pads allow the AED to check whether the heart is working well. Then, move away and don’t touch the person until the AED gives another instruction. If the AED says “shock advised”, make sure no one is touching the person, then press the shock button. If not, follow the AED’s instructions for CP (chest compression) before the doctors arrive. Actually, you can find an AED in many public places. In schools, you can usually find it near the gym or the school office. In shopping malls, check the information desks. At airports, look for it on the walls. It is usually marked with a heart symbol, making it easy to be found. AEDs are important. Every second counts when a sudden heart stop happens. With an AED, we can help save lives even before the doctors arrive. More and more places are getting AEDs, and more people are learning how to use them. This way, we can be ready to help if someone around us has a heart problem. 77. When do we need to use an AED? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 78. What two kinds of instructions does an AED give? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 79. How many steps do people use an AED to save a person? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 80. What have you learned from this passage besides (除了) when and how we use an AED? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 81. What do you think of the invention of AEDs? And why? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 四、书面表达（计15分） 82. 你校英语社团就“Should teenagers clear out old things?”为主题开展征文活动。本周你们班的同学就此开展了讨论，请根据以下图示写一篇英语短文投稿。 要求： 1. 短文须反映图文信息： 论点清晰，论据充分。结合生活实例: 2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称 3. 词数： 80 词左右。 Should teenagers clear out old things? ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024-2025学年度（下）期末考试 八年级英语 注意事项: 1. 全卷分 A 卷和B 卷。A 卷满分100分, B卷满分 50分; 满分 150分, 考试时间 120 分钟. 2. 在作答前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号和准考证号填在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后, 监考人员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。 3. 选择题部分必须使用2B 铅笔填涂; 非选择题部分必须使用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔书写, 字体工整、笔迹清楚 4. 请按照题号在答题卡各题目对应的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效; 在草稿纸、试卷上答题均无效。 5. 保持答题卡清洁, 不得折叠、污染、破损等。 A卷（共 100 分） 第一部分 听力（共25小题, 计30分） 一、听句子, 根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。（共5小题: 每小题1分, 计5分） 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. That’s a deal. B. You are welcome. C. The same to you. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】Thanks for helping in the children’s home. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Good luck. B. So have I. C. Have fun! 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】I have been to the history museum twice. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Yes, sure. B. Sorry, I can’t. C. Thanks for asking. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】Could I invite some friends to my birthday party next week? 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I agree. B. Don’t worry. C. I can’t stand it. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】It’s everyone’s job to protect the wild animals. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I think so. B. Never mind. C. Sounds like a good idea. 【答案】C 【解析】 【原文】Let’s go to the library to borrow the book The Old Man and the Sea. 二、 6. 听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片，每小题念两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________ 5. __________ 【答案】 ①. B ②. A ③. E ④. D ⑤. C 【解析】 【原文】1. He put some medicine on the cut and then bandaged it. 2. Journey to the West is my favorite book and I like Monkey King best. 3. She was waiting for the bus, when the heavy rain came. 4. Sarah bought something useful in a yard sale at a very good price. 5. You could communicate with your parents so that they can understand you better. 三、听下面四段对话, 根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每小题念两遍。（共10小题: 每小题1分, 计10分） 听对话，回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 7. What does Sarah need to do after coming back home? A. Finish her homework. B. Clean the living room. C. Walk the dog. 8. How will Sarah get to the cinema? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. On foot. 【答案】7. C 8. B 【解析】 【原文】W: Dad, can I go to the cinema with Emma this afternoon? I’ve already finished my homework and cleaned the living room. M: I guess so, but don’t forget to walk the dog after you come back. W: Okay, I will. Could you give me a ride? If I walk or take the bus, I’ll be late. M: Sorry, Sarah. I have some work to do. You can take a taxi. W: All right. 听对话，回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 9. What caused Mike’s stomachache? A. Not having lunch. B. Drinking hot water. C. Eating too much ice cream. 10. Who may Ms. Li be? A. Mike’s teacher. B. Mike’s mother. C. Mike’s doctor. 【答案】9. C 10. A 【解析】 【原文】W: Mike, are you okay? M: Not really, Lily. I ate too much ice cream after lunch. Now my stomach hurts. W: Oh, sounds terrible. Maybe you should drink some hot water and rest. Go to the doctor if it doesn’t work. M: I can’t. I have to finish this science report before three pm. W: You need to rest first. Why don’t you explain the situation to Ms. Li? I think she will be understanding. M: Okay. Thanks. 听对话，回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What helps Judy know facts about pandas? A. A book. B. A video. C. The Internet. 12. What fact didn’t Ben know about pandas? A. Pandas can swim. B. Pandas can climb trees. C. Pandas have a “sixth finger”. 13. How many facts about pandas do the speakers talk about? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 【解析】 【原文】M: Hi, Judy. What are you reading? W: Hi, Ben. It’s a book full of fun facts about pandas. M: Oh, I know that pandas are good at swimming and climbing the trees. I once watched a video about it online. W: Yes, but did you know that pandas have a sixth finger to help them hold the bamboo? M: That’s amazing. I didn’t know that. W: And they spend about twelve to sixteen hours eating bamboos a day. M: Sounds interesting. Can I borrow your book after you finish? W: Sure 听对话, 回答下列各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. When does Lucy like to listen to her favorite music? A. When she is running. B. When she is doing chores. C. When she is doing homework. 15. What kind of music does Tom like now? A. Pop music. B. Rock music. C. Country music. 16. What is Tom going to do on Saturday evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit the old people. C. Help in an animal hospital. 【答案】14. B 15. C 16. A 【解析】 【原文】M: What kind of music do you like best, Lucy? W: Pop music. I always listen to it when I’m doing chores. How about you, Tom? M: I used to like rock, but now I’m a big fan of country music. I always listen to it when I’m running, but I never listen to music when doing homework. W: That’s interesting. By the way, have you been to a live concert? M: Never, but I hope to go some day. W: How about going to the concert in river park this Saturday with me? M: I’d love to, but I’ll volunteer to help in an animal hospital in the morning and visit the old people in the afternoon. W: Don’t worry. The concert doesn’t start until eight p.m. M: Great. Then let’s go together. 四、 听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息，短文念三遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 2025 Chengdu Marathon (马拉松) Volunteers Wanted Date of the event On ___17___. Qualities you need to have ·Good communication skills are necessary. ·You should be able to speak ___18___ English. ·Long hours’ work needs good health condition. ·You need to have the ___19___ of teamwork. Tasks of two teams ·The service team: to provide water and food. to ___20___ the runners along the way. ·The medical team: to offer first aid and medicine if needed. ___21___ to prepare for the event Take lessons in the classroom and practice outside. 【答案】17. October 26th##26th October 18 some simple 19. spirit 20. encourage##give encouragement to 21. Training 【解析】 【原文】 The 2025 Chengdu Marathon is coming on October 26th this year. It is a big event with about thirty-five thousand runners from all over the world taking part. To make sure a safe and successful event, we are now looking for volunteers. If you want to be one of us, here are some qualities you need to have. First, good communication skills are important. Speaking English is another necessary skill you need. You should know some simple English. Also because of long hours of work you should be in good physical condition. And you must be able to work well in a team. We have two volunteering groups. The service team is to provide runners with water, food and give them encouragement along the way. The medical team’s task is to offer first aid and some medicine when it is necessary. All volunteers will get trained before the event. You need to take lessons in the classroom and practice outside to make sure you are fully prepared for your roles. If you love sports and enjoy helping others, we warmly welcome you to come and join us. 第二部分 基础知识运用（共 20 小题; 计40分） 五、 阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A. raise money B. the importance of C. make a difference D. took part in E. in the face of challenges Last month, students in Class Three decided to organize a charity (慈善) activity to help children in need. They wanted to ___22___ to buy school things for students in the mountain areas. At first, they were ___23___ like how to plan the event. Some advised to have a charity sale, while others wanted to hold a talent show. Finally, they agreed to do both. Many classmates ___24___ the preparations. On that day, some students sold the old things while some sold the food they made like sandwiches. Some danced and others performed songs. At last, they collected over 2,000 yuan. Their teacher said, “Your kindness can truly ___25___. These things will bring smiles to many children.” The students know better about ___26___ helping others and will keep doing it. 【答案】22. A 23. E 24. D 25. C 26. B 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了三班学生组织慈善活动帮助贫困山区儿童的故事。他们为了筹集购买学习用品的资金，克服了活动策划方面的挑战，最终通过义卖和才艺表演筹集到2000多元。这次活动让学生们体会到帮助他人的重要性，并表示会继续坚持下去。 【22题详解】 句意：他们想筹钱为山区的学生购买学习用品。根据空后“to buy school things for students in the mountain areas.”以及选项可知，此处表示筹集资金。raise money“募款、筹钱”。故选A。 【23题详解】 句意：起初，他们面临像如何计划活动这样的挑战。根据“they were...like how to plan the event.”以及选项可知，此处表示面临像如何计划活动这样的挑战。in the face of challenges“面临挑战”。故选E。 【24题详解】 句意：许多同学参加了准备工作。根据“Many classmates...the preparations.”以及选项可知，此处表示参加了准备工作。take part in“参加”，时态为一般过去时，陈述过去发生的事，谓语动词用过去式took。故选D。 【25题详解】 句意：你的善意真的能起作用。根据下一句“These things will bring smiles to many children.”以及选项可知，此处表示你的善意真的能起作用。make a difference“起作用、有影响”。故选C。 【26题详解】 句意：学生们更了解帮助他人的重要性，并将继续这样做。根据前两句老师的话“Your kindness can truly...These things will bring smiles to many children.”以及选项可知，此处表示学生们更了解帮助他人的重要性。the importance of“……的重要性”。故选B。 六、 补全对话, 根据对话内容, 从方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。 A: Hey, Lily! Our group project is due tomorrow. ___27___ B: Sorry, I haven’t finished yet. A: ___28___ B: I know, but it’s a little difficult for me. What should we do now? A: ___29___ B: Good idea! How about meeting in Room 3B at 2 p.m.? A: OK. Do you need me to prepare anything? B: Yes. ___30___ Mine doesn’t work. A: No problem. We must work hard this afternoon. B: Of course! ___31___ A. Thanks so much. B. Could you bring your pad? C. Have you finished your part? D. But you promised to do your part last week. E. Maybe we can work on it together this afternoon. 【答案】27. C 28. D 29. E 30. B 31. A 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了Lily没有完成小组任务，A给予帮助，从而强调了团队协作的重要性。 【27题详解】 根据“Sorry, I haven’t finished yet.”可知，此处询问是否完成小组项目，C项“你的部分完成了吗？”符合语境。故选C。 【28题详解】 根据“Sorry, I haven’t finished yet.”可知，Lily未按时自己的部分，此处A应表达轻微责备语气，结合备选项，D项“但你上周答应过会做你的部分的。”符合语境。故选D。 【29题详解】 根据“What should we do now?”可知，此处A应该给出解决办法，E项“也许我们今天下午可以一起做。”符合语境。故选E。 【30题详解】 根据“Do you need me to prepare anything?”和“Yes.”可知，A问是否需要准备，B需提出具体需求，B项“你能把你的笔记本带来吗？”符合语境。故选B。 【31题详解】 根据“No problem. We must work hard this afternoon.”可知，A给予B帮助，B应该表达感谢，A项“非常感谢。”符合语境。故选A。 七、完形填空, 阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共 10 小题: 每小题 2分, 计20分） I used to fear running in front of others. Things didn’t change ___32___ something happened to me in Grade Eight. One day, my PE teacher, Mrs. Green, advised me to join the school’s 800-meter race. “You’re a good runner, Lucy! Give it a try,” she said. I felt ___33___ about the idea. My hands would sweat (出汗) when I thought of people watching me. But my best friend, Tina, promised to ___34___ with me every day after school. She ran by my side and cheered me, “You can do it!” The day arrived. At first, I kept up with others, but my legs felt heavier and heavier. I wanted to ___35___. Just then, I heard Tina shouting, “Don’t stop! Keep going!” Her voice gave me energy. I took a deep ___36___ and pushed harder. In the final 100 meters, two runners were in front of me. I tried hard to be faster. To my surprise, I ___37___ them and crossed the finish line first! Tina ran over and held me in her arms. “I knew you could do it!” she said ___38___. This experience offered me an important ___39___: even when things seem hard, we should always trust and ___40___ ourselves. Now, whenever I face difficulties, I tell myself, “Just have a try!” Since then, I became ___41___. I even joined the school’s running team and became more outgoing. This event truly made my life different. 32. A. after B. until C. though 33. A. strange B. satisfied C. nervous 34. A. talk B. practice C. compete 35. A. give up B. lie down C. hurry up 36. A. look B. thought C. breath 37. A. missed B. controlled C. passed 38. A. excitedly B. seriously C. suddenly 39. A. lesson B. memory C. progress 40. A. notice B. imagine C. challenge 41. A. busier B. braver C. healthier 【答案】32. B 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. B 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述露西从害怕在他人面前跑步到通过朋友鼓励赢得比赛，最终变得勇敢自信的成长故事。 【32题详解】 句意：直到八年级发生了一件事，情况才改变。 after在……之后；until直到；though尽管。根据前文“used to fear”和“didn’t change”可知是“直到某事发生才改变”，故选B。 【33题详解】 句意：我对这个想法感到紧张。 strange奇怪的；satisfied满意的；nervous紧张的。根据“My hands would sweat (出汗) when I thought of people watching me.”可知，“手出汗”是紧张的表现，故选C。 【34题详解】 句意：但好友蒂娜承诺每天放学后陪我练习。 talk交谈；practice练习；compete竞争。根据“ran by my side”可知是陪练，故选B。 【35题详解】 句意：我想放弃。 give up放弃；lie down躺下；hurry up赶快。根据“Don’t stop! Keep going!”可知，蒂娜喊“别停”说明我当时想放弃，故选A。 【36题详解】 句意：我深吸一口气，奋力加速。 look看；thought想法；breath呼吸。take a breath固定搭配，故选C。 【37题详解】 句意：令我惊讶的是，我超过了他们并第一个冲过终点。 missed错过；controlled控制；passed超过。根据“crossed the finish line first”可知是超越，故选C。 【38题详解】 句意：“我就知道你能赢！”她兴奋地说道。 excitedly兴奋地；seriously严肃地；suddenly突然地。根据“held me in her arms”的喜悦动作可知是兴奋，故选A。 【39题详解】 句意：这段经历让我明白了一个重要道理：即使事情看似艰难，我们也要相信自己、挑战自我。 lesson教训/课；memory记忆；progress进步。后文“trust...ourselves”是总结出的道理，故选A。 【40题详解】 句意：这段经历让我明白了一个重要道理：即使事情看似艰难，我们也要相信自己、挑战自我。 notice注意；imagine想象；challenge挑战。C选项challenge与“trust”并列，且符合“have a try”的主题，故选C。 【41题详解】 句意：从此我变得更勇敢。 busier更忙；braver更勇敢；healthier更健康。全文围绕克服恐惧，且“outgoing”体现勇气，故选B。 第三部分阅读理解（共15小题计30分） 八、阅读下列短文, 根据短文内容选择最佳选项。（共15小题: 每小题2分, 计30分） A I share a bedroom and a desk with my younger sister. She hardly ever keeps quiet. I have to prepare for my exams these days, but I can’t focus my mind on my schoolwork when she’s in the room, too. The desk is always full of her things, so I can’t find my things easily. When I talk with my sister about that, she gets angry. I had a fight with my parents last night. I wanted to practice dancing on weekends with friends. But my parents didn’t allow me to. They think I should spend more time on studying. To be a dancer is always my dream. However, they want me to be a doctor. And they are always comparing me with my classmates. I can’t stand it. Most families argue sometimes. It’s quite normal. You might argue more with your family than with other people because you can offload your feelings to your family and they will still love you. If an argument starts, it’s better to take time out to cool off. When you come back you may see things differently. Write your feelings in a diary to help you understand the argument. Or speak to someone you trust. Talking it through can make you feel better. Don’t worry! Like anything, it takes practice to deal with (处理) arguments. 42. What is Claudia’s younger sister like? A. Noisy and untidy. B. Quiet but untidy. C. Noisy but tidy. 43. Why did Mason have a fight with his parents? A. Because Mason didn’t become a doctor. B. Because his parents always compared him with others. C. Because his parents didn’t allow him to dance on weekends. 44. What picture can best match the meaning of the underlined word “offload”? A. B. C. 45. How many pieces of advice does Dr. Hunt give? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 46. What are they talking about? A. Housework sharing. B. Study pressure. C. Relationship with family. 【答案】42. A 43. C 44. B 45. A 46. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述Claudia和Mason各自与家人之间发生矛盾，以及Dr. Hunt给出相应的建议。 【42题详解】 细节理解题。根据“my younger sister. She hardly ever keeps quiet…The desk is always full of her things, so I can’t find my things easily.”可知，Claudia的妹妹又吵又乱。故选A。 【43题详解】 细节理解题。根据“I had a fight with my parents last night. I wanted to practice dancing on weekends with friends. But my parents didn’t allow me to.”可知，争吵的原因是因为他父母不允许他在周末跳舞。故选C。 【44题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“You might argue more with your family than with other people because you can offload your feelings to your family and they will still love you.”可知，你之所以更容易和家人争吵，而非其他人，是因为既能在家人面前宣泄情绪，又始终被他们包容爱护，所以划线部分的含义是“卸下；卸货”。故选B。 【45题详解】 细节理解题。根据“If an argument starts, it’s better to take time out to cool off…Write your feelings in a diary to help you understand the argument. Or speak to someone you trust.”可知，给出了三条建议。故选A。 【46题详解】 主旨大意题。通读全文可知，本文主要讲述Claudia和Mason各自与家人之间发生矛盾，以及Dr. Hunt给出相应的建议。故选C。 B The Dead Sea lies in the Jordan Rift Valley in southwest Asia, with about 80 kilometres long and 18 kilometres wide at its widest point. What’s interesting is that the Dead Sea isn’t actually a sea. It’s a lake with a salt concentration (浓度) of more than 30 percent. That is about eight times saltier than typical seawater. The Dead Sea stays so salty due to its special natural conditions. It is the lowest point on Earth’s land so there is no outlet for the Dead Sea. Each year, it receives very little rainfall. And the hot weather around the Dead Sea causes the fresh water to evaporate quickly. That makes the salt concentration even higher. For these reasons, it is also known as the Salt Sea. If you were to swim in the Dead Sea you wouldn’t see any sea life. The high salt concentration makes it impossible for them to live there. That’s actually why it’s called the Dead Sea. However, don’t let the name scare you. Even if you fall into the Dead Sea and can’t swim, you won’t die. The high concentration of salt in the Dead Sea allows anyone to float well, without the need for swim rings. In fact, many people visit the Dead Sea every year on vacation. They like floating in the water, reading books or magazines. But too many visitors also cause some pollution. The Dead Sea may face more challenges. 47. How does the writer start the passage? A. By giving examples. B. By asking questions. C. By showing some facts. 48. What causes the Dead Sea to have such a high salt concentration? ①Low sea level ②Little rainfall ③Hot weather ④Human activities A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①③④ 49. Which of the following was answered in the passage? A. How deep is the Dead Sea? B. Why can people float in the Dead Sea? C. When was the best time to visit the Dead Sea? 50. What can we infer from the passage? A. The Dead Sea will become less salty in the future. B. Plants and animals are growing more in the Dead Sea. C. The salt concentration of typical seawater is about 3.5%. 51. In which part of the newspaper do you probably see the passage? A. History. B. Nature. C. Culture. 【答案】47. C 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了死海的地理位置、并非海洋的属性、高盐浓度的成因、没有海洋生物的原因、能使人漂浮的特点以及面临的挑战等内容。 【47题详解】 推理判断题。文章开头提到“The Dead Sea lies in the Jordan Rift Valley in southwest Asia, with about 80 kilometres long and 18 kilometres wide at its widest point. What’s interesting is that the Dead Sea isn’t actually a sea. It’s a lake with a salt concentration of more than 30 percent. That is about eight times saltier than typical seawater.”，这些都是关于死海的事实陈述。可知，作者是通过展示一些事实来开始这篇文章的。故选C。 【48题详解】 细节理解题。根据“It is the lowest point on Earth’s land so there is no outlet for the Dead Sea. Each year, it receives very little rainfall. And the hot weather around the Dead Sea causes the fresh water to evaporate quickly. That makes the salt concentration even higher.”可知，死海盐浓度高的原因包括低海拔（没有出口）、少降雨、炎热天气，不包括人类活动。故选①②③，即A。 【49题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The high concentration of salt in the Dead Sea allows anyone to float well, without the need for swim rings.”可知，文章回答了人们为什么能在死海里漂浮。故选B。 【50题详解】 推理判断题。根据“It’s a lake with a salt concentration of more than 30 percent. That is about eight times saltier than typical seawater.”可推算，普通海水的盐浓度约为30%÷8≈3.75%，与选项中“about 3.5%”接近，可推断该说法合理。故选C。 【51题详解】 推理判断题。文章主要介绍了死海的地理位置、盐浓度高的原因、特点等自然相关内容。可知，这篇文章可能出现在报纸的自然版块。故选B。 C a West Village Courtyard in Chengdu is a city complex for shopping, dining and having fun. The most eye-catching part is that it looks like the letter C, giving an opening view and creating a comfortable inside space. There are many green bamboo plants growing all around. People chat or drink tea in the bamboo forest, making it full of “slow-life” style. b Shanghai Xintiandi was once a group of old houses—cool but broken. Designers kept the houses’ old style outside, but made their insides new. Dark rooms became bright cafes and empty yards turned into lively shops. Xintiandi is a place where the tradition meets the modernity. Visitors come to eat, shop and take photos of the old buildings. c In Anhui Province, a small village called Xicun has become a hit on the Internet. Xicun used to be a poor village on farming. Since 2016, big changes have taken place. Villagers built art spaces, outdoor theatres and cafes there. These bring tourists and improve villagers’ life. Because of that, more and more villagers who left before are coming back home. d Hangzhou’s “City Brain” is a smart system that helps with traffic control and government service with AI. For example, it collects real-time data from traffic lights, cameras, and GPS in cars. With its help, cars can move 11% faster on the roads. Experts say that the City Brain can deal with kinds of public events in real time, making the city work better and people’s life easier. 52. What is the most special part of West Village Courtyard in Chengdu? A. Its shape. B. Comfortable inner space. C. The bamboo plants. 53. Why does the writer say “Xintiandi is a place where the tradition meets the modernity” in passage b? A. Because Shanghai is a modern city. B. Because the stone buildings are very old. C. Because it mixes old style with modern life. 54. What does the underlined word “that” in passage c refer to? A. Becoming a hit on the Internet. B. The improvement of villagers’ life. C. Building art space, theatre and cafes. 55. How does Hangzhou’s “City Brain” work according to passage d? A. By doing with real-time data. B. By controlling traffic lights. C. By asking experts for help. 56. What is the best title shared by the four passages? A. Technology changes life. B. Creative ideas for better living. C. Bring tradition to modern life. 【答案】52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. B 【解析】 【导语】本文通过四个例子介绍如何用创意或技术让生活更美好。 【52题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The most eye-catching part is that it looks like the letter C, giving an opening view and creating a comfortable inside space.”可知，成都西村大院最特别的地方是它的形状。故选A。 53题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Designers kept the houses’ old style outside, but made their insides new…Xintiandi is a place where the tradition meets the modernity.”可知，此处体现了旧与新结合。故选C。 【54题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“These bring tourists and improve villagers’ life. Because of that, more and more villagers who left before are coming back home.”可知，这些带来了游客，改善了村民的生活。正因为如此，越来越多以前离开的村民回家了，所以that指代“村民生活得到改善”，故选B。 【55题详解】 细节理解题。根据“For example, it collects real-time data from traffic lights, cameras, and GPS in cars.”可知，杭州“城市大脑”通过获取交通灯、摄像头、车辆GPS等实时数据来运行。故选A。 【56题详解】 最佳标题题。通读全文可知，本文通过四个例子介绍如何用创意或技术让生活更美好。故选B。 B卷（共50分） 一、短文填空。 从下面方框中选出 10个单词, 将其正确形式填入短文, 使短文意思正确通顺（每词限用一次）。 against certain fit night object proper provide strong they turn weak what Have you wondered what it would be like to live in space? The following will explain astronauts’ daily life. Food is necessary for humans, ___57___ the situation is. Astronauts would prepare plenty of food when going into space and make sure to store them ___58___ . They have to eat food in special ways. So far, the space station has ___59___ astronauts with ovens to heat their meals. In the future, technology may offer more convenience. After a long day at work, nothing is better than a good ___60___ sleep! Just like on the earth, in space astronauts go to bed at a ___61___ time, then get up and prepare for work again. They usually sleep in small crew cabins (乘员舱). When going to sleep, they have to be in a sleeping bag so that they don’t float around or hit their bodies ___62___ something. Exercise is also an important part. Astronauts’ bodies will become ___63___ day by day without enough exercise. Every day, they must work out for two hours ___64___ in the space environment. Taking weights on the earth may be hard. But taking the same ___65___ in space would be much easier. That means exercise equipment in space station has to be specially designed. Living in space is not just all work and no play. There are also many ways for astronauts to enjoy ___66___ , whether by looking out the window or playing with floating food. All these moments make the life in space amazing and special. 【答案】57. whatever 58. properly 59. provided 60. night’s 61. certain 62. against 63. weaker 64. to fit 65. object##objects 66. themselves 【解析】 【导语】本文介绍了宇航员在太空中的日常生活，展现了太空生活的特殊性和适应太空环境的各种细节，体现了科技对太空生活的支持及宇航员在太空中的生活状态。 【57题详解】 句意：无论情况如何，食物对人类来说都是必要的。根据“the situation is”可知，此处需引导让步状语从句，“whatever”引导让步状语从句，表示“无论情况如何”，符合语境。故填whatever。 【58题详解】 句意：宇航员进入太空时会准备充足的食物，并确保将它们适当地储存。根据“store them”可知，此处需用副词修饰“store”，表示“适当地”储存食物，“proper”的副词形式“properly”。故填properly。 【59题详解】 句意：到目前为止，空间站已经为宇航员提供了烤箱来加热食物。“provide sb. with sth.”为固定短语，意为“为某人提供某物”，句子时态为现在完成时，“provide”的过去分词为“provided”。故填provided。 【60题详解】 句意：在漫长的一天工作后，没有什么比一夜好眠更好的了！根据“sleep”可知，此处指“夜晚的”睡眠，所以用名词所有格形式。故填night’s。 【61题详解】 句意：就像在地球上一样，在太空中宇航员在特定的时间上床睡觉，然后起床再准备工作。根据“go to bed at a... time”可知，此处指“特定的”时间，certain“特定的”，形容词，修饰“time”，表示宇航员有固定的睡眠时间。故填certain。 【62题详解】 句意：睡觉时，他们必须躺在睡袋里，这样就不会飘来飘去或让身体撞到东西。“hit... against...”为固定搭配，意为“使……撞到……”，此处指身体撞到某物。故填against。 【63题详解】 句意：如果没有足够的锻炼，宇航员的身体会一天天变得虚弱。根据“without enough exercise”可知，身体会变得“更虚弱”，所以用比较级形式，weak的比较级是“weaker”。故填weaker。 【64题详解】 句意：每天，他们必须锻炼两小时以适应太空环境。根据“in the space environment”可知，锻炼是为了“适应”太空环境，fit“适应”，动词，“to fit”表目的。故填to fit。 【65题详解】 句意：但在太空中拿起同样的物体会容易得多。根据前文“Taking weights on the earth”可知，此处指“重物”这一 “物体”，结合“the same”可知用单数或复数形式。故填object(s)。 【66题详解】 句意：宇航员也有很多方式过得愉快，无论是望向窗外还是玩漂浮的食物。“enjoy oneself”为固定短语，意为“过得愉快”，主语“astronauts”是复数，对应的反身代词为“themselves”。故填themselves。 二、补全短文。 根据短文内容，从短文后的A~F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。 I really like jazz, but I’m not an expert. Some people think it’s unusual because not many young people and teenagers listen to jazz. ___67___ When I was little, my dad introduced me to the music. He knew many different kinds of music, but he introduced me to jazz most. ___68___ He was happily listening and humming jazz when he drove me to school. ___69___ I would say in 8th grade, when I decided to join the school jazz band. Every day after school, our band would meet for 45 minutes and play many pieces. That really opened my eyes to different kinds of jazz music. And I can tell you that jazz is much harder to play than concert band music. If you want to show your skills, you should join a jazz band. ___70___ Our school had two jazz bands, Jazz 1 and Jazz 2. Jazz 2 was for less able players, while Jazz 1 was the school’s flagship jazz band. It played at many events and took part in competitions. I was in Jazz 2 for my first two years and moved up to Jazz 1 in my third year. Since leaving high school, my love for jazz has only grown. ___71___ It helped me fight off homesickness, taking me back to my childhood when my father drove me around. Now I’m in the third year at college, doing well in many ways. Thanks to jazz, I’ve become who I am today. A. So why do I love it? B. I am far from being an expert of jazz. C. When did I really fall in love with jazz? D. Listening and playing it are still part of my life. E. I still have lots of memories of his love for jazz. F. In high school, jazz kept to be one of my hobbies. 【答案】67. A 68. E 69. C 70. F 71. D 【解析】 【导语】本文通过个人经历，阐述了爵士乐如何从童年启蒙发展为终身热爱，并深刻塑造了作者的成长轨迹。 【67题详解】 根据“Some people think it’s unusual because not many young people and teenagers listen to jazz.”以及下文介绍作者个人经历可知，此处承上启下，引出作者喜欢爵士乐的原因，选项A“那么，我为什么喜欢它呢？”符合语境。故选A。 【68题详解】 根据“When I was little, my dad introduced me to the music. He knew many different kinds of music, but he introduced me to jazz most…He was happily listening and humming jazz when he drove me to school.”可知，此处介绍作者的父亲对爵士乐的喜爱，选项E“我依然留存着许多关于他热爱爵士乐的回忆。”符合语境。故选E。 【69题详解】 根据“I would say in 8th grade, when I decided to join the school jazz band.”并结合选项可知，此处询问时间，选项C“我什么时候真正爱上爵士乐的？”符合语境。故选C。 【70题详解】 根据“Our school had two jazz bands, Jazz 1 and Jazz 2…”可知，此处主要讲高中时的爵士乐活动与乐队分级，选项F“在高中时，爵士乐一直是我的爱好之一。”符合语境。故选F。 【71题详解】 根据“Since leaving high school, my love for jazz has only grown…It helped me fight off homesickness, taking me back to my childhood when my father drove me around. Now I’m in the third year at college, doing well in many ways.”可知，离开高中后，作者的爵士热情依旧延续，选项D“聆听和演奏它仍然是我生活的一部分。”符合语境。故选D。 三、阅读表达。（共10小题, 计20分） A. 完成图表。 A Swedish (瑞典的) slow TV program called The Great Moose Migration (驼鹿大迁徙) has become very popular. This slow TV program started in 2019 and livestreamed (直播) the moose migration. The idea for it came from Bergensbanen, a program in Norway (挪威). The seven-hour program about a train ride through snowy areas drew many people’s attention in 2009. Seeing how successful it is, Johan Erhag and Stefan Edlund, the producers (制片人) decided to create something like that. Then they chose to film the moose migration. The moose is Sweden’s largest animal, with about 300,000 of them in the country. A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and weigh 450 kilograms. However, moose are typically shy, and adult moose don’t like to live in groups. People don’t see them very often. The first appearance of the program drew nearly a million viewers’ attention, and by 2024, the number had risen to 9 million. This year it’s getting more popular. The Great Moose Migration began on April 15 and continued until May 4. It ran for 24 hours a day, allowing viewers to watch the moose whenever they want. One Facebook fan page about the moose migration has grown to 78,000 members. For hours at a time, not much happens on the livestream, but fans say that’s the beauty of it — it allows them to relax. Even the production team felt the peace in heart. “Everyone who works with it goes down in their normal stress,” one procedure said, after hours of watching the quiet wilderness. A Slow TV Program — The Great Moose Migration The start of it The ___72___ of a slow TV program in Norway led to the ideas of producing The Great Moose Migration. The ___73___ of it *The livestream started in 2019 with nearly a million people watching. *In 2024, the production hit 9 million viewers. *This year, the program ran ___74___ from April 15 to May 4. Fans on the Internet had been over 78,000. Feelings about it *People felt new and fresh because they hardly see moose in life. *People felt relaxed when seeing the journey. *The production team felt ___75___ and less stressed when working. Some facts about the moose *The moose is larger than any other animal in Sweden. *A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and 450 kilograms in weight. *The moose are shy and would like to stay ___76___. 【答案】72. success 73. popularity 74. continuously##without stop##without any stop##without stopping##for 24 hours a day 75. peaceful 76. alone 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍瑞典电视节目《驼鹿大迁徙》。 【72题详解】 根据“The idea for it came from Bergensbanen, a program in Norway (挪威)…Seeing how successful it is, Johan Erhag and Stefan Edlund, the producers (制片人) decided to create something like that.”可知，挪威一档电视节目的成功引发了制作《驼鹿大迁徙》的想法。故填success。 【73题详解】 根据“The first appearance of the program drew nearly a million viewers’ attention...One Facebook fan page about the moose migration has grown to 78,000 members.”可知，此处主要介绍该电视节目的受欢迎程度。故填popularity。 【74题详解】 根据“It ran for 24 hours a day”可知，节目从4月15日到5月4日每天24小时持续播出。故填continuously/without stop/without any stop/without stopping/for 24 hours a day。 【75题详解】 根据“Even the production team felt the peace in heart. ‘Everyone who works with it goes down in their normal stress,’”可知，制作团队在工作时感到平静，压力较小。故填peaceful。 【76题详解】 根据“However, moose are typically shy, and adult moose don’t like to live in groups.”可知，驼鹿很害羞，喜欢独处。故填alone。 B. 任务型阅读。 根据短文内容, 按要求回答问题。 Have you ever heard of an AED? AED means Automated External Defibrillator (自动体外除颤器). When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating—an AED can restart it. This small medical machine is truly a life-saver. Using an AED isn’t as hard as many people think! Using it includes just a few steps. First, turn on the AED. It will give both voice and visual (视觉的) instructions (指令). Next, put the sticky pads on the person’s chest. Make sure to place them where the AED shows. These pads allow the AED to check whether the heart is working well. Then, move away and don’t touch the person until the AED gives another instruction. If the AED says “shock advised”, make sure no one is touching the person, then press the shock button. If not, follow the AED’s instructions for CP (chest compression) before the doctors arrive. Actually, you can find an AED in many public places. In schools, you can usually find it near the gym or the school office. In shopping malls, check the information desks. At airports, look for it on the walls. It is usually marked with a heart symbol, making it easy to be found. AEDs are important. Every second counts when a sudden heart stop happens. With an AED, we can help save lives even before the doctors arrive. More and more places are getting AEDs, and more people are learning how to use them. This way, we can be ready to help if someone around us has a heart problem. 77. When do we need to use an AED? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 78. What two kinds of instructions does an AED give? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 79. How many steps do people use an AED to save a person? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 80. What have you learned from this passage besides (除了) when and how we use an AED? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 81. What do you think of the invention of AEDs? And why? _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】77. When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating. 78. Voice and visual. 79. Four 80. Where we can find an AED and why we need an AED. 81. It’s very useful. Because it can save people’s life when necessary. 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了自动体外除颤器（AED）的用途、使用步骤、可找到的场所及其重要性。 【77题详解】 根据“When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating—an AED can restart it.”可知，当有人的心脏突然停止跳动时需要使用AED。故填When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating. 【78题详解】 根据“First, turn on the AED. It will give both voice and visual (视觉的) instructions (指令).”可知，AED会给出声音和视觉两种指令。故填Voice and visual. 【79题详解】 根据“Using it includes just a few steps. First... Next... Then... If the AED says “shock advised”... If not...”可知，使用AED救人有四个步骤。故填Four. 【80题详解】 根据“Actually, you can find an AED in many public places.”“AEDs are important. Every second counts when a sudden heart stop happens.”可知，除了何时以及如何使用AED，还能了解到AED可以在很多公共场所找到以及AED很重要、心脏骤停时每一秒都很关键等内容。故填Where we can find an AED and why we need an AED. 【81题详解】 根据“This small medical machine is truly a life-saver.”“With an AED, we can help save lives even before the doctors arrive.”可知，AED是非常有用的发明，因为它能在医生到来之前帮助拯救生命，是真正的救命稻草。故填It’s very useful. Because it can save people’s life when necessary. 四、书面表达（计15分） 82. 你校英语社团就“Should teenagers clear out old things?”为主题开展征文活动。本周你们班的同学就此开展了讨论，请根据以下图示写一篇英语短文投稿。 要求： 1. 短文须反映图文信息： 论点清晰，论据充分。结合生活实例: 2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称 3. 词数： 80 词左右。 Should teenagers clear out old things? ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】One possible version: Should teenagers clear out old things? Our class had a discussion about “Should teenagers clear out old things”. Students have different opinions. Some think they should clear out the old things. They think they can give them away to the people in need. However, some students disagree. They want to keep them because the old things are full of sweet memories of childhood. As for me, I want to keep the old things. Firstly, the old things remind me of the happy times as a little kid. Also, I can use old things to make something new. Anyway, let’s think about it carefully before we make a decision. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态以“一般现在时”为主； ③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不要遗漏提示，并适当添加细节，注意字母大小写以及标点符号。 [写作步骤] 第一步、开篇点题，介绍讨论结果； 第二步、介绍自己的观点以及原因； 第三步、书写结语。 [亮点词汇] ①clear out清理 ②give away赠送 ③be full of充满 [高分句型] ①They want to keep them because the old things are full of sweet memories of childhood.(because引导原因状语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$