河北省承德市2024-2025学年高二下学期7月期末联考英语试题

绝密★启用前 承德市2024-2025学年高二下学期期末调研试题 英语 考生注意： 1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £ 19.15. B. £ 9.18. C. £ 9.15. 答案是C. 1. When was Jane in Shanghai? A. On August 19th. B. On August 20th. C. On August 21st. 2. What does the man think of the marketing class? A. Inspiring. B. Outdated. C. Practical. 3. What is the relationship between the man and Dr. Philips? A. Neighbors. B. Workmates. C. Friends. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a classroom. B. In a hospital. C. In a factory. 5. What is the man doing? A. Writing a paper. B. Asking for advice. C. Interviewing for a job. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why did the man give up driving to work? A. To reduce costs. B. To get some exercise. C. To avoid the heavy traffic. 7. What does the woman say about taking the subway? A. It is unreliable. B. It is crowded. C. It is cheap. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where is the man going? A. To Gary Street. B. To Bridge Street. C. To a gas station. 9. How is the man travelling? A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car. 10. What should the man do next? A. Make a U-turn. B. Make a right turn. C. Make a left turn. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. When will the man pick up the shirt? A. Tomorrow afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. This afternoon. 12. How much did the man pay? A. $10. B. $20. C. $30. 13. Why does the man have to wear his black shirt? A. He needs it to match his suit. B. He only owns one shirt. C. He likes black best. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the purpose of the woman’s call? A. To have a business talk. B. To discuss her work plan. C. To know about the man’s background. 15. Where is the man working now? A. In a bank. B. In a computer shop. C. In a foreign trade company. 16. What is the company’s main concern? A. How long people can work there. B. How many salespersons it can find. C. How much experience people have. 17. What will the man probably do next week? A. Take his application to the company. B. Have a talk with the sales director. C. Meet the hiring manager. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What treatment did the speaker receive? A. A routine check-up. B. Dental cleaning. C. Teeth whitening. 19. What did the speaker like most about the clinic? A. The location. B. The staff. C. The price. 20 Why does the speaker give the speech? A. To recommend a dentist. B. To introduce a kind of service. C. To persuade people to care about their teeth. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Festivals are popular events that are born from traditional customs. But do you know that festivals can be unusual, too? Here are some unique festivals. Yorkshire Pudding (布丁) Boat Race Who doesn’t want to have a nice big bowl of Yorkshire pudding? But it’s not about eating. The idea here is all about cooking a giant-sized Yorkshire pudding and changing it into a boat! If you visit the place called Brawby in the U.K. during June, you can see many pudding boats racing. The event also aims to raise money for local charities. The first race made its way in June,1999. Air Guitar World Championship This contest doesn’t require one to have any musical instrument at all. Participants from all over the world rush to Oulu, Finland every August to play rock and roll without instruments. The purpose of it is to bring the world peace. As the organizers say, all bad things would disappear if everyone in the world played the “Air Guitar”. World Toe Wrestling Championship World Toe Wrestling Championship is held in Ashbourne every August. It started at a pub. The sport involves two opponents who go up against one another by interlocking their feet in an attempt to pin each other’s foot down. The U.K. wanted some type of sporting competition they can call their own, so this championship was born. Boryeong Mud Festival This three-day-long festival is hosted every year by the people of the coastal town known as Boryeong. The town is situated in the South Chungcheong Province South Korea. During the festival, you can play all sorts of muddy games. Filled with fun as well as music presented by various instruments, this festival is quite popular! If you’re in Boryeong in July, stop by to enjoy yourself. 1. What can we know about Yorkshire Pudding Boat Race? A. It provides assistance to charities. B. It aims to promote traditional British food. C. It takes place in July every year in the U.K. D. It allows participants to eat pudding in the race. 2. Where will peace lovers probably go? A. Boryeong. B. Brawby. C. Oulu. D. Ashbourne. 3. Which festival can offer participants music in July? A. Yorkshire Pudding Boat Race. B. Boryeong Mud Festival. C. Air Guitar World Championship. D. World Toe Wrestling Championship. B Everyone knew “Emily doesn’t do sports”. Staying on the sidelines meant I was in control and would never injure myself or look like a fool. My husband’s career has led to our family moving a number of times. With each move, in order to make friends, I explored new hobbies and joined various clubs and groups. All these activities were safe, slow-paced and comfortable, without a ball or sneaker in sight. However, that changed when our family moved to Ankara. It turned out that the activity of choice in my new community was tennis. If I wanted a social life, I would have to play it, and it was a sport I had never tried before. Then I signed up for a tennis class. I still remember the first time I really challenged myself to learn something new. With arms, legs, hands and feet all going in different directions, I celebrated at the end of each tennis lesson when I hadn’t thrown out my back or hurt my leg. Despite my new can-do attitude, my swings (挥动) were often met with nothing but air. Laughing and learning, I kept swinging. I kept trying. I chose to shake off the embarrassment I felt at my unpracticed movements and focused instead on the progress I was making. Several weeks later, I took part in the activities our community held—Cardio Tennis on Saturdays and it was well-attended by the tennis-loving members of our community. At first, I apprehensively threw myself into playing tennis. However, the hours we spent together were full of laughter and encouragement. Then I put myself out there, unashamedly showing my beginner status. I used to hide in the cheering crowd as a way to avoid showing my weakness, imperfections, and lack of experience. But by putting myself in the game, I had a feeling of self-empowerment and achievement, learned a new skill, and, best of all, made new friends who are always willing to meet up to hit the ball with me. 4. What made the author decide to try tennis in Ankara? A. She wanted to improve her physical health. B. She had watched tennis before and enjoyed it. C. Her husband encouraged her to learn a new sport. D. Her new community had tennis as its main social activity. 5. Which can best describe the author during her early tennis lessons? A. Uneasy but determined. B. Bored and hopeless. C. Skillful and promising. D. Awkward but independent. 6. What does the underlined word “apprehensively” in paragraph 4 mean? A. Actively. B. Nervously. C. Proudly. D. Carelessly. 7 What did the author get from playing tennis? A. A good job related to tennis. B. Lots of time with her family and rewards. C. Leadership skills in social activities. D. A sense of achievement and friendships. C If you’re a person who starts the day with a cup of coffee, there may be some good news. A new study published in the European Heart Journal suggests coffee drinkers live longer and healthier lives. The researchers set out to find out if the timing of coffee consumption makes a difference in health benefits. “Given the effects that caffeine (咖啡因) has on our bodies, we wanted to see if the time of day when you drink coffee has any impact on heart health,” Dr. Lu Qi, the study’s main author said. His team surveyed 40,725 adults about their coffee habits. Roughly a third of the participants reported drinking coffee primarily in the morning hours. About 16% consumed coffee throughout the day. And, roughly half of the participants didn’t drink coffee regularly at all. The research team followed participants over the course of a decade. They found that morning coffee drinkers were 16 percent less likely to die of any cause than both the non-coffee drinkers and the all-day drinkers. They were also 31 percent less likely to die of heart disease than either of the other two groups. “This is the first study to test the timing patterns and health outcomes of coffee drinking. Our findings indicate that it’s not just whether you drink coffee or how much you drink, but the time of day when you drink coffee that’s important. We don’t typically give advice about the timing in our dietary guidance, but perhaps we should be thinking about this in the future,” the researchers said. Interestingly, the participants who got the biggest benefit from drinking coffee self-reported they were moderate or heavy morning drinkers, categorized respectively as finishing two to three, or three or more, cups of coffee in the morning hours. Light coffee consumption, downing only one cup before noon, was still related to a lower risk of death than drinking coffee all day or not at all, but to a lesser extent than drinking several cups. Therefore, drink around three cups in the morning to obtain coffee’s greatest cardiovascular (心血管的) benefits. In addition, over roasted coffee can lose antioxidants (抗氧化剂), so for the greatest health benefits, look for a mixture that is still rich in antioxidants. 8. What does Dr. Lu Qi try to stress about the study in paragraph 2? A. Its process. B. Its prospect. C. Its intention. D. Its influence. 9. What can be inferred about the study mentioned in the text? A. It’s rather systematic. B. It’s slightly misleading. C. It’s somewhat limited. D. It’s fairly pioneering. 10. What conclusion can be drawn from the last paragraph? A. The choice of coffee variety matters little to us. B. We should increase the coffee intake gradually. C. Drinking coffee in a slow manner is of great importance. D. The amount of coffee we drink every day makes a difference. 11. Which of the following is the best title for the text? A. Coffee Drinking Habits: How Much Is Too Much B. Morning Coffee Consumption Linked to Better Health C. New Study Questions the Benefits of Drinking Coffee D. Antioxidants in Coffee: Key to Cardiovascular Benefits D The sunflower sea star, called Pycnopodia, was once common in the Pacific Northwest intertidal zone. But in 2013, a disease known as sea star wasting disease (SSWD) took hold, wiping out more than 90 percent of all sunflower sea stars between Alaska and Mexico in a handful of years. Disease outbreaks have been linked to ocean heatwave, suggesting that waters with consistently cold temperatures could act as ocean shelters for Pycnopodia. A new study finds that Central Coast fjords (峡湾) may hold the key to sea star survival. The locals reported sightings of large Pycnopodia in the Central Coast fjords — a sign of the remaining populations that had survived from SSWD. It’s not that SSWD hadn’t yet reached the fjords; it already had. But compared with offshore islands, the sunflower sea stars in the fjords were more plentiful, suggesting the fjords may serve as a shelter for them. Fjords have all sorts of strange oceanographic things happening. Arctic storms come in the winter to mix up the ocean and create a supply of high-oxygen cold water. But then in the summer, melting snow and glacial (冰川的) runoff make the ocean surface layer a couple of meters thick that is low-salinity (低盐度) — basically a river. Both temperature and salinity were important for sea star health. But beyond researchers’ expectations, Pycnopodia responded differently in the fjords from what they did around the islands: they went a bit deeper to escape the snowmelt, bringing themselves into colder seawater that unintentionally helped them keep off SSWD. These fjords are not safe from climate change, however. In 2024, the Central Coast received much less snow than usual, which could be destructive for the sea stars. No species is safe. But the study’s findings agree with local people’s knowledge about coastal fjords nurturing various species including kelp(海藻), lending additional support for conservation measures in these regions. Climate change requires looking backward as well as forward, and identifying microclimates that might help threatened species. That’s what the study mainly focus on. This research is a key step in understanding microclimates and how they may be a shelter against climate impacts. 12 Why are Central Coast fjords important for Pycnopodia? A. They protect Pycnopodia from some disease. B. They help Pycnopodia survive cold temperatures. C. They prevent Pycnopodia from getting into the ocean. D. They provide a perfect environment for Pycnopodia’s faster growth. 13. What can we infer about Central Coast fjords’ water? A. It is always warm and salty. B. Its temperature keeps stable. C. Its composition changes seasonally. D. It lacks oxygen in deeper layers in summer. 14. What surprised researchers about Pycnopodia in fjords? A. They swam to offshore islands during summer. B. They grew larger than those in other regions. C. They moved to deeper water to escape snowmelt. D. They preferred to stay in low-salinity surface layers. 15. Why is the study carried out? A. To show the impact coastal fjords have on kelp. B. To find microclimates for protecting endangered species. C. To prove that not all species can adapt to climate change. D. To explain why microclimates are vital in species conservation. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。 People believing in space exploration have probably heard this, “We shouldn’t waste money on it when there are problems to deal with here on Earth.” It’s true that public health concerns, climate change, and other urgent issues are important to address. ____16____ People estimate that NASA takes up as much as a quarter of the U.S. budget. ____17____ The correct information may go a long way towards reassuring critics that space spending isn’t eating up as many public resources as they think. If someone is arguing that public funds should be better spent, they should know that money spent on NASA positively impacts the U.S. economy. ____18____ According to some official data, spending on space supports highly skilled jobs, fuels technology advancements with practical applications, and creates business opportunities that feed back into their economy. This in turn grows the pool of public money that can be spent solving the world’s most pressing problems. ____19____ Studying how we might grow food in orbit or on Mars yields insights into growing food in extreme conditions on Earth, generating knowledge that can help reduce the impacts of climate change. Medical research conducted on the International Space Station allows us to understand the human body in new ways, helping save lives and improve quality of life. Most importantly, space is inspiring. Not every child who dreams of becoming an astronaut will get that opportunity. ____20____ But to be inspired to aim for something so grand gives kids the motivation to study hard and gain skills in science, engineering, medicine, or other fields that benefit humanity and directly help overcome problems that we face as a species. A. That inspiration isn’t just for kids. B. This is a sad truth that we know early on. C. In fact, it only represents about 0. 5% of the total. D. And we get the same kind of payoff in other countries. E. To deal with these problems, we have to stop exploring. F. Yet, solving them doesn’t mean cutting the funding for space programs. G. Overcoming the challenges of exploration helps the world in other ways too. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 In 2023, Alexis Agnew went to the hospital for a routine medical examination. One of her tests showed an irregularity and her doctor recommended she ___21___ a follow-up test immediately. Agnew was ___22___ that she might have something bad. She left the examination room ___23___. As she exited the building, she ___24___ an office employee, who worked at the front desk. The woman seemed to sense Agnew’ s situation. She stopped Agnew and ___25___, “What’ s the matter, baby? Are you OK?” Being ___26___ with such warm words made Agnew cry out. With great ___27___, the woman listened to Agnew explain her ___28___ situation. After Agnew finished talking, she asked Agnew if she wanted a(n) ___29___. Agnew just started crying harder. So she pulled Agnew close and held her as Agnew cried. The woman held Agnew long enough for her cries to die down. Then, the woman ____30____ that Agnew was the same age as her granddaughter and she just ____31____ seeing a young person so broken-up. And then she ____32____ Agnew and firmly said that she would be OK. Agnew never had to return to the hospital. Her check came back ____33____. But the memory of that day, and especially the stranger’ s ____34____, would stay with her forever. “If I ever had the ____35____ to meet that wonderful woman again, I would try my best to thank her,” said Agnew. 21. A. describe B. delay C. schedule D. cancel 22. A. fearful B. ashamed C. awkward D. confident 23. A. angrily B. calmly C. eagerly D. tearfully 24. A. turned down B. came across C. complained about D. relied on 25. A. added B. repeated C. inquired D. advised 26. A. judged B. acknowledged C. interrupted D. entertained 27. A. patience B. tension C. pride D. courage 28. A. confusing B. unexpected C. unreliable D. familiar 29. A. explanation B. apology C. suggestion D. hug 30. A. agreed B. ignored C. mentioned D. regretted 31. A. imagined B. missed C. remembered D. hated 32. A. comforted B. praised C. encountered D. followed 33. A. professional B. clear C. complicated D. complete 34. A. kindness B. request C. wisdom D. promise 35. A. right B. power C. chance D. reason 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。 The 6th Digital China Summit ended on Friday in Fuzhou, Fujian province. At the meeting, officials revealed that ___36___ (advance) the construction of the 5G network, China would take effective measures to boost resources. Apart from that, they also ___37___ (state) the application of 5G technology in various fields and the research and development of 6G. “___38___ number of the country’s 5G base stations had reached over 2. 64 million by the end of March this year, ___39___ (enable) China to build the world’s largest 5G network,” said Zhao Ce, deputy head of the information and telecommunications development department at the Ministry of Industry and Information Technology. Zhao said the ministry would work on improving the building of the 5G network in an ___40___ (order) manner, quickening industrial application of 5G, pushing forward the R&D of 6G, ___41___ strengthening international exchange and communication in 5G-related technology, standards and application. The superfast 5G wireless technology has been used in 52 of the 97 major economic categories, ___42___widespread application expanding to mining, ports and electricity. As 5G technology is a key base for AI and cloud computing, heightened efforts should ___43___ (make) to explore application scenarios of 5G and promote the ___44___ (transform) of traditional industries. China has recently carried out a plan, ____45____ aim is to make important progress in the construction of a digital China, including a significantly improved digital economy and major breakthroughs in digital technology innovation. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，上周你参加了校学生会组织的主题为“保护我们身边的文化遗产”的活动。请为校英文报写一篇报道，内容包括： 1.活动过程； 2.收获与感想。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Protecting the Cultural Heritage Around Us ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 My smartphone was missing. One day, it was glued to my hand, and the next... it was gone. I took all the necessary steps to recover it. I checked the jacket pockets, searched our apartment, and went back to the gym. Desperately, I called and texted the phone, and I even downloaded a phone-finder app. No luck. It was gone for good. My husband got touch with our service provider, planning replacement strategies within fifteen minutes of hearing my unhappy news. Meanwhile, I was reflecting on what it would mean to go without a smartphone. As I heard my husband would bind (绑定) me to another two-year contract, I found myself screaming, “Noooooo!” That’s the moment I had a glimmer of recognition as to what life might be like without limitless access to a smartphone. I wouldn’t have easy access to everything anymore. But the unusual quiet around me was strange yet nice. It made me feel like something deep inside my heart was missing. In those early hours without a smartphone, I began to realize how disconnected I really was. Oh, sure, I was “connected” in the sense of plugging into a virtual existence that allowed me to try and keep up with my 1,000-plus “friends” on social media. But I felt completely disconnected from my emotions, joy, and close conversations. If something wasn’t urgent, it fell by the wayside. If it wasn’t a broken bone, I didn’t go to the doctor. Dealing with our four kids’ online schedules was the priority over sitting down with my husband and chatting. Missing out on those small moments of dialogue was beginning to add up. I was answering our kids’ questions with superficial (粗略的) answers, filling myself and my family with false positivity, and opening the door to all of us being unseen. The phone was getting in the way of my overall well-being. I knew that once I had a replacement phone in hand, it would not be so easy to get rid of the screen. 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I decided to conduct an experiment — go smartphone-free for thirty days. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ At the end of the experiment, I opened up to a new way of living. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 绝密★启用前 承德市2024-2025学年高二下学期期末调研试题 英语 考生注意： 1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £ 19.15. B. £ 9.18. C. £ 9.15. 答案是C. 1. When was Jane in Shanghai? A. On August 19th. B. On August 20th. C. On August 21st. 2. What does the man think of the marketing class? A. Inspiring. B. Outdated. C. Practical. 3. What is the relationship between the man and Dr. Philips? A. Neighbors. B. Workmates. C. Friends. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a classroom. B. In a hospital. C. In a factory. 5. What is the man doing? A Writing a paper. B. Asking for advice. C. Interviewing for a job. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why did the man give up driving to work? A. To reduce costs. B. To get some exercise. C. To avoid the heavy traffic. 7. What does the woman say about taking the subway? A. It is unreliable. B. It is crowded. C. It is cheap. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where is the man going? A. To Gary Street. B. To Bridge Street. C. To a gas station. 9. How is the man travelling? A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car. 10. What should the man do next? A. Make a U-turn. B. Make a right turn. C. Make a left turn. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. When will the man pick up the shirt? A. Tomorrow afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. This afternoon. 12. How much did the man pay? A. $10. B. $20. C. $30. 13. Why does the man have to wear his black shirt? A. He needs it to match his suit. B. He only owns one shirt. C. He likes black best. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the purpose of the woman’s call? A. To have a business talk. B. To discuss her work plan. C. To know about the man’s background. 15. Where is the man working now? A. In a bank. B. In a computer shop. C. In a foreign trade company. 16. What is the company’s main concern? A. How long people can work there. B. How many salespersons it can find. C. How much experience people have. 17. What will the man probably do next week? A. Take his application to the company. B. Have a talk with the sales director. C. Meet the hiring manager. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What treatment did the speaker receive? A. A routine check-up. B. Dental cleaning. C. Teeth whitening. 19. What did the speaker like most about the clinic? A. The location. B. The staff. C. The price. 20. Why does the speaker give the speech? A. To recommend a dentist. B. To introduce a kind of service. C. To persuade people to care about their teeth. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. C 18. D 19. G 20. B 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. to advance 37. stated 38. The 39. enabling 40. orderly 41. and 42. with 43. be made 44. transformation 45. whose 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Protecting the Cultural Heritage Around Us Last Saturday, I participated in an activity organized by the Student Union, with the theme of “Protecting the Cultural Heritage Around Us”. The event included a guided tour to a nearby ancient temple, where a local expert explained its history and cultural significance. Afterwards, we took part in a clean-up campaign to help preserve the site. Through this activity, I gained a deeper understanding of the importance of protecting cultural heritage. It was inspiring to see how small actions, like cleaning, can make a big difference. This experience reminded me that we all have a role to play in safeguarding our shared history. 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】One possible version: I decided to conduct an experiment — go smartphone-free for thirty days. The first few days were challenging. I constantly reached for my phone, only to realize it wasn’t there. To fill the void, I picked up a book recommended by a friend, and found myself immersed in its pages. As the days passed, something unexpected happened. Without the distractions of my phone, I began to notice the small joys of life — the sound of my children’s laughter, the warmth of my husband’s presence, and the beauty of a quiet evening. At the end of the experiment, I opened up to a new way of living. I realized that true connections come from being present, not from the endless scroll of the screen. When I decided to buy a new phone finally, before I dove right back in, I developed guidelines around the specific hours it would be on. I disconnected from notifications, and cut my friend list down to 150. I no longer felt the need to escape into the virtual world. Instead, I embraced the stillness and the silence, finding fulfillment in the simplicity of life. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $