内容正文:
2024—2025学年度第二学期八年级英语期末学业水平测试
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
1. A. Drink hot tea. B. Run it under water. C. Lie down.
2. A. Here you are. B. Sorry, you can’t. C. With pleasure.
3. A. I guess I should. B. Of course not. C. It doesn’t matter
4. A. Thanks so much. B. That’s right. C. Never mind.
5. A. Try Chinese food. B. Could you please try Chinese food? C. You must try Chinese food.
第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分,满分13分)
6. Which book are they talking about?
A. B. C.
7. What housework does the boy like best?
A. B. C.
8. How many volunteer jobs are they talking about?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
9. Which volunteer job do they choose?
A. Cleaning up the city park. B. Being a guide at a museum. C. Visiting an old people’s home.
10. Who designed Zhaozhou Bridge?
A. Li Chun B. Lu Ban C. Zhang Guolao
11. When did people build Zhaozhou Bridge?
A. About 1,200 years ago. B. About 1,300 years ago. C. About 1,400 years ago.
12. What happened in Lily’s room?
A. The window was broken. B. The power was out. C. The kitchen was in a mess.
13. What was Frank doing when the storm came?
A. Reading books. B. Doing homework. C. Helping his mom make dinner.
14. Who got wet in the rain?
A. Frank. B. Tom. C. Mr. Smith.
15. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Their trip to the zoo.
B. Protecting animals in danger.
C. The pandas in the Wolong Panda Reserve.
16. How did the speakers feel when thinking of pandas?
A. Lonely. B. Quiet. C. Sad.
17. Why are many wild animals in danger?
A. Because there is enough water.
B. Because they don’t have a safe place to live.
C Because villages and farms are growing smaller.
18. What might the speakers do next?
A. Go on a trip. B. Have a picnic. C. Make a video.
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分,满分7分)
19. What kind of music did Taylor Swift make at first?
A. Rock music. B. Country musıc. C. Pop music.
20. Which song is mentioned?
A. Love Story. B. Blank Space. C. Wildest Dreams.
21. Why do people love Taylor Swift’s songs?
A. Because her voice is very loud.
B. Because she uses special instruments.
C. Because the words are easy to understand.
22. When did the speaker go to Beijing?
A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last summer.
23. How did the speaker like the view of the Great Wall?
A. Peaceful. B. Normal. C. Wonderful.
24. What did the speaker do at the Palace Museum
A. Took many photos of modern art.
B. Learned about China’s past emperors.
C. Watched a traditional Chinese play.
25. Why did the speaker like Wangfujing Street?
A. Because it was very quiet
B. Because there were many nice gardens.
C. Because of its delicious snacks.
第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
A flea market
Purpose
26. To ________ money for the animal center.
Time
27. From 8:00 a.m. to 10:00 a.m. on ________ 5th.
Place
28. On the school ________
Things you can bring
29. Books, ________, clothes and other things.
Other information
30. Tell your friends and family about it and come ________.
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Tom used to be happy, but recently he became quiet and always locked himself in his room. He stopped ___1___ his favorite soccer games and even didn’t want to eat much. His parents worried a lot.
One rainy afternoon, Tom’s friend Lily visited him. She found Tom lying on his bed sadly, so she had a talk with him. Tom said he felt ___2___ all the time because schoolwork was too heavy. Then Lily invited Tom to join a running club. At first, Tom ___3___, “I’m too tired to run.” But Lily asked him to try. To his surprise, his ___4___ went away with each step.
Later, Tom also started drawing—a hobby he had given up for years. He used colors to express feelings he couldn’t ___5___ in words. His teacher told him holding a glass of water too long makes it heavy. The key is to ___6___ sometimes. Tom suddenly knew he needed to “put down” his worries.
Now, Tom studies happily and often makes himself relaxed. He talks openly when feeling down. He often said, “Life is like a tree. To let it grow ___7___, we must care for both its roots and leaves.” His words touched everyone.
___8___ you ever feel like Tom once did, remember that it’s OK to ask for help. Taking care of your mind is as important as caring for your body. Never ___9___ yourself. As Tom says, “The storm will pass, and the ____10____ will come out again.”
1. A. imagining B. missing C. teaching D. watching
2. A. amazed B. nervous C. relaxed D. shocked
3. A. agreed B. laughed C. refused D. smiled
4. A. spirit B. interest C. joy D. pressure
5. A. bring B. change C. describe D. remember
6. A. drink B. fill C. rest D. shout
7. A. clearly B. easily C. slowly D. healthily
8. A. If B. Until C. Although D. Because
9. A. depend on B. give up C. look after D. think about
10. A. sky B. sea C. sun D. sand
第二节 短文填空(共15题;每题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填写一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。
Have you ever been to an ancient town? Last week, I went on a trip ____11____ an ancient town. The town is known as the ____12____ (old) one in the area. There ____13____ (be) many tourists in the town every year.
While I ____14____ (walk) along the streets, I found a small shop. When I went into the shop, I was very ____15____ (excite). The shop sold different ____16____ (kind) of things made by hand. I saw a ____17____ (beauty) vase. I ____18____ (fall) in love with it at once. The owner of the shop told me that ____19____ local artist made it. I decided _____20_____ (buy) the vase for my sister. It could be a gift for her _____21_____ (eleven) birthday.
Nowadays many young people in the ancient town learn _____22_____ to make traditional things. Their hard work makes the town full _____23_____ life. So far, the ancient town _____24_____ (become) more and more popular. I believe the ancient art _____25_____ (stay) alive in the future. Our culture will spread at home and abroad.
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Explore the World beyond Books
Ever wanted to explore the world indoors? Come to the Hangzhou Public Library!
Who: 50 children aged 13 to 16
When: 13:30-17:30, on Saturday, August 23, 2025
Where: Hangzhou Public Library
How much: free
What to do at the event:
The event space is filled with stalls (摊位), each stall for a different country. At each stall, there is a foreign volunteer to introduce their country and culture using pictures, tools and local handicrafts (手工艺品). Remember to follow the steps below:
Come and learn about different countries and cultures in a fun way! First come, first served!
26. What time will the event end on that day?
A. At 1:30 p.m. B. At 3:30 p.m. C. At 5:30 p.m. D. At 7:30 p.m.
27. What’s the first step to take part in the event?
A. Take a small gift. B. Sign your name on the map.
C. Get a travel bag and a passport. D. Tour around stalls and collect stamps.
28. In which part of a magazine can we read the passage?
A. Science. B. Music. C. Geography. D. Health.
B
During the Spring and Autumn Period (770—476 BC), the state of Wu and the state of Yue were neighbors in the south. They fought each other for several years. In one war in 496 BC, the king of Wu died. Later, his son, Fu Chai, became the new king. He made a decision to take revenge (复仇) for his father’s death.
A few years later, the state of Wu beat the state of Yue and caught his king, Gou Jian. Fu Chai ordered him to keep horses. Gou Jian pretended (假装) to be nice to Fu Chai. When the king became ill, Gou Jian looked after him day and night. Finally, Gou Jian got the chance to go back to his own state.
After returning, Gou Jian began to prepare to fight against the state of Wu again. To remind himself of his hard days in the state of Wu, he slept on firewood and tasted the gall (胆汁) before having dinner and going to bed. And he kept telling himself, “Don’t forget the days in the state of Wu!” For years, Gou Jian worked in the fields with farmers and made every effort to build up the state of Yue. Soon the state of Yue became stronger and people started to live better lives. In 473 BC, Gou Jian led an army and took over the state of Wu.
Those who fall from greatness can still succeed again, as long as they have the will.
29. When did the king of Wu die?
A. In 770 BC. B. In 476 BC. C. In 496 BC. D. In 473 BC.
30. Why did Gou Jian sleep on firewood and taste the gall every day?
A. Because he missed his free life in the state of Wu.
B. Because he tried to remind himself of the days in the state of Wu.
C. Because he wanted to make Fu Chai believe him.
D. Because he liked the smell of the wood and gall.
31. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Experience must be bought. B. Still waters run deep.
C. Actions speak louder than words. D. Where there is a will, there is a way.
C
How green are you? Do you know how to be green?
We all need a healthy environment, but we produce waste every day and it often results in lots of pollution. In fact, even the simplest everyday activities can make a difference to the environment. Here are some ideas for you.
Reduce. It means “use less”. It suggests people should produce less pollution and throw less rubbish. People should reduce waste by buying fewer things. So before we are going to buy a new thing, try to think whether it is really necessary for us.
Reuse. Reuse means “use again”. It asks people to use things as long as possible. When we buy things, make sure that we really need them and we can use them for a long time. We should value them so that we can use them for a longer time. And if we can, we should repair them instead of throwing them away and buying new ones. Don’t use a paper cup, a paper bag or a plastic (塑料的) bag. If we can use a china (陶瓷) cup, we are doing something green and helpful.
Recycle. Recycle means “use in a new way”. Many people encourage people to recycle things. Look at these examples. First, people often recycle old or waste electrical things and try to create some new things with some parts from the old ones. Second, some people try to make some bags with old clothes. At last, people often clean the house or water plants with used water.
32. What should we do before we are going to buy a new thing?
A. Produce waste. B. Throw rubbish. C. Try to think. D. Take a shower.
33. Which thing can we use for a longer time?
A. A china cup. B. A paper cup. C. A paper bag. D. A plastic bag.
34. How does the writer introduce how to recycle things in the fifth paragraph?
A. By telling a story. B. By showing some sayings.
C. By drawing a picture. D. By giving three examples.
35. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To help protect animals. B. To tell how to invent things.
C. To ask people to water plants. D. To encourage people to protect the environment.
D
Sometimes, families can be hard. People argue a lot. They get upset. Sometimes they stop talking. Our family has had lots of ups and downs. I’d say arguments often happen in our family, too.
I have an older brother and an older sister. I’m the baby boy in the family. We grew up in quite a small house and often didn’t have a lot of money. My mum and dad argued, pretty much all the time, just about anything. My brother and sister argued. And I used to argue.
But as I got older, I always chose to be the mediator (调解员). I would try to look at both sides of the argument and bring them together to make peace. “Dad, you shouldn’t say that to Mum, but Mum, try to see it this way.” “Come on guys, we all love each other. It’s just been a bad day.” I’d say it often worked.
I learned much growing up in our family: understanding, being patient and the knowledge that sometimes things just don’t go your way. We all make mistakes. We all say things that we wish we hadn’t. The key is to try and understand. Of course, sometimes, arguments do need to happen. If something is wrong, it needs to be solved and sometimes, we get angry about it. But as long as we can reflect and look at things with an attitude (态度) of care and responsibility, we can weather the storm and help each other out.
36. What do we know about the writer’s family?
A. Two of the kids in the family are girls. B. The writer is the youngest in the family.
C. The writer never argues with his parents. D. His parents get along well with each other.
37. What did the writer often do as a mediator?
A. Started a conversation angrily. B. Did nothing but watch.
C. Helped one side to fight the other. D. Tried to make peace.
38. What did the writer learn from his family?
A. Knowledge is useless in communication.
B. A family shouldn’t share feelings with each other.
C. Arguments are always bad and should never happen.
D. A family should understand and care for each other.
39. What does the underlined phrase “weather the storm” mean?
A To deal with a difficult situation successfully.
B. To ask somebody for help when in trouble.
C. To tell exactly what the weather will be like.
D. To explain what to do during a storm.
40. What might be the best title for the passage?
A. My Parents’ Bad Days B. Growing Up in a Small House
C. Ups and Downs in My School D. Helping My Family Get Along
第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。
In today’s world, people want answers fast. To help, big tech companies are creating chatbots using AI. Chatbots are smart programs that can talk to us on phones, apps and websites and give quick replies to our questions.
Chatbots have changed how we get information and shop online. They can do many things, like learning new knowledge, giving helpful suggestions and solving technical problems. This makes them very useful in our busy lives. There are two types of chatbots: open and closed. Closed chatbots use pre-written answers for common questions. Open chatbots, however, use advanced AI to understand what we want and give the right replies. They also learn from each conversation, becoming better at answering different questions over time.
The great thing about chatbots is that they’re used any time, even at night. And they can help many people at once, so we don’t have to wait long for answers. But chatbots aren’t perfect. Some questions are too difficult for chatbots to answer, and that’s why they need humans to train them. Besides, they can’t understand human feelings well. Many people still prefer talking to real persons because of the warmth they provide.
Chatbots have made online services faster and more convenient. But they can’t work best without working together with humans. By combining AI-powered chatbots and human skills, we get a better customer service experience that’s both quick and understanding. As we move forward in this digital age, using chatbots and human intelligence together will shape how we interact (互动) with technology in the future.
41. Who are creating chatbots using AI?
_________________________________________
42 What can chatbots do? (列举2点)
_________________________________________
43. Why do chatbots need humans to train them?
_________________________________________
44. How can chatbots work best?
_________________________________________
45. Which type of chatbots do you like better, closed chatbots or open chatbots? Why?
_________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
W: Hello! Welcome to the city library. Have you decided which book to borrow?
M: ________46________ It’s hard to decide. There are so many good books.
W: ________47________
M: Yes. I have read Little Women many times. It’s meaningful. How about Alice in Wonderland? ________48________
W: It’s about a girl who falls down a rabbit hole and starts crazy adventures.
M: ________49________ I will borrow it.
W: Here it is. Please keep it clean and tidy.
M: Sure, I will. ________50________
W: You can keep it for 14 days. Come back to renew it if you can’t finish it.
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
51. 在我们的学习和生活中,每个人都有令自己感到骄傲的事情。某英文网站正在开展主题为“I’m proud of myself”的征文活动。假如你是李华,请用英语写一篇短文,谈谈你做过的引以为傲的一件事情。
提示:
1. What did you do?
2. What did you learn from it?
3. How did you feel?
注意:
1. 文中必须包含所给的内容要点,可适当发挥。
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名、地名、校名等信息。
3. 80词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
I’m proud of myself
Everyone has done something that he is proud of.
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2024—2025学年度第二学期八年级英语期末学业水平测试
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
1. A. Drink hot tea. B. Run it under water. C. Lie down.
2. A. Here you are. B. Sorry, you can’t. C. With pleasure.
3. A. I guess I should. B. Of course not. C. It doesn’t matter
4. A. Thanks so much. B. That’s right. C. Never mind.
5. A. Try Chinese food. B. Could you please try Chinese food? C. You must try Chinese food.
第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分,满分13分)
6. Which book are they talking about?
A. B. C.
7. What housework does the boy like best?
A. B. C.
8. How many volunteer jobs are they talking about?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
9. Which volunteer job do they choose?
A. Cleaning up the city park. B. Being a guide at a museum. C. Visiting an old people’s home.
10. Who designed Zhaozhou Bridge?
A. Li Chun B. Lu Ban C. Zhang Guolao
11. When did people build Zhaozhou Bridge?
A. About 1200 years ago. B. About 1,300 years ago. C. About 1,400 years ago.
12. What happened in Lily’s room?
A. The window was broken. B. The power was out. C. The kitchen was in a mess.
13. What was Frank doing when the storm came?
A. Reading books. B. Doing homework. C. Helping his mom make dinner.
14. Who got wet in the rain?
A. Frank. B. Tom. C. Mr. Smith.
15. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Their trip to the zoo.
B. Protecting animals in danger.
C. The pandas in the Wolong Panda Reserve.
16. How did the speakers feel when thinking of pandas?
A. Lonely. B. Quiet. C. Sad.
17. Why are many wild animals in danger?
A. Because there is enough water.
B. Because they don’t have a safe place to live.
C. Because villages and farms are growing smaller.
18. What might the speakers do next?
A. Go on a trip. B. Have a picnic. C. Make a video.
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分,满分7分)
19. What kind of music did Taylor Swift make at first?
A. Rock music. B. Country musıc. C. Pop music.
20. Which song is mentioned?
A. Love Story. B. Blank Space. C. Wildest Dreams.
21. Why do people love Taylor Swift’s songs?
A. Because her voice is very loud.
B. Because she uses special instruments.
C. Because the words are easy to understand.
22. When did the speaker go to Beijing?
A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last summer.
23. How did the speaker like the view of the Great Wall?
A. Peaceful. B. Normal. C. Wonderful.
24. What did the speaker do at the Palace Museum
A. Took many photos of modern art.
B. Learned about China’s past emperors.
C. Watched a traditional Chinese play.
25. Why did the speaker like Wangfujing Street?
A. Because it was very quiet
B. Because there were many nice gardens.
C. Because of its delicious snacks.
第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
A flea market
Purpose
26. To ________ money for the animal center.
Time
27. From 8:00 a.m. to 10:00 a.m. on ________ 5th.
Place
28. On the school ________
Things you can bring
29. Books, ________, clothes and other things.
Other information
30. Tell your friends and family about it and come ________.
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C
第二节 短文填空(共15题;每题1分,满分15分)
【11~25题答案】
【答案】11. to 12. oldest
13. are 14. was walking
15. excited
16. kinds 17. beautiful
18. fell 19. a
20. to buy 21. eleventh
22. how 23. of
24. has become
25. will stay
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【26~28题答案】
【答案】26. C 27. B 28. C
B
【29~31题答案】
【答案】29. C 30. B 31. D
C
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. C 33. A 34. D 35. D
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. D
第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. Big tech companies.
42. They can learn new knowledge. They can give helpful suggestions. They can solve technical problems. (任选两点)
43. Because some questions are too difficult for chatbots to answer.
44. By working together with humans./They need to work together with humans.
45. 开放性试题,言之有理即可。参考答案为:I like open chatbots better, because they can use advanced AI to help me with my homework.
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题;每题2分,满分10分)
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. No, I haven’t.
47. Have you (ever) read Little Women?
48. What is it about?
49. That sounds interesting.
50. How long can I keep it?
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
【51题答案】
【答案】范文:
I’m proud of myself
Everyone has done something that he is proud of. I am proud of myself for taking part in a volunteer service last month. I helped clean up a park with my classmates, picking up rubbish and planting trees there. It was a hard job, but we worked together and finished it on time. From this experience, I learned that teamwork and a strong will can help us achieve something meaningful. It not only made the park beautiful but also made me feel confident and happy. I am really proud of what I did.
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