江苏省南通市海门区学校2024-2025学年高一下学期第二次月考英语试题

2024~2025第二学期诊断性考试 高一英语 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the charge for breakfast at the moment? A. $8. B. $5. C. $3. 2. How did the woman read the book? A. She read it straight through. B. She read the opening chapters. C. She tead the chapters that interested her. 3. Why does the man make the call? A. To reschedule a delivery. B. To make a complaint. C. To ask for a refund. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a taxi. B. At a train station. C. In a hotel. 5. What does the man think of the speech? A. Meaningful. B. Disappointing. C. Exciting. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. The office redesign. B. A workmate. C. Customer satisfaction. 7. What do the speakers agree on? A. The money is well spent. B. The white walls are better C. The chairs are comfortable. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Which apartment will the speakers choose? A. The one on Central Street. B. The one on Park Avenue. C. The one on North Parade. 9. Where will the speakers put the desk? A. In the bedroom. B. In the living room. C. In the dining area. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does the woman say about Spanish? A. It is useful. B. It is not difficult. C. It is interesting. 11. What languages does the woman plan to learn at college? A. Spanish and Russian. B. English and Russian. C. Spanish and Chinese. 12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What are they doing? A. Sharing learning experience. B. Hosting a radio program. C. Having a job interview. 14. What was the woman's first job position? A. A systems analyst. B. A control system supervisor. C. A senior software development engineer. 5. Where is the woman's present company located? A. In the U.S. B. In the U.K. C. In Spain. 6. What will the woman do in the end? A. Wait for further notice. B. Meet the Branch Director. C. Work as a client consultant. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the primary goal of the app? A. To reduce food waste. B. To run a chain cafe smoothly. C. To deliver meals for restaurants. 18. What percentage of food waste comes from restaurants in the U.K.? A 13%. B. 30%. C. 73%. 19. How does the app help restaurants react to changes in demand? A. By encouraging customers to pre-order meals. B. By listing extra food at lower prices. C. By expanding the menus. 20. Where did Hendrik get the idea of the app? A. From his traveling experience. B. From his study at university. C. From his interest in starting a supermarket. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Lalbagh Sports Carnival 2025 The Lalbagh Sports Carnival 2025, organized by the Lions Club of Dhaka Lalbagh, aims to bring young people back to sports. With over 50 schools and 100 Lions Clubs participating, the event seeks support from international sports NGOs to inspire youth, promote sportsmanship, and strengthen communities across Bangladesh. Involving over 2,000 participants from different backgrounds, the carnival will show the talents and sportsmanship of young athletes, helping them grow both on and off the field. Why Get Involved? Community Empowerment: This event brings together students, local communities, and leaders to create unity and teamwork. Youth Development: By engaging with young athletes, we are not only improving their physical abilities but also shaping their character, teaching them life skills like teamwork, leadership, and never giving up. Global Impact: This event supports the worldwide effort to promote sports as a vehicle for social change, youth empowerment, and health and wellness. We look forward to the support of international sports organizations who share our vision of creating lasting change through sports. Join us as we work towards making the Lalbagh Sports Carnival 2025 a significant event for the youth of Bangladesh. Contact Information Potential sponsors (赞助商) please contact: Email: lalbaghlions@gmail.com Phone: +8801722878380 Address: Rafat Enterprise, Bansbari, Tali Maszid, House 52, Saidpur, Bangladesh 1. Why is the Lalbagh Sports Carnival held in 2025? A. To promote international sports competitions. B. To raise funds for schools and the Lions Club. C. To encourage young people to participate in sports. D. To show the athletic talent of local communities. 2. What is the main benefit of the Carnival? A. It enhances all-round development of the youth. B. It assists students to achieve success in study. C It gets funding from international politicians. D. It provides entertainment for local communities. 3. How can potential sponsors contact the carnival organizers? A. By visiting their office in Dhaka. B. By calling the international Lions Club. C. By consulting the carnival's official website. D. By sending an email to lalbaghlions@gmail.com. B Kana Mondal, who grew up in the North 24 Parganas in West Bengal, knows the importance of standing on one’s own feet because of the poverty that she has gone through while growing up. That was what encouraged her to establish a business aimed at helping people in the region and continues to support them through difficulties after a cyclone (旋风)hit the area. Trained in stitching and embroidery (刺绣)herself, Mondal understood the importance of training local women and slowly expanded her reach through Hasta Udyog, a handicraft company in the North 24 Parganas in West Bengal. After the founding of the company, she has been able to employ thousands of people in recent years in the region, benefiting more than 25, 000 families. She has won many awards for her work, including the well-known Jankidevi Bajaj Puraskar for Rural Entrepreneurship. With the help of Mondal, people in the region climbed out of poverty through their own talent and hard work all these years. However, cyclone Amphan has pushed many of them back into miserable poverty again. With sadness but also determination, Kana decided to lift people out of the difficulties once again. Mondal has been able to provide relief for more than 2, 500 families hit by the cyclone so far, “but it is not enough”, she says. What she really wants to see is that people could walk without a supporting hand once again. So Mondal would like to start working again with the women in the region, but she has to first ensure that they start believing in the future. “We are providing them with clothes, books for children and have also distributed (分发)money, but we still need a massive effort to uplift these people. So my focus is on cooperating with the local authorities so that people’s lives can return to normal at the earliest.” 4. What inspired Kana Mondal to help people in the North 24 Parganas? A. Her desire to establish a business on her own. B. Her interest in starting a business from a young age. C. Her belief in self-reliance after experiencing poverty. D. Her passion for teaching embroidery to local women. 5 What is mainly talked about in paragraph 2? A. Mondal’s excellent embroidery skills. B. Mondal’s achievements in helping people. C. Mondal’s efforts in promoting embroidery. D. Mondal’s devotion to educating local women. 6. What can we learn from the last two paragraphs? A. Greater efforts are needed to uplift the community. B. Mondal’s cooperation with local authorities is fruitless. C. People in the region have been lifted out of poverty again. D. Cyclone Amphan affected 2, 500 families in the region in total. 7. What can we infer about Kana Mondal? A. Diligent and dependent. B. Curious and patient. C. Determined and caring. D. Courageous and humorous. C Scientists in Australia have found a way to study the health of soil — by listening to it. The team thinks their method could help to monitor (监测) and improve soil all over the world. All living things — mammals, insects and even plants — make sounds, and “eco-acoustics” is the study of them. The method has been used to observe bats, birds and sea creatures. Scientists from Flinders University in Australia wanted to see if they could use eco-acoustics to check how healthy soil was. Dr. Jake Robinson, the lead author of the study, said it was like a doctor using a stethoscope (听诊器) to listen to a patient’s heartbeat. Soil can be home to many living things, and the greater the diversity, the healthier the soil. Invertebrates — animals without backbones like ants, earthworms and spiders — add nutrients and water to soil. Robinson said, “Restoring (恢复) and monitoring soil biodiversity has never been more important.” For the study, the scientists put special microphones into the soil and then had to move well away to make sure they didn’t add their own noises and confuse the results. They gathered many hours of recordings from the Mount Bold area of South Australia and then worked out the sound types of different organisms. They also performed soil tests to check soil health. The recordings showed the different sounds creatures make. Soil full of worms has a bubbly sound and ants make clicking noises. Robinson said, “A millipede has lots of tiny legs and they make little tapping sounds... A snail has a more slimy sound.” Overall, the study found that a wider variety of sounds suggested a healthier soil. It also showed listening is a good way to measure the health of soil because it’s cheaper and causes less damage than other methods, such as digging up soil and testing it. 8. What is the purpose of the study carried out by Australian scientists? A. To develop new microphones for collecting soil sounds. B. To create a new method for recording wildlife in Australia. C. To determine the health of soil by studying the sounds in the soil. D. To compare the biodiversity of soil in different regions of Australia. 9. What is mentioned in paragraph 3? A. The methods for restoring biodiversity. B. The role of invertebrates in maintaining soil health. C. The applications of eco-acoustics in animal research. D. The impact of environmental pollution on soil biodiversity. 10. What is paragraph 4 mainly about? A The process of the study. B. The findings of the study. C. The challenges faced by the researchers. D. The different viewpoints of the researchers. 11. Why is listening to soil considered a better method? A. It requires less technical expertise. B. It is less damaging and more cost-effective. C. It allows for real-time monitoring of soil health. D. It provides more detailed information about individual creatures. D Many desert plants run through the whole course of life in just a few days after rain. As described by a friend from Gansu Province, a certain flowering plant in the Gobi Desert, on the heels of intense rainfall, is able to take roots, grow leaves, produce flowers, and bear fruit all within a lifespan of merely eight days. Then seeds of the new generation will enter the same inactive phase of existence. In the Gobi Desert, which seldom sees sufficient rain in a whole year, a plant may wait two years for only eight days’ glory of life. For these desert plants waiting comprises (组成) the main part of life. All life involves a waiting phase. We can even go so far as to say that a living thing, without the ability to wait, is not qualified for existence in this world. Waiting is “zero-level dynamism”. Just consider: a car, though still at zero speed, will start to roll forward as soon as you let go of the clutch pedal (离合器踏板). Waiting can also be compared to a nuclear reactor at zero power critical conditions, which, when the control devices are taken away, will start producing and sending power to the power grid (电力供应网络). Waiting is thus a form of proactive preparation. The waiting ones are always prepared to start upon receiving the right signal. In addition, the waiting ones maintain a clear-headed approach. They know the waiting phase of life calls for the ready acceptance of silence and being alone, as well as a cool head to size up the situation and act at the right moment. This waiting includes the action potential and shows the tensions of life. There may of course be dead seeds, but otherwise, no seeds will oversleep and refuse to wake up or hesitate over whether to take action. They pay close attention to changes in temperature and humidity (湿度) in order to take advantage of the right moment. For all forms of life, the waiting phase can be seen as a tightly wound clock spring.Aimed as growth, it silently waits for the right signal from Nature. 12. What is the key feature of desert plants highlighted in paragraph 1? A. They require minimal nutrients to live. B. They have a very brief life cycle. C. They can survive without water. D. They can bear extreme heat. 13. How does the author explain “zero-level dynamism” ? A. By giving examples. B. By providing a definition. C. By introducing desert plants. D. By explaining a natural phenomenon. 14. How does the author describe the waiting phase of life? A. As a period of leaning and growth. B. As a phase where seeds are inactive. C. As a time when seeds are at risk of d damage. D. As a time of potential action and readiness. 15. What is a suitable title for the text? A. Nature’s Timetable. B. Seeds of Potential. C. Waiting for Success. D. Life Resides in Waiting. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 “Boundaries (界限)? What do you mean I can’t?” If you’ve heard your kids mutter this or something similar, you’re not alone. Parenting is a dance of love and limits. Establishing healthy boundaries is important for a child’s growth, teaching them respect, responsibility, and adaptation. ____16____ Here is a look into practical tips for performing boundaries in parenting： 1. Involve kids in rule-making When children participate in setting their own parenting boundaries, they’re more likely to respect them. ____17____ For example, ask your child what they think a reasonable amount of time for daily screen time might be, then work together to find a middle ground that suits family expectations. 2. Lead by example ____18____ By modeling the behavior you want to see, you set a practical standard for them to follow. Showing respect, punctuality, and kindness shows your child that these are valued behaviors in your family. 3. ____19____ Encouraging your child to express their thoughts and feelings openly with you can help maintain healthy boundaries. It shows how well they understand the rules and if any changes are needed. Regularly involving in discussions about their day or specific incidents teaches them how to set healthy boundaries with parents. 4. Avoid micromanaging According to experts, over-managing every aspect of the life of a child can restrict their ability to think for themselves and solve problems on their own. Allowing children to make decisions appropriate for their age teaches them independence and confidence. ____20____ Boundaries in parenting aren’t about being the strictest parent on the block put about offering guidance and security. Healthy limits let kids know what’s expected while ensuring they grow up feeling safe and loved. A. Offer choices within limits B. Encourage open communication C. Children often imitate the behavior of adults. D. This approach empowers them and teaches them about negotiation (谈判). E. But with clear, unchanging rules, they understand where they stand. F. However, setting these boundaries effectively can often be challenging. G. Trust them to make small decisions, and be there to guide them if they make mistakes. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 After the flight surgeon (外科医生) with the United States Navy, James Mazzuchelli got injured in a helicopter training task and ____21____ in the hospital, his mother, Christine Cheers, made a decision-to donate her son’s ____22____. This changed four men’s lives. Among them, Mike Cohen, the man who got James’s heart, showed his respect and ____23____ in a unique way. Two months after the heart transplant, Mike ____24____ Christine, from whom he learnt about James’s great qualities and also his love for ____25____. Back in rehab (康复), Mike had ____26____ to take a cross-country trip by bike, a way which he ____27____ James would love, to James’s hometown to thank the family. Mike ____28____ a medical assistant to ride with him. The trip was ____29____ for them — rough roads, flat tires and the challenges for the new heart, but Mike ____30____. On 20 November 2019, they ____31____ the last few kilometers of their trip. All Mike could think about was what a ____32____ it was to be healthy. The moment Christine saw Mike, so ____33____ was she that she hugged him tightly. How nice it was to feel her son's heart still beating ____34____! Then came the tears. They weren’t tears of ____35____. They were tears of relief, from a mother who knew she’d done right, and from a grateful man who’d keep a great person’s heart beating for years to come. 21. A. awoke B. fainted C. recovered D. died 22. A. resources B. organs C. belongings D. bikes 23. A. admiration B. gratitude C. happiness D. courage 24. A. caught up with B. spoke highly of C. got in touch with D. took notice of 25. A. life B. family C. trips D. cycling 26. A. protested B. changed C. planned D. presented 27. A. confirmed B. discovered C. imagined D. assumed 28. A. allowed B. expected C. hired D. accompanied 29. A. dangerous B. educational C. boring D. smooth 30. A. refused B. admitted C. continued D. disagreed 31. A. rode B. shortened C. filmed D. shared 32. A. relief B. fortune C. success D. pity 33. A. excited B. embarrassed C. astonished D. impressed 34. A. quickly B. weakly C. basically D. energetically 35. A. comfort B. sadness C. gratitude D. joy 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下列句子，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，使其语义通顺语法正确。 36. The old man struggled to pull on the fish closer when it was coming, but the fish ________ (straight) itself and began another circle. (所给词的适当形式填空) 37. The first quality of literature is its ________ (describe) of truth and beauty. Some truth and beauty remain unnoticed until a sensitive human soul brings them to our attention. (所给词的适当形式填空) 38. ________ (serve) plain in thin, white slices, the meat of salted duck is juicy and salty. (所给词的适当形式填空) 39. ________ a significant number of jaguars survived the Amazon rainforests, they are only one element of this forest’s food chain. (用适当的词填空) 40. Since 1748, Pompeii ________ (dig) systematically from its silent resting place. (所给词的适当形式填空) 41. Today Pompeii is ________ universally recognized tourist destination. (用适当的词填空) 42. Head down, eyes on my smartphone, I stepped into the road and a car shot past, nearly ________ (knock) me off my feet. (所给词的适当形式填空) 43. Because of her contribution to the fight against malaria, Tu Youyou has become the first female Chinese scientist ________ (receive) a Nobel Prize. (所给词的适当形式填空) 44. However, the trials on real patients were likely ________ (postpone) because they did not have sufficient safety data. (所给词的适当形式填空) 45. The first value is that ________ (science) knowledge enables us to do and make all kinds of things. (所给词的适当形式填空) 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是高一学生李华，你校上周五举行科技节（Science Festival）活动，请为你校的英文校报写一篇关于科技节的报道。主要内容包括： 1.活动的内容； 2.活动的影响。 注意： 1.词数应为80个左右； 2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Exciting Science Festival Inspires Students Last Friday, our school held an amazing Science Festival, filled with fun and learning. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was two when my mum became a consultant psychiatrist (精神病咨询师) at Lancaster Moor Hospital. The hospital was quite old. It was a forbidding place and always felt deserted, even though there were still a thousand patients when Mum started working there, many in locked wards (病房). I always knew Mum was a doctor, but I didn’t know what kind. Children are usually uncurious about their parents. I knew she used to go into her study after tea and would look through big sheets of paper covered with wiggly lines she called EEG reports, which we were not allowed to draw on. But I had no idea that EEG stood for electroencephalogram (脑电图) and was a test used to find problems related to the electrical activity of the brain. It was only decades later that I realized the reason why so many people would say hello to her when we went shopping in town was that they had been in her consulting room. She never told me how she knew them. The first time I remember going with her to the hospital was on Christmas afternoon, when I was only about five. I didn’t really want to be there, knowing I had not yet opened all my presents at home. But when I was five. I had no choice. Anyway, Mum gave me a big box of chocolates, which I was told to distribute around the psychogeriatric ward. Most of the patients had no family, received no visitors and were not able to go out to a shop. Our household was the sort where treats were strictly controlled: one packet of crisps a week, pop only on Saturdays. So being entrusted (委托) with the big box of chocolates was exciting indeed. 注意： 1. 续写的词数应为150个左右。 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I was led into the ward with the chocolate box in my hands. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ That Christmas taught me not to be afraid of people with mental illness. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024~2025第二学期诊断性考试 高一英语 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the charge for breakfast at the moment? A $8. B. $5. C. $3. 2. How did the woman read the book? A. She read it straight through. B. She read the opening chapters. C. She tead the chapters that interested her. 3. Why does the man make the call? A. To reschedule a delivery. B. To make a complaint. C. To ask for a refund. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a taxi. B. At a train station. C. In a hotel. 5. What does the man think of the speech? A. Meaningful. B. Disappointing. C. Exciting. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. The office redesign. B. A workmate. C. Customer satisfaction. 7. What do the speakers agree on? A. The money is well spent. B. The white walls are better C. The chairs are comfortable. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Which apartment will the speakers choose? A. The one on Central Street. B. The one on Park Avenue. C. The one on North Parade. 9. Where will the speakers put the desk? A. In the bedroom. B. In the living room. C. In the dining area. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does the woman say about Spanish? A. It is useful. B. It is not difficult. C. It is interesting. 11. What languages does the woman plan to learn at college? A. Spanish and Russian. B. English and Russian. C. Spanish and Chinese. 12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What are they doing? A. Sharing learning experience. B. Hosting a radio program. C. Having a job interview. 14. What was the woman's first job position? A. A systems analyst. B. A control system supervisor. C. A senior software development engineer. 5. Where is the woman's present company located? A. In the U.S. B. In the U.K. C. In Spain. 6. What will the woman do in the end? A. Wait for further notice. B. Meet the Branch Director. C. Work as a client consultant. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the primary goal of the app? A. To reduce food waste. B. To run a chain cafe smoothly. C. To deliver meals for restaurants. 18. What percentage of food waste comes from restaurants in the U.K.? A. 13%. B. 30%. C. 73%. 19. How does the app help restaurants react to changes in demand? A. By encouraging customers to pre-order meals. B. By listing extra food at lower prices. C. By expanding the menus. 20. Where did Hendrik get the idea of the app? A. From his traveling experience. B. From his study at university. C. From his interest in starting a supermarket. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. A 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. D 15. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. G 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下列句子，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，使其语义通顺语法正确。 【36题答案】 【答案】straightened 【37题答案】 【答案】description 【38题答案】 【答案】Served 【39题答案】 【答案】While##Though##Although 【40题答案】 【答案】has been dug 【41题答案】 【答案】a 【42题答案】 【答案】knocking 【43题答案】 【答案】to receive 【44题答案】 【答案】to be postponed 【45题答案】 【答案】scientific 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】 Exciting Science Festival Inspires Students Last Friday, our school held an amazing Science Festival, filled with fun and learning. The Science Festival was packed with fascinating activities. Students engaged in hands-on experiments, exploring chemical reactions and physical phenomena. What’s more, a model exhibition showcased creative inventions and innovative ideas from young minds. A highlight was the science quiz competition, testing students’ knowledge in a fun and interactive way. These activities had a significant impact on us. Firstly, it deepened our understanding of scientific principles through hands-on experiments and interactive activities. Secondly, it inspired our creativity and innovation, encouraging us to think outside the box and explore new ideas in the future. 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 I was led into the ward with the chocolate box in my hands. The room was dimly lit. The patients, many of them elderly, sat in wheelchairs or lay in beds, some staring blankly into space, others murmuring quietly to themselves. I clutched the box tightly, feeling a bit nervous but also curious. Mum guided me gently, encouraging me to offer the chocolates to the patients. As I approached each person, I could see their eyes light up with a flicker of joy. Some accepted the chocolates with trembling hands, while others beamed with smiles, expressing their thanks in gentle tones. That Christmas taught me not to be afraid of people with mental illness. Instead of seeing them as patients, I began to consider them as individuals with their own stories and feelings. Their gratitude, expressed through warm smiles and gentle words, and the simple act of sharing a chocolate, made me realize that kindness can bridge even the widest gaps. It was a lesson that always stayed with me, reminding me that everyone deserves to be treated with compassion and respect, no matter their circumstances. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $