河北省石家庄市2024-2025学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题

石家庄市2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量检测 高一英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C. 1. Which language is Mark weak in? A. English. B. Italian. C. French. 2. Why did the woman feel tired? A. She had many classes. B. She took difficult exams. C. She studied for an English test. 3. What will the woman give the man? A. Her credit card. B. Her driver’s license. C. Her passport. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a supermarket. C. In the woman’s house. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. What the weather is like. B. When they will go on a trip. C. What they will do on Saturday. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What will the man do first? A. Meet Tim. B. Find a park. C. Buy some snacks. 7. Where do the speakers decide to meet? A. At the cafe. B. At the office. C. At the cinema. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Colleagues. B. Boss and employee. C. Salesperson and customer. 9. What is the biggest discount according to Maxine? A. 13%. B. 15%. C. 30%. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does Vivian suggest doing? A. Calling the hotel. B. Booking a room. C. Checking some reviews. 11. What is the disadvantage of the hotel? A. It doesn’t offer Wi-Fi. B. It doesn’t have a good view. C. It doesn’t provide spacious rooms. 12. How does Vivian feel about the hotel? A. Disappointed. B. Satisfied. C. Uninterested. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Where is the woman from? A. America. B. Sweden. C. Egypt. 14. What are the speakers doing? A. Taking a Spanish lesson. B. Recording a program. C. Giving a lecture. 15. What is the last question about? A. A restaurant. B. A sport. C. A dam. 16. How many prizes does the woman win? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What did the speaker think of the instructor? A. Friendly. B. Confident. C. Patient. 18. What does the speaker find most attractive about the dance club? A. It is near her university. B. It runs classes on weekends. C. It provides various dance styles. 19. How much did the speaker pay for the course? A.$250. B.$400. C.$500. 20. Why does the speaker give the talk? A. To introduce a dance instructor. B. To invite people to join a dance club. C. To share her experience in a dance class. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Britain’s Beautiful National Parks Offer Lots to See Many visitors to the UK go straight to London and never explore outside the capital which is a pity, for there is a huge variety of landscape only a few hours away, in any one of Britain’s largest areas of protected countryside, its national parks. The Cairngorms The biggest is the Cairngorms in northern Scotland, with some of the country’s highest mountains and the best place for skiing. Climbing and fishing are also popular, along with Scotland’s national game, golf. Wildlife enthusiasts are well rewarded this is the home of the red deer, red squirrel and golden eagle. The Lake District Over the border in England is the Lake District, originally made famous by local Romantic poet William Wordsworth two hundred years ago. Crowds of people have been travelling here since 1847 when a railway was built to its biggest lake, Windermere. Children’s writers have found inspiration here too, and the mountains make for excellent walking, with breathtaking views. Snowdonia Wales also has its fair share of very impressive landscape Snowdonia was one of the first national parks to be created in 1951. You will find the road signs in two languages and hear Welsh spoken in the local shops. If mountain climbing is not your thing, try visiting a castle built by a 13th-century prince, or check out the nearby beaches. The Jurassic Coast Covering 95 miles of the coastline from East Devon to Dorset, the Jurassic Coast is just as amazing, with rocks recording 185 million years of the earth’s history. The first underwater dinosaur（恐龙） remains were found in the high rocks here in the early 19th century. The Giant’s Causeway For the strangest coastal scenery of all, cross the Irish Sea to the Giant’s Causeway. Created 50-60 million years ago, the Giant’s Causeway has been a source of respect, fear and wonder through the ages. So it’s not surprising that all kinds of imaginative stories come from it. 1. If a person is fond of wild animals, which one is the best choice for him? A The Cairngorms. B. The Lake District. C. Snowdonia. D. The Giant’s Causeway. 2. What can you learn from the passage? A. The Lake District is a good place to create works for painting. B. Snowdonia is the first national park to be created in Britain. C. The first dinosaur remains were found on the Jurassic Coast. D You can get to the Giant’s Causeway by crossing the Irish Sea. 3. Where is the article most likely to be taken from? A. A map. B. A newspaper. C. A science book. D. A textbook. B My violin is like a soul mate that whispers words of wisdom to me. Together, we've gone through both tears and happiness. About 12 years ago, I knew it following an order from my mom. Many hours of boredom were spent practicing it. And to make things worse, the disappointment in my teacher's eyes as I played the wrong notes was like an invisible hammer, striking on my heart. One day, I finally decided: I hate it! By chance, things changed when I was seven. I was at home lying on the sofa, wondering how those famous violinists dealt with this terrible dilemma. I searched online for the E-minor Concerto, a well-known violin work by German composer Felix Mendelssohn, and listened to it. A beautiful and mysterious sound came from the violin as the bow (琴弓) moved across it. It was like the music slid over the flowers, rose up, and started to fill the air. The violin's voice woke up the sun, made the trees green, and freshened the air. As the music changed, the sky turned back to gray. A gloomy shade covered the grass as all the sunshine disappeared. I could hear children crying and men shouting. It was like an invisible claw had grabbed my heart tightly, making it unable to beat. That glorious day set off my passion and, interest in violin—I grabbed mine and never let it go. Before the memories faded, I stared at my instrument. Without hesitating, I picked it up, rosined the bow, and began to play. Peace filled my heart. My violin has been by my side for 12 years. When I feel happy, an energetic tune makes it even better; when I'm deep in sorrow, a peaceful tune washes it away, when I'm walking on air, feeling especially pleased with my achievements, solemn tunes calm me down. Gradually, it has become a part of my life. My violin, shall I compare you to a summer's day? 4. What further led to the author's dislike of violin-playing? A. Orders from Mum. B. Boredom of practice. C. Disappointment in the teacher's eyes. D. Loss of passion for violin. 5. What can be inferred from Paragraph 4? A. The author's feeling was continuously influenced by the music. B. The weather actually changed because of the tune. C. The sudden change made the author's heart unable to beat. D. The scenery outside the room was quite attractive. 6. Why did the author pick up the violin again? A. The invisible hammer and claw are gone. B. The beautiful imagination changed his attitude. C. A famous tune aroused his interest and passion. D. He was crazy about Felix Mendelssohn's works. 7. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Musical soul mate—violin. B. My dislike and like of violin. C. An inspiring story of violin. D. Deep love for music. C There is a day every year that most people look forward to because of a cake, balloons, presents and sometimes a party. Yes, this is your birthday. A “birthday” is described as the name given to the date of the annual event of a person’s birth. It is a global tradition for people to celebrate this specific day. In the beginning, people did not have birthday celebrations, because people did not keep very good birth records. They weren’t even sure what year they were born. And when people started to celebrate the birthday, there was no tradition of bringing gifts, and guests attending the birthday celebrations would bring good wishes for the birthday person. However, if a guest did bring gifts, it was considered to be a good sign for the person of honor. Later, flowers became quite popular as birthday gifts. Nowadays, different cultures have their own birthday celebrations. In Chinese culture, elders and family members gather around the one-year-old child and bring toys such as books, dolls and coins. It is believed that the child’s future career will depend on the object that he or she picks. The Chinese consider a child a year old at birth. In Japan, people’s 3rd, 5th, and 7th birthdays are the most important, because they will get to participate in the annual “Seven-Five-Three” festival. Participants usually visit shrines (神殿) to show thanks for their health and strength. Some in Britain still practice an ancient way of celebrating birthdays by placing thimbles (顶针) and coins in the cake. The person who gets the coin will be wealthy and the one who gets the thimble will never marry. Ireland has a funny way of celebrating birthdays. It is believed that it is for good luck that a child is lifted upside down and gets “bumped” (撞击) on the floor! These bumps will depend how old the child is. An extra bump is also added for good luck. 8. What’s the main purpose of the first paragraph? A. To lead in the topic of the text. B. To pick a way of celebrating birthday. C. To show readers how to develop the text. D. To introduce how to celebrate the birthday. 9. Why didn’t people celebrate their birthday s in the beginning? A. They didn’t have extra time. B. They didn’t have money at all. C. They didn’t think it necessary. D. They didn’t remember the birthdays. 10. What do we know about the birthday in Japan? A. Newborn babies should be brought to shrines. B. Children have three most important birthdays. C. Children have to visit the church to show thanks. D. One-year-old children pick the objects around them. 11. What does the act of bumping mean in Ireland? A. Great wealth. B. Good luck. C. Happy marriage. D. Long life. D Have you ever had a food that you tasted and you immediately disliked? Maybe it was broccoli, dark chocolate, or cottage cheese. Maybe you were “encouraged” to try the food again, and then one of those times you actually liked it. Many people have had this experience. While tastes are developed at a young age, they can be changed, which depends on a person’s desire to try. Researchers at the University of Birmingham released a study that showed people have a flavor window. The flavor window is open for four-to-six-month-old babies. During this time, it is easier to get babies to try a food they have not previously tasted. As they grow up, the flavor window slowly closes, leaving most of them dubious of new foods. However, the flavor window closing at a young age doesn’t mean it can’t be reopened. A study found that if babies are introduced to a new food 5 to 10 times, they can grow to like it. That amount goes up as children grow older. Ultimately, the study came to the conclusion that the flavor window may never be completely shut. Being willing to try a new food repeatedly is necessary to open a person’s flavor window again. Each attempt will lessen the natural unwillingness of something new. Eventually, “not bad” can turn into “pretty good”. One method for inspiring courage to try new foods multiple times is testing different ingredients. Adding an ingredient — sugar or salt, perhaps — that one enjoys, might make an unappealing food more appealing. Once the person has trained him or herself to like the food, the added ingredient may not be necessary. Overcoming a dislike of a particular food requires tasting a food in different ways and at different times. In spite of strange smells, odd textures (口感), or distinctive flavors, a person has the ability to acquire a true liking for even the most unique and unusual foods. So don’t give up — you never know when you might surprise yourself and discover that broccoli is your new favorite food! 12. What does the study find about babies? A. Babies are naturally unwilling to try new foods. B. Babies develop a favorite food if they eat that food many times. C. Babies are more likely to accept new foods when the flavor window is open. D. Babies who are not exposed to new foods will experience a narrow flavor window. 13. What does the underlined word “dubious” in paragraph 2 mean? A. Ignorant. B. Bored. C. Impatient. D. Doubtful. 14. Why does the author include paragraph 4 in the text? A. To explain how adding sugar or salt improves the taste of foods. B. To highlight that there is no reason why people stop trying new foods. C. To warn that people may have difficulty preparing new foods properly. D. To suggest that people expand their flavor preferences with time and effort. 15. What is the main idea of the text? A. Repeatedly trying a food can change one’s taste preferences. B. Adding familiar flavors makes unusual foods easier to enjoy. C. Strange smells or textures make it impossible to like new foods. D. Babies’ exposure to flavors shapes their lifelong food preferences. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The word “diary” comes from the Latin word “diarium”, which means “daily allowance”. ____16____And it is used for business notes, planning activities, keeping track of scheduled appointments, or documenting what has already happened. Some doctors suggest that writing in a diary is a good form of self-study. In America, from the 1940s through the 1980s, a diary was thought of mostly as a way to privately express one’s deepest thoughts while keeping notations about the day. ___17___ Many times, movies would show a teenage girl beginning to write in her diary while she said aloud, “Dear diary” ___18___ A diary kept by a young German Jewish girl by the name of Anne Frank provides us with invaluable lessons about history, for she documented her experiences while she hid from the Nazis during their occupation of the Netherlands in World War II. Her diary became one of the world’s most widely read books and is the basis for many films. Samuel Pepys, who lived during the 17th century, is the earliest diary keeper that is famous today. His diary is also an important documentation of history, for it gives personal insight （洞察力） into London’s Great Plague and the Great Fire. His diary is being published on the Internet, and it’s interesting to note that there has been a new entry every day since January of 2003. It will continue over the course of several years to come. ___19___ Today’s electronic version of the diary, the web log or “blog” has once again stretched the diary to be much more than a personal account of the day’s events. There are blogs to document recipes, traveling, movies, independent news, product announcements, photos, and anything else that needs to be recorded over time. Search engines like Technorati. com have been created to keep track of the more than 112 million blogs that are currently public.___20___ A. It refers to a book for writings by date. B. In its newest form, the diary has become more popular than ever. C. Reading his diary is fascinating, and it makes his life all the more real to us. D. People love to write diaries, so whenever they are free, they will write a few lines. E. Those private reflections may have historical significance long after the author’s death. F. Nowadays, the blog has taken the place of the diary and becomes more and more popular. G. In those times, and even continuing on today, writing in a diary was like writing to a special friend. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Six-year-old Weston Derrick is known as “Captain Brave”. He has brought his ___21___ and smile to the Boise State Broncos — a college football team, thanks to Team IMPACT, an organization that ___22___ children facing serious illness or disability with college sports teams. For Weston, who lives with a rare disease that ___23___ his brain and development, joining the Broncos in February 2024 has been nothing short of ___24___. Weston was only three years old when his parents, Ashley and Gabe, ___25___ the heartbreaking news that his condition would be life-limiting and ___26___ take away his abilities. “It just didn’t feel real, it felt like a nightmare. It still does,” Ashley ___27___ with a reporter. Despite the heartbreak, Weston’s resilience (恢复力) has been a ray of ___28___ for his family. When Ashley ___29___ to Team IMPACT, it wasn’t long before Weston was matched with the Boise State football team. From day one, the ____30____ went all out to make him feel like part of the ____31____. They even visited his school. The ____32____ came on the signing day, when the Broncos ____33____ him to the team with an unforgettable ceremony. Weston ____34____ a spring game where he scored an unforgettable touchdown (触地得分), earning cheers from fans and teammates. This season, he’s been a ____35____ face at home games, inspiring the team and the crowd with his bravery and joy. 21. A. pride B. worry C. courage D. doubt 22. A. pairs B. keeps C. mixes D. compares 23. A. activates B. refreshes C. maintains D. impacts 24. A. back-breaking B. life-changing C. risk-taking D. time-consuming 25. A. received B. remembered C. recorded D. adopted 26. A. frequently B. rarely C. gradually D. occasionally 27. A. checked B. discussed C. argued D. shared 28. A. wealth B. hope C. wisdom D. inspiration 29. A. rushed out B. handed out C. reached out D. checked out 30. A. players B. coaches C. reporters D. competitors 31. A. school B. college C. club D. family 32. A. success B. highlight C. surprise D. adventure 33. A. voted B. invited C. welcomed D. recommended 34. A. attended B. watched C. introduced D. instructed 35. A. funny B. strange C. handsome D. familiar 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Chinese people have appreciated the beauty of lanterns since Han Dynasty. And it is customary ____36____ (admire) the charm of lanterns during Lantern Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival. Lantern shows are held throughout the country ____37____ such occasions. Shows are held on snow and ice in Northeast China, ____38____ ice sculptures create a fairytale of light and color. Mentioning Chinese lanterns would not be complete without making mention of a city in Sichuan province, Zigong, often ____39____ (describe) as the City of Lanterns. The custom of enjoying lanterns on festivals began in Zigong as early as the Tang Dynasty. Most Chinese lanterns ____40____ (make) with wire structures and fabric coverings. To add to its beauty, Zigong craftsmen also use ____41____ (variety) of materials, such as silk, paper, bamboo and even porcelain. Lantern ____42____ (produce) is now a driving force for the local economy. At annual Zigong Lantern Show, visitors gather in Zigong to enjoy lanterns, as well as other recreational activities. The clever hands of Zigong craftsmen have also taken this ____43____ (nation) intangible heritage abroad, ____44____ (present) wonders of color and delight at lantern shows in more than 70 countries and regions worldwide. Zigong lanterns are now _____45_____ name card for their hometown and motherland. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据下列句子及所给汉语注释，在答题卡相应的横线上写出空缺处各单词的正确形式。（每空一词） 46. The designer can’t______(定制) the dress to your specific measurements. (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 47. The company’s______(灵活的) work time allows employees to better balance their work and life. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 48. The girl’s p______ (表演) received standing cheer from the audience. (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 49. The farmers celebrated the______(丰收)with a festival, showcasing the year’s fruitful crops. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 50. The calm lake r______ (映出) the surrounding mountains, creating a picturesque scene. (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 第二节 汉译英（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 51. 学生们会接触更多的阅读材料，这将对他们的语言学习有益处。(have access to) (汉译英) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 52. 我很高兴地看到你所取得的进步将会对你的未来生活有很大影响。(make a difference) (汉译英) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 53. 除了对工作和生活有影响，熬夜对你的健康也有害。(in addition to) (汉译英) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 54. 在交流中，我们对不同的文化有了更深的了解。(gain a deep insight of...) (汉译英) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 55. 阅读书籍不仅有助于提高我们的写作技能，还能丰富我们的生活。(not only... but also...) (汉译英) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 第三节（满分25分） 56. 假定你是李华，你和朋友本周六打算去参观中国航天博物馆(China Space Museum)。请你给在你学校做交换生的David写一封信，邀请他一起去，内容包括： 1. 邀请David； 2. 主要的参观活动； 3. 约定会面的时间和地点。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear David, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 石家庄市2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量检测 高一英语 （本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C. 1. Which language is Mark weak in? A. English. B. Italian. C. French. 2. Why did the woman feel tired? A. She had many classes. B. She took difficult exams. C. She studied for an English test. 3. What will the woman give the man? A. Her credit card. B. Her driver’s license. C. Her passport. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a supermarket. C. In the woman’s house. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. What the weather is like. B. When they will go on a trip. C. What they will do on Saturday. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What will the man do first? A. Meet Tim. B. Find a park. C. Buy some snacks. 7. Where do the speakers decide to meet? A. At the cafe. B. At the office. C. At the cinema. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the relationship between the speakers? A Colleagues. B. Boss and employee. C. Salesperson and customer. 9. What is the biggest discount according to Maxine? A. 13%. B. 15%. C. 30%. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does Vivian suggest doing? A. Calling the hotel. B. Booking a room. C. Checking some reviews. 11. What is the disadvantage of the hotel? A. It doesn’t offer Wi-Fi. B. It doesn’t have a good view. C. It doesn’t provide spacious rooms. 12. How does Vivian feel about the hotel? A. Disappointed. B. Satisfied. C. Uninterested. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Where is the woman from? A. America. B. Sweden. C. Egypt. 14. What are the speakers doing? A. Taking a Spanish lesson. B. Recording a program. C. Giving a lecture. 15. What is the last question about? A. A restaurant. B. A sport. C. A dam. 16. How many prizes does the woman win? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What did the speaker think of the instructor? A. Friendly. B. Confident. C. Patient. 18. What does the speaker find most attractive about the dance club? A. It is near her university. B. It runs classes on weekends. C. It provides various dance styles. 19. How much did the speaker pay for the course? A.$250. B.$400. C.$500. 20. Why does the speaker give the talk? A. To introduce a dance instructor. B. To invite people to join a dance club. C. To share her experience in a dance class. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. D 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. D 10. B 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. D 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. A 17. G 18. E 19. C 20. B 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. to admire 37. on 38. where 39. described 40. are made 41. varieties 42 production 43. national 44. presenting 45. a 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据下列句子及所给汉语注释，在答题卡相应的横线上写出空缺处各单词的正确形式。（每空一词） 【46题答案】 【答案】tailor 【47题答案】 【答案】flexible 【48题答案】 【答案】performance##erformance 【49题答案】 【答案】harvest 【50题答案】 【答案】reflects##eflects 第二节 汉译英（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【51题答案】 【答案】Students will have access to more reading materials, which will benefit their language learning. 【52题答案】 【答案】I’m delighted to see that the progress you have made will make a great difference to your future life. 【53题答案】 【答案】In addition to having an impact on your work and life, staying up is also harmful to your health. 【54题答案】 【答案】Through communicating, we can gain a deep insight of different cultures. 【55题答案】 【答案】Reading books can not only improve our writing skills, but also enrich our life. 第三节（满分25分） 【56题答案】 【答案】Dear David, How are you? I’m glad to tell you that my friends and I are going to visit China Space Museum this Saturday morning. I’m writing to invite you to join us. In the museum, we can see real rockets and satellites and some delicate models of aircraft. In addition, we can watch some interesting scientific experiments, from which you can learn some knowledge. Through the visit, we can learn about the development of China’s space technology. Shall we meet at the gate of our school at 8 a.m. this Saturday? I’m looking forward to your early reply. Yours, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$