精品解析：甘肃省张掖市2024-2025学年高二下学期期末英语试卷

2024—2025学年第二学期高二年级期末考试 英语试卷 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What do we know about the woman? A. She can’t afford a house. B. She prefers the second house. C. She is in trouble now. 2. Where is the museum? A. Opposite the bookshop. B. Beside the cafe. C. Next to the hotel. 3. Why is the man upset? A He has to stop eating meat. B. He has put on lots of weight. C. He can’t eat dessert. 4. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. At home. 5. What is Mr. Brown doing? A. Conducting an interview. B. Beginning his first day at work. C. Introducing his working experience. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is a reason for the boy’s being late? A. He missed the school bus. B. He drove his sister to school first. C. He encountered a traffic jam. 7. How will the boy probably go to school tomorrow? A. By car. B. By underground. C. On foot. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Why does the woman call the man? A. To ask for a favor. B. To invite him to dinner. C. To make an apology. 9. When will the speakers meet tomorrow? A. At 3: 30 p. m. B. At 4: 00 p. m. C. At 4: 30 p. m. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. How much time did the man spend on skating each week? A. 28 hours. B. 20 hours. C. 14 hours. 11. Which part of the man’s body suffered a serious injury? A. His arm. B. His leg. C. His waist. 12 What makes the man regain confidence? A. Teaching volunteers. B. Doing community service. C. Reading books. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Why does Phil learn Chinese? A. To find a permanent job in China. B. To challenge the hardest language. C. To get the benefits associated with it. 14. How does Nancy think about Chinese? A. It’s too difficult to learn. B. It’s the hardest language. C. It’s a challenging language. 15. Where does Nancy want to live in the future? A. In Belgium. B. In America. C. In China. 16. What will Phil do after completing his studies? A. Work in New York. B. Return to Chicago. C. Visit Los Angeles. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Why are hurricanes and typhoons mentioned in the talk? A To compare their influence with heat wave. B. To discuss their naming and ranking systems. C To introduce the first official name for a heat wave. 18. What was the highest temperature in Spain in July? A. 40℃. B. 43℃. C. 41℃. 19. In which country were road surfaces melted by the heat? A. Italy. B. Greece. C. Portugal. 20. What do we know about heat waves in the US in 2022? A. They caused 85 major wildfires. B. They set nearly 60 temperature records. C. They made 9 million people live under a heat warning. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A The British National High School Poetry Competition is now open for submissions! This event aims to celebrate the creativity and literary talent of high school students across the country. Whether you’re an experienced poet or just starting out, this is your chance to display your work and gain recognition. Theme This year’s theme is “Visions of Tomorrow”. Poets are encouraged to let your imaginations run wild and pen down your thoughts on what the future might hold, whether it’s technological advancements, social changes, or environmental challenges. Qualification Open to all high school students (grades 9-12). Each participant may submit up to two poems. Poems must be written in English and should not go beyond 40 lines Entries (参赛作品) that have been previously published or submitted elsewhere are not accepted. Submission Guidelines Format: Poems must be typed in 12-point Times New Roman font(字体), single-spaced. Deadline: All submissions must be received by July 31, 2025. Late entries will not be accepted. How to Submit: Poems should be emailed to poetrycompetition@nationalarts.org with the subject line “Poetry Submission-[Your Name]”. Include your name, grade, school, and contact information in the body of the email. Judging Standard Poems will be evaluated based on creativity, originality, emotional impact, and technical skill (e.g., rhyme, rhythm, and word choice). A group of respected poets and educators will serve as judges. Prizes 1st Place: $1, 000 cash prize+ publication in National Literary Review. 2nd Place: $500 cash prize+ certificate of achievement. 3rd Place: $250 cash prize+ certificate of achievement. Previous Winner Last year, the competition attracted over 6, 000 entries from all corners of the country. The winning poem, “The Future Unveiled”, was a thought-provoking piece that painted a vivid picture of a sustainable future. 1. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To encourage students to read more poetry. B. To announce the winners of a poetry competition. C. To promote a literary magazine for high school students. D. To provide guidelines for submitting poems to a competition. 2. Which of the following is the requirement for poem submission? A. Poems must be original. B. Poems must be handwritten. C. Participants can only submit one poem. D. Poems must be written within 40 words. 3. What is the key standard while evaluating all entries? A. Length and imagination. B. Innovation and technique. C. Popularity and influence. D. Completeness and skill. B The world is full of more than 7, 000 living languages. And we have a hard time hanging onto them: About one-fifth are endangered. So I was more than willing to give David J. Peterson more publicity (宣传) for what could be explained as his mad pursuit: He spends all day, every day dreaming up languages for TV shows, movies and video games. When Peterson was an undergraduate student at UC Berkeley, he saw a flier (传单) advertising an Esperanto class. It was the first time he’d heard of such a thing as an invented language, but it wouldn’t be the last. After years of learning in the class, Peterson became an inventor of languages. It’s a job that’s led him to a career in Hollywood. He’s created languages in the film Bright and Doctor Strange and more recently, Dune. The languages that made him famous were the ones he created for Game of Thrones, especially Dothraki. In 2009, the show’s producers were looking for someone to come up with a language for the Dothraki people. So, Peterson spent the next few weeks putting together about 300 pages of material on Dothraki. He started with the speech sounds and then moved on to grammar, starting with nouns, “because they’re simpler”. Verbs, then other parts of speech were next, followed by sentence structure and derivation (派生). Then he built the vocabulary. What Peterson creates is called conlang (人造语言), which has existed for centuries, but the coming of the Internet created a true community of peers. Most fascinatingly, Peterson theorizes how a larger conlang community could help mankind expand its understanding of the potential for written and spoken communication. “Someday in the future we may encounter aliens, and they may have a communication system that doesn’t even qualify as a language to us,” he says. “But the more we’ve seen, the more we know about, the more we suppose, the better we are going to be able to deal with something like that. ” 4. What can we know from the first two paragraphs? A. Peterson dropped out of college to pursue a career. B. Peterson was greatly influenced by Esperanto class. C. One-fifth of languages in the world have disappeared. D. Peterson was passionate about researching artistic languages. 5. Which film brought Peterson reputation for creating languages? A. Dune. B. Bright. C. Doctor Strange. D. Game of Thrones. 6. What was the initial step in Peterson’s process of creating Dothraki language? A. Establishing words and sentences. B. Developing sentence structure. C. Building basic sound components. D. Analyzing rules of grammar. 7. What does Peterson think of conlang’s prospect? A. Promising. B. Unclear. C. Skeptical. D. Worrying. C Water is life. It is the source of any possibility for growth and liveliness. That is why water waste is such a big concern in places where water is insufficient. But that’s where Direct Potable Reuse, also known as DPR, can help. DPR is a method for taking waste water and turning it into drinking water, according to Wastewater Digest. Though the sound of it may make people feel sick, it has been used with great success and to no ill-effect in Namibia for over fifty years. Namibia is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa. Its capital, Windhoek, is in the middle of two of the oldest deserts in the world, and is 400 miles away from the nearest river. And yet, over 400 thousand people live in Windhoek, and thanks to a clever method of water reuse, nearly every one of them has access to clean drinking water. Windhoek built its first water-recycling plant in 1968, leading the area to be referred to as the “birthplace of water-recycling”. According to Positive News reports, in the recycling plant, the wastewater goes through an multi-barrier process which removes pollutants and bacteria in the water. This is similar to how water is filtered (过滤) in nature. The water-recycling plant, however, has an expedited handling procedure. It produces safe drinking water within twenty four hours. Though Namibia has been successfully using DPR for half a century, it has been slower to catch on in other parts of the world. The greatest roadblock so far has been public opinion. Patty Tennyson, the Vice President of Katz and Associates told Positive News, “Technology has never been the reason why these projects don’t get built — it’s always public or political opposition.” The time for overcaution (过分谨慎) has passed though. As temperatures increase and the world gets thirstier, this safe and efficient water-saving technology can not be ignored. The success of DPR in Namibia has shown that a little creativity can make even the desert produce flowers. 8. Why does the author mention the position of Windhoek in paragraph 3? A. To present the locals’ poor situation. B. To show the significance of DPR. C. To describe the scenes of the city. D. To help tourists locate the capital. 9. Which of the following is closet in meaning to the underlined word “expedited” in paragraph 4? A. Safer. B. Similar. C. Faster. D. Premier. 10. What can be inferred about the future of DPR? A. It will be replaced by new technology. B. It will only be used in desert regions. C. It will be more acceptable in the world. D. It will be ignored in developed countries. 11. What is the best title of the text? A. DPR, a method making a different world B. Water shortage, a big concern in the world C. Windhoek, the birthplace of water-recycling D. DPR, a technology making people feel sick D When stressed out, many of us turn to junk food for comfort. But new University of Colorado Boulder research suggests this strategy may have the opposite effect. The study found that in animals, a high-fat diet destroys resident gut (肠道) bacteria, changes behavior and, through a complex pathway connecting the gut to the brain, influences brain chemicals in ways that increase anxiety. “Everyone knows that these are not healthy foods, but we tend to think about them only in terms of a little weight gain,” said lead author Lowry. “If you understand that they also impact your brain in a way that can promote anxiety, that makes the risk even higher.” Lowry’s team divided adolescent rats into two groups: Half got a standard diet of about 11% fat for nine weeks; the others got-a high-fat diet of 45% fat, consisting mostly of saturated (饱和) fat from animal products. After nine weeks, the animals underwent behavioral tests. When compared to the former group, the group eating a high-fat diet, not surprisingly, gained weight. But the animals also showed significantly less diversity of gut bacteria. Generally speaking, more bacterial diversity is associated with better health, Lowry explained. The high-fat diet group also showed higher expression of three genes involved-in production and signaling of the serotonin (血清素), which is associated with-stress and anxiety. While serotonin is often billed as a “feel-good brain chemical”, Lowry notes that it can lead to anxiety-like responses in animals. “To think that just a high-fat diet could change expression of these genes in the brain is extraordinary,” said Lowry. “The high-fat group essentially had a high anxiety state in their brain. ” Lowry stresses that not all fats are bad, and that healthy fats like those found in fish, olive oil, nuts and seeds can be good for the brain. His advice is: Eat as many different kinds of fruits and vegetables as possible. 12. What can we learn about the study by Lowry’s team? A. All rats ate the same diet. B. Rats were divided into two diet groups. C. Anxiety was tested before and after eating. D. Behavior was observed without dietary change. 13. What is the relationship between gut bacteria diversity and health? A. Less bacteria diversity indicates better health. B. Gut bacteria diversity has no impact on health. C. Gut bacteria diversity mainly depends on health. D. Bacteria diversity is positively associated with fitness. 14. What can be known about serotonin? A. It reduces the feeling of pressure. B. It leads to weight gain. C. It’s merely affected by healthy fats. D. It can cause anxiety-like reaction. 15. What is the main idea of the text? A. High-fat diet is the main cause of fat. B. Stay healthy and keep from gaining weight. C. Junk food consumption may increase anxiety. D. Gut bacteria diversity increases with high-fat diets. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Significance of a Healthy Lifestyle As senior high students, we often find ourselves buried under a pile of textbooks and assignments, making it easy to ignore our health. ___16___ A healthy lifestyle significantly contributes to physical fitness. Regular exercise, for example, is a basis of physical well-being. When we engage in jogging, swimming, or cycling, it helps to strengthen our muscles, improve cardiovascular (心血管的) function, and boost our immune (免疫) system. ___17___ Additionally, a balanced diet is equally important. Consuming a variety of foods, including plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats, provides our bodies with the necessary nutrients to function best. Mental health also benefits greatly from a healthy lifestyle. Sufficient sleep, which is an essential part of it, allows our brains to rest and recover. When we get enough sleep, we wake up feeling refreshed and ready to face the day. ___18___ ___19___ When individuals are healthy, they are less likely to rely on medical resources, thus reducing the burden on the healthcare system. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to teach the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle in the general public. In the long run, a healthy lifestyle has far-reaching significance for our quality of life. People who maintain healthy habits are more likely to have a higher energy level throughout their lives. This means they can actively participate in various activities, whether it’s spending time with family, pursuing hobbies, or engaging in community work. ___20___ They may experience a decline in their physical and mental capabilities at a relatively young age, limiting their life choices and experiences. A. It also plays a positive role in our social life. B. There are many ways to start living a healthy lifestyle. C. In contrast, those with unhealthy lifestyles may lead an inactive life. D. These physical activities can also help us maintain a healthy weight. E. This can lead to better concentration, improved memory, and enhanced mood. F. What’s more, a healthy lifestyle can save a large amount of medical expenses. G. However, a healthy lifestyle is crucial for our well-being and academic performance. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 It was the first day of the new year and I was feeling out of shape. “This year, I am going to start walking at the mall every morning,” I promised, “no matter ____21____ happens.” Later the same day, my neighbor Jean called. “Would you mind ____22____ Amy, my little dog Pomeranian, every morning for one week?” “It’s my ____23____”, I replied. The first morning of my walking ____24____ was bitter cold. I regretted approving of Jean’s request. The ____25____ was, no matter how much I love animals, it would still be “my ____26____.” When I arrived at Amy’s house, a small Pomeranian ____27____ me. She finished her hello by licking my leg but I ____28____. Then I took another look — and came the ____29____ gaze (凝视) of a Pomeranian, inviting me to be her friend. The two of us ____30____ outside into the freezing morning. The more we walked, the more I felt the ____31____ coming from my little companion — from her little heart to mine. Back at the house, after her meal and water, she fell asleep, using my foot as her ____32____. I closed my eyes for a bit, ____33____ in a way that a walk at the mall could never make me feel. My early mornings with Amy were not an ____34____ experience at all. She helped me ____35____ start a healthy new habit even on a cold January morning. It was a New Year’s gift, filled with love. 21. A. what B. how C. when D. where 22. A. playing B. walking C. training D. bathing 23. A. goodness B. fault C. pleasure D. turn 24. A. duties B. trips C. games D. goals 25. A. trend B. policy C. difference D. truth 26. A. reward B. responsibility C. task D. inconvenience 27. A. inspected B. greeted C. disturbed D. seized 28. A. broke down B. ran out C. pulled back D. looked up 29. A. angry B. anxious C. eager D. frightened 30. A. headed B. drove C. rushed D. searched 31. A. coldness B. warmth C. tiredness D. sadness 32. A. bed B. toy C. pillow D. chair 33. A. undergoing B. refreshing C. tolerating D. surviving 34. A. amazing B. exciting C. adventurous D. unpleasant 35. A. joyfully B. patiently C. unwillingly D. repeatedly 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In recent decades, China ___36___ (make) remarkable progress in environmental protection. Facing severe environmental challenges ___37___ (bring) about by rapid economic development, the Chinese government has been taking a series of ___38___ (measure) to safeguard the ecological environment. One of the most significant efforts is the large-scale ___39___ (plant) of trees. The “Green Great Wall” project, ___40___ has been carried out for decades, aims to prevent desertification and improve the ecological conditions in the northern regions. Not only has this project effectively reduced soil erosion (侵蚀) ___41___ it has also provided habitats for wildlife. Moreover, China has been strengthening ___42___ (it) environmental regulations (法规). Stricter laws and regulations have been put into effect, which require industries to adopt cleaner production technologies and reduce pollution emissions. Factories that fail ___43___ ( meet) the environmental standards will be shut down. In addition, the public’s environmental awareness has been raised ___44___ (significant). More and more people are actively participating in environmental protection activities, such as garbage classification and energy-saving activities. However, there is still a long way to go. As China continues to develop, it is crucial to strike a balance ____45____ economic growth and environmental protection. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假设你是李华，你校英语杂志 Crazy English将举办主题为“How to use social media platforms wisely”的征文比赛，请你写一篇短文投稿。 注意： 1. 写作词数为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 How to use social media platforms wisely Many social miedia platforms are becoming increasingly popular as science and technology progresses. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was the New Year’s Eve of 2025. Lily, a high-school senior, was filled with excitement as she prepared for the annual family gathering at her grandparents’ old-fashioned house in the countryside. The house was always filled with warmth and laughter during the holidays, and this year was no exception. As Lily arrived, she noticed that her cousin, Tom, seemed a bit down. Tom had been struggling with his studies and was worried about his future. Lily, determined to cheer him up, decided to spend some time with him before the big dinner. After a while, they found themselves in the attic (阁楼), going through old boxes filled with memories. Among the old stuff, they discovered an old-fashioned board game that their parents used to play when they were kids. Just as they were about to start playing, they heard a loud noise coming from outside. They rushed to the window and saw that a heavy snowstorm had suddenly hit. The wind was howling, and the snow was piling up rapidly. Realizing that the storm might cause some problems, Lily’s parents and uncles decided to check on the generators and the heating system. Meanwhile, Lily and Tom continued their exploration in the attic, hoping to find more interesting things to pass the time. Suddenly, Tom found a small, dusty diary hidden at the bottom of a box. As he opened it, he found that it was written by their great-grandfather. The diary was filled with stories about his life, his struggles, and his hopes for the future. One story in particular caught their attention. It was about how their great-grandfather had faced a difficult time during a harsh winter when he was young. But he never gave up, and with the help of his family and friends, he managed to get through it. As they read on, they were deeply inspired by their great-grandfather’s perseverance. Just then, Lily had an idea. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 She suggested that they share the story with the whole family. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ After the dinner, Tom decided to share his own plans for the future. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024—2025学年第二学期高二年级期末考试 英语试卷 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What do we know about the woman? A. She can’t afford a house. B. She prefers the second house. C. She is in trouble now. 2. Where is the museum? A. Opposite the bookshop. B. Beside the cafe. C. Next to the hotel. 3. Why is the man upset? A. He has to stop eating meat. B. He has put on lots of weight. C. He can’t eat dessert. 4. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. At home. 5. What is Mr. Brown doing? A. Conducting an interview. B. Beginning his first day at work. C. Introducing his working experience. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is a reason for the boy’s being late? A. He missed the school bus. B. He drove his sister to school first. C. He encountered a traffic jam. 7. How will the boy probably go to school tomorrow? A. By car. B. By underground. C. On foot. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Why does the woman call the man? A. To ask for a favor. B. To invite him to dinner. C. To make an apology. 9. When will the speakers meet tomorrow? A. At 3: 30 p. m. B. At 4: 00 p. m. C. At 4: 30 p. m. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. How much time did the man spend on skating each week? A. 28 hours. B. 20 hours. C. 14 hours. 11. Which part of the man’s body suffered a serious injury? A. His arm. B. His leg. C. His waist. 12. What makes the man regain confidence? A. Teaching volunteers. B. Doing community service. C. Reading books. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Why does Phil learn Chinese? A. To find a permanent job in China. B. To challenge the hardest language. C. To get the benefits associated with it. 14. How does Nancy think about Chinese? A. It’s too difficult to learn. B. It’s the hardest language. C. It’s a challenging language. 15. Where does Nancy want to live in the future? A. In Belgium. B. In America. C. In China. 16. What will Phil do after completing his studies? A. Work in New York. B. Return to Chicago. C. Visit Los Angeles. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Why are hurricanes and typhoons mentioned in the talk? A. To compare their influence with heat wave. B. To discuss their naming and ranking systems. C. To introduce the first official name for a heat wave. 18. What was the highest temperature in Spain in July? A. 40℃. B. 43℃. C. 41℃. 19. In which country were road surfaces melted by the heat? A. Italy. B. Greece. C. Portugal. 20. What do we know about heat waves in the US in 2022? A. They caused 85 major wildfires. B. They set nearly 60 temperature records. C. They made 9 million people live under a heat warning. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A The British National High School Poetry Competition is now open for submissions! This event aims to celebrate the creativity and literary talent of high school students across the country. Whether you’re an experienced poet or just starting out, this is your chance to display your work and gain recognition. Theme This year’s theme is “Visions of Tomorrow”. Poets are encouraged to let your imaginations run wild and pen down your thoughts on what the future might hold, whether it’s technological advancements, social changes, or environmental challenges. Qualification Open to all high school students (grades 9-12). Each participant may submit up to two poems. Poems must be written in English and should not go beyond 40 lines. Entries (参赛作品) that have been previously published or submitted elsewhere are not accepted. Submission Guidelines Format: Poems must be typed in 12-point Times New Roman font(字体), single-spaced. Deadline: All submissions must be received by July 31, 2025. Late entries will not be accepted. How to Submit: Poems should be emailed to poetrycompetition@nationalarts.org with the subject line “Poetry Submission-[Your Name]”. Include your name, grade, school, and contact information in the body of the email. Judging Standard Poems will be evaluated based on creativity, originality, emotional impact, and technical skill (e.g., rhyme, rhythm, and word choice). A group of respected poets and educators will serve as judges. Prizes 1st Place: $1, 000 cash prize+ publication in National Literary Review. 2nd Place: $500 cash prize+ certificate of achievement. 3rd Place: $250 cash prize+ certificate of achievement. Previous Winner Last year, the competition attracted over 6, 000 entries from all corners of the country. The winning poem, “The Future Unveiled”, was a thought-provoking piece that painted a vivid picture of a sustainable future. 1. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To encourage students to read more poetry. B. To announce the winners of a poetry competition. C. To promote a literary magazine for high school students. D. To provide guidelines for submitting poems to a competition. 2. Which of the following is the requirement for poem submission? A. Poems must be original. B. Poems must be handwritten. C. Participants can only submit one poem. D. Poems must be written within 40 words. 3. What is the key standard while evaluating all entries? A. Length and imagination. B. Innovation and technique. C. Popularity and influence. D. Completeness and skill. 【答案】1. D 2. A 3. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇应用文，介绍了英国国家高中诗歌比赛的参赛主题、资格要求、提交指南、评审标准以及奖项设置等内容，旨在鼓励学生积极参与并展示自己的诗歌创作才华。 【1题详解】 推理判断题。根据第一段“Whether you’re an experienced poet or just starting out, this is your chance to display your work and gain recognition. (无论你是经验丰富的诗人，还是刚刚起步的新手，这都是你展示作品并获得认可的机会。)”及全文可知，文章详细介绍了诗歌比赛的主题、参赛资格、提交方式、评审标准和奖项设置等信息，目的是为有意参赛的学生提供清晰的指导。因此，本文的主要目的是“为参赛学生提供提交诗歌的指南”。故选D项。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Qualification”部分中的“Entries (参赛作品) that have been previously published or submitted elsewhere are not accepted. (已发表或在其他地方提交过的作品不予接受)”可知，参赛作品必须是原创的。故选A项。 【3题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Judging Standard”部分中的“Poems will be evaluated based on creativity, originality, emotional impact, and technical skill (e.g., rhyme, rhythm, and word choice). (诗歌将根据创意、原创性、情感感染力以及技巧（如押韵、节奏和用词）进行评审)”可知，评审的关键标准是创新性和技巧。故选B项。 B The world is full of more than 7, 000 living languages. And we have a hard time hanging onto them: About one-fifth are endangered. So I was more than willing to give David J. Peterson more publicity (宣传) for what could be explained as his mad pursuit: He spends all day, every day dreaming up languages for TV shows, movies and video games. When Peterson was an undergraduate student at UC Berkeley, he saw a flier (传单) advertising an Esperanto class. It was the first time he’d heard of such a thing as an invented language, but it wouldn’t be the last. After years of learning in the class, Peterson became an inventor of languages. It’s a job that’s led him to a career in Hollywood. He’s created languages in the film Bright and Doctor Strange and more recently, Dune. The languages that made him famous were the ones he created for Game of Thrones, especially Dothraki. In 2009, the show’s producers were looking for someone to come up with a language for the Dothraki people. So, Peterson spent the next few weeks putting together about 300 pages of material on Dothraki. He started with the speech sounds and then moved on to grammar, starting with nouns, “because they’re simpler”. Verbs, then other parts of speech were next, followed by sentence structure and derivation (派生). Then he built the vocabulary. What Peterson creates is called conlang (人造语言), which has existed for centuries, but the coming of the Internet created a true community of peers. Most fascinatingly, Peterson theorizes how a larger conlang community could help mankind expand its understanding of the potential for written and spoken communication. “Someday in the future we may encounter aliens, and they may have a communication system that doesn’t even qualify as a language to us,” he says. “But the more we’ve seen, the more we know about, the more we suppose, the better we are going to be able to deal with something like that. ” 4. What can we know from the first two paragraphs? A. Peterson dropped out of college to pursue a career. B. Peterson was greatly influenced by Esperanto class. C. One-fifth of languages in the world have disappeared. D Peterson was passionate about researching artistic languages. 5. Which film brought Peterson reputation for creating languages? A. Dune. B. Bright. C. Doctor Strange. D. Game of Thrones. 6. What was the initial step in Peterson’s process of creating Dothraki language? A. Establishing words and sentences. B. Developing sentence structure. C. Building basic sound components. D. Analyzing rules of grammar. 7. What does Peterson think of conlang’s prospect? A. Promising. B. Unclear. C. Skeptical. D. Worrying. 【答案】4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍了语言创造者David J. Peterson的职业经历、创作过程以及他对人造语言未来发展的看法。他因创作《权力的游戏》中的多斯拉克语而广为人知，并认为人造语言有助于拓展人类对语言潜力的理解。 【4题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段“When Peterson was an undergraduate student at UC Berkeley, he saw a flier (传单) advertising an Esperanto class. It was the first time he’d heard of such a thing as an invented language, but it wouldn’t be the last. After years of learning in the class, Peterson became an inventor of languages. (Peterson在加州大学伯克利分校读本科时，看到一张宣传世界语课程的传单。这是他第一次听说“人造语言”这个概念，但这并不是最后一次。经过多年的课堂学习，Peterson成为了一名语言发明者。)”可知，Petson在接触到世界语课程后深受启发，并走上了语言创造之路。故选B项。 【5题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段“The languages that made him famous were the ones he created for Game of Thrones, especially Dothraki. (使他成名的语言是他为《权力的游戏》创造的语言，尤其是多斯拉克语)”可知，Peterson因创作《权力的游戏》中的语言而成名。故选D项。 【6题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段“He started with the speech sounds and then moved on to grammar, starting with nouns, “because they’re simpler”. (他从语音开始，然后转向语法，首先从名词开始，“因为它们更简单”。)”可知，Peterson在创造多斯拉克语时，最初是从构建基本语音成分开始的。故选C项。 【7题详解】 推理判断题。根据最后一段“But the more we’ve seen, the more we know about, the more we suppose, the better we are going to be able to deal with something like that. (但是我们见识得越多，了解得越多，设想得越多，我们就越能更好地应对类似情况)”可知，Peterson对人造语言的未来发展持乐观态度，认为其前景广阔。故选A项。 C Water is life. It is the source of any possibility for growth and liveliness. That is why water waste is such a big concern in places where water is insufficient. But that’s where Direct Potable Reuse, also known as DPR, can help. DPR is a method for taking waste water and turning it into drinking water, according to Wastewater Digest. Though the sound of it may make people feel sick, it has been used with great success and to no ill-effect in Namibia for over fifty years. Namibia is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa. Its capital, Windhoek, is in the middle of two of the oldest deserts in the world, and is 400 miles away from the nearest river. And yet, over 400 thousand people live in Windhoek, and thanks to a clever method of water reuse, nearly every one of them has access to clean drinking water. Windhoek built its first water-recycling plant in 1968, leading the area to be referred to as the “birthplace of water-recycling”. According to Positive News reports, in the recycling plant, the wastewater goes through an multi-barrier process which removes pollutants and bacteria in the water. This is similar to how water is filtered (过滤) in nature. The water-recycling plant, however, has an expedited handling procedure. It produces safe drinking water within twenty four hours. Though Namibia has been successfully using DPR for half a century, it has been slower to catch on in other parts of the world. The greatest roadblock so far has been public opinion. Patty Tennyson, the Vice President of Katz and Associates told Positive News, “Technology has never been the reason why these projects don’t get built — it’s always public or political opposition.” The time for overcaution (过分谨慎) has passed though. As temperatures increase and the world gets thirstier, this safe and efficient water-saving technology can not be ignored. The success of DPR in Namibia has shown that a little creativity can make even the desert produce flowers. 8. Why does the author mention the position of Windhoek in paragraph 3? A. To present the locals’ poor situation. B. To show the significance of DPR. C. To describe the scenes of the city. D. To help tourists locate the capital. 9. Which of the following is closet in meaning to the underlined word “expedited” in paragraph 4? A. Safer. B. Similar. C. Faster. D. Premier. 10. What can be inferred about the future of DPR? A. It will be replaced by new technology. B. It will only be used in desert regions. C. It will be more acceptable in the world. D. It will be ignored in developed countries. 11. What is the best title of the text? A. DPR, a method making a different world B. Water shortage, a big concern in the world C. Windhoek, the birthplace of water-recycling D. DPR, a technology making people feel sick 【答案】8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍直接饮用水再利用技术（DPR）及其在纳米比亚的应用和推广前景。 【8题详解】 推理判断题。根据第三段“Namibia is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa. Its capital, Windhoek, is in the middle of two of the oldest deserts in the world, and is 400 miles away from the nearest river. And yet, over 400 thousand people live in Windhoek, and thanks to a clever method of water reuse, nearly every one of them has access to clean drinking water.(纳米比亚是撒哈拉以南非洲最干旱的国家。其首都温得和克位于世界上最古老的两个沙漠中间，距离最近的河流有400英里。然而，超过40万人居住在温得和克，多亏了一种巧妙的水再利用方法，几乎每个人都能获得干净的饮用水)”可推知，作者提及温得和克的位置，是为了凸显其缺水的地理环境，从而体现DPR技术在此地的重要意义。故选B项。 【9题详解】 词句猜测题。根据第四段中的“This is similar to how water is filtered (过滤) in nature. The water-recycling plant, however, has an expedited handling procedure. It produces safe drinking water within twenty four hours.(这类似于自然界中水的过滤方式。然而，这家水循环工厂有一个expedited处理程序。它能在24小时内生产出安全的饮用水)”可知，与自然界的过滤相比，该工厂的处理程序能在24小时内产出安全饮用水，说明其过程更快，因此“expedited”意为“更快的”。故选C项。 【10题详解】 推理判断题。根据第五段中的“Though Namibia has been successfully using DPR for half a century, it has been slower to catch on in other parts of the world. The greatest roadblock so far has been public opinion.(尽管纳米比亚成功使用DPR已有半个世纪，但在世界其他地区，它的普及速度较慢。到目前为止，最大的障碍是公众舆论)”以及第六段中的“As temperatures increase and the world gets thirstier, this safe and efficient water-saving technology can not be ignored.(随着气温升高，世界变得更加干旱，这种安全高效的节水技术不容忽视)”可推断，随着全球缺水问题加剧，DPR技术将在世界范围内更易被接受。故选C项。 【11题详解】 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段中的“But that’s where Direct Potable Reuse, also known as DPR, can help.(但这正是直接饮用水再利用（DPR）所能提供帮助的地方)”和最后一段中的“The success of DPR in Namibia has shown that a little creativity can make even the desert produce flowers.(DPR在纳米比亚的成功表明，一点创造力甚至可以让沙漠开花)”可知，文章主要介绍了DPR技术及其带来的积极影响，A选项“DPR，一种改变世界的方法”最能概括全文主旨，是文章的最佳标题。故选A项。 D When stressed out, many of us turn to junk food for comfort. But new University of Colorado Boulder research suggests this strategy may have the opposite effect. The study found that in animals, a high-fat diet destroys resident gut (肠道) bacteria, changes behavior and, through a complex pathway connecting the gut to the brain, influences brain chemicals in ways that increase anxiety. “Everyone knows that these are not healthy foods, but we tend to think about them only in terms of a little weight gain,” said lead author Lowry. “If you understand that they also impact your brain in a way that can promote anxiety, that makes the risk even higher.” Lowry’s team divided adolescent rats into two groups: Half got a standard diet of about 11% fat for nine weeks; the others got-a high-fat diet of 45% fat, consisting mostly of saturated (饱和) fat from animal products. After nine weeks, the animals underwent behavioral tests. When compared to the former group, the group eating a high-fat diet, not surprisingly, gained weight. But the animals also showed significantly less diversity of gut bacteria. Generally speaking, more bacterial diversity is associated with better health, Lowry explained. The high-fat diet group also showed higher expression of three genes involved-in production and signaling of the serotonin (血清素), which is associated with-stress and anxiety. While serotonin is often billed as a “feel-good brain chemical”, Lowry notes that it can lead to anxiety-like responses in animals. “To think that just a high-fat diet could change expression of these genes in the brain is extraordinary,” said Lowry. “The high-fat group essentially had a high anxiety state in their brain. ” Lowry stresses that not all fats are bad, and that healthy fats like those found in fish, olive oil, nuts and seeds can be good for the brain. His advice is: Eat as many different kinds of fruits and vegetables as possible. 12. What can we learn about the study by Lowry’s team? A. All rats ate the same diet. B. Rats were divided into two diet groups. C. Anxiety was tested before and after eating. D. Behavior was observed without dietary change. 13. What is the relationship between gut bacteria diversity and health? A. Less bacteria diversity indicates better health. B. Gut bacteria diversity has no impact on health. C. Gut bacteria diversity mainly depends on health. D. Bacteria diversity is positively associated with fitness. 14. What can be known about serotonin? A. It reduces the feeling of pressure. B. It leads to weight gain. C. It’s merely affected by healthy fats. D. It can cause anxiety-like reaction. 15. What is the main idea of the text? A. High-fat diet is the main cause of fat. B. Stay healthy and keep from gaining weight. C. Junk food consumption may increase anxiety. D. Gut bacteria diversity increases with high-fat diets. 【答案】12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍了科罗拉多大学博尔德分校的一项新研究，指出高脂肪饮食不仅会破坏肠道菌群，还可能通过肠脑轴影响大脑化学物质，从而增加焦虑情绪。研究强调，健康饮食对心理健康同样重要。 【12题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段“Lowry’s team divided adolescent rats into two groups: Half got a standard diet of about 11% fat for nine weeks; the others got-a high-fat diet of 45% fat, consisting mostly of saturated (饱和) fat from animal products. (Lowry的研究团队将青春期大鼠分成两组：一组在九周内喂食脂肪含量约为11%的标准饲料；另一组则喂食脂肪含量高达45%的高脂饲料，其中大部分为来自动物产品的饱和脂肪。)”可知，实验中老鼠被分成了两个不同的饮食组。故选B项。 【13题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段“Generally speaking, more bacterial diversity is associated with better health, Lowry explained. (一般来说，肠道细菌种类越多，健康状况越好，Lowry解释道。)”可知，肠道菌群的多样性与健康呈正相关。故选D项。 【14题详解】 细节理解题。根据第四段“While serotonin is often billed as a “feel-good brain chemical”, Lowry notes that it can lead to anxiety-like responses in animals. (尽管血清素常被称为“让人感觉良好的大脑化学物质”，但Lowry指出，它也可能在动物体内引发类似焦虑的反应。)”可知，血清素可能引发焦虑反应。故选D项。 【15题详解】 主旨大意题。根据第一段“The study found that in animals, a high-fat diet destroys resident gut (肠道) bacteria, changes behavior and, through a complex pathway connecting the gut to the brain, influences brain chemicals in ways that increase anxiety. (研究发现，在动物体内，高脂肪饮食会破坏肠道内的常驻细菌，改变行为，并通过连接肠道与大脑的复杂通路，以某种方式影响大脑中的化学物质，从而增加焦虑情绪。)”及全文可知，文章主要讲述了一项关于高脂肪饮食对肠道菌群和大脑化学物质影响的研究，指出垃圾食品可能增加焦虑情绪。因此，文章的主旨是“摄入垃圾食品可能会增加焦虑”。故选C项。 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Significance of a Healthy Lifestyle As senior high students, we often find ourselves buried under a pile of textbooks and assignments, making it easy to ignore our health. ___16___ A healthy lifestyle significantly contributes to physical fitness. Regular exercise, for example, is a basis of physical well-being. When we engage in jogging, swimming, or cycling, it helps to strengthen our muscles, improve cardiovascular (心血管的) function, and boost our immune (免疫) system. ___17___ Additionally, a balanced diet is equally important. Consuming a variety of foods, including plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats, provides our bodies with the necessary nutrients to function best. Mental health also benefits greatly from a healthy lifestyle. Sufficient sleep, which is an essential part of it, allows our brains to rest and recover. When we get enough sleep, we wake up feeling refreshed and ready to face the day. ___18___ ___19___ When individuals are healthy, they are less likely to rely on medical resources, thus reducing the burden on the healthcare system. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to teach the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle in the general public. In the long run, a healthy lifestyle has far-reaching significance for our quality of life. People who maintain healthy habits are more likely to have a higher energy level throughout their lives. This means they can actively participate in various activities, whether it’s spending time with family, pursuing hobbies, or engaging in community work. ___20___ They may experience a decline in their physical and mental capabilities at a relatively young age, limiting their life choices and experiences. A. It also plays a positive role in our social life. B. There are many ways to start living a healthy lifestyle. C. In contrast, those with unhealthy lifestyles may lead an inactive life. D. These physical activities can also help us maintain a healthy weight. E. This can lead to better concentration, improved memory, and enhanced mood. F. What’s more, a healthy lifestyle can save a large amount of medical expenses. G. However, a healthy lifestyle is crucial for our well-being and academic performance. 【答案】16. G 17. D 18. E 19. F 20. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇议论文。文章论述了健康生活方式的重要性。 【16题详解】 上文“As senior high students, we often find ourselves buried under a pile of textbooks and assignments, making it easy to ignore our health.(作为高中生，我们常常发现自己埋在一堆课本和作业中，很容易忽视我们的健康)”指出高中生易忽视健康，G选项“However, a healthy lifestyle is crucial for our well being and academic performance.(然而，健康的生活方式对我们的幸福和学业成绩至关重要)”与上文构成转折关系，引出健康生活方式的重要性这一论述主题，上下文语意衔接自然。故选G项。 【17题详解】 上文“When we engage in jogging, swimming, or cycling, it helps to strengthen our muscles, improve cardiovascular (心血管的) function, and boost our immune (免疫) system.(当我们进行慢跑、游泳或骑自行车时，它有助于增强我们的肌肉，改善心血管功能，并提高我们的免疫系统)”阐述了运动对身体的好处，D选项“These physical activities can also help us maintain a healthy weight.(这些体育活动也可以帮助我们保持健康的体重)”进一步说明运动的好处，“These physical activities”指代上文的“jogging, swimming, or cycling”，上下文逻辑紧密。故选D项。 【18题详解】 上文“When we get enough sleep, we wake up feeling refreshed and ready to face the day.(当我们获得足够的睡眠时，我们醒来会感到精神焕发，准备好迎接新的一天)”说明了充足睡眠让人精神好，E选项“This can lead to better concentration, improved memory, and enhanced mood.(这可以导致更好的注意力、改善的记忆力和提升的情绪)”进一步解释了充足睡眠带来的好处，“This”指代上文“get enough sleep”这一行为。故选E项。 【19题详解】 下文“When individuals are healthy, they are less likely to rely on medical resources, thus reducing the burden on the healthcare system.(当个人健康时，他们不太可能依赖医疗资源，从而减轻了医疗系统的负担)”说明了健康生活方式能减轻医疗系统负担，F选项“What’s more, a healthy lifestyle can save a large amount of medical expenses.(更重要的是，健康的生活方式可以节省大量的医疗费用)”与下文内容呼应，都围绕健康生活方式在医疗方面的益处展开，上下文逻辑一致。故选F项。 【20题详解】 上文“People who maintain healthy habits are more likely to have a higher energy level throughout their lives. This means they can actively participate in various activities, whether it’s spending time with family, pursuing hobbies, or engaging in community work.(保持健康习惯的人一生更有可能拥有更高的能量水平。这意味着他们可以积极参与各种活动，无论是与家人共度时光、追求爱好还是参与社区工作)”描述了健康生活方式者的积极生活状态，C选项“In contrast, those with unhealthy lifestyles may lead an inactive life.(相比之下，那些有不健康生活方式的人可能会过着不活跃的生活)”与上文形成对比，说明不健康生活方式者的生活状态，上下文逻辑清晰。故选C项。 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 It was the first day of the new year and I was feeling out of shape. “This year, I am going to start walking at the mall every morning,” I promised, “no matter ____21____ happens.” Later the same day my neighbor Jean called. “Would you mind ____22____ Amy, my little dog Pomeranian, every morning for one week?” “It’s my ____23____”, I replied. The first morning of my walking ____24____ was bitter cold. I regretted approving of Jean’s request. The ____25____ was, no matter how much I love animals, it would still be “my ____26____.” When I arrived at Amy’s house, a small Pomeranian ____27____ me. She finished her hello by licking my leg but I ____28____. Then I took another look — and came the ____29____ gaze (凝视) of a Pomeranian, inviting me to be her friend. The two of us ____30____ outside into the freezing morning. The more we walked, the more I felt the ____31____ coming from my little companion — from her little heart to mine. Back at the house, after her meal and water, she fell asleep, using my foot as her ____32____. I closed my eyes for a bit, ____33____ in a way that a walk at the mall could never make me feel. My early mornings with Amy were not an ____34____ experience at all. She helped me ____35____ start a healthy new habit even on a cold January morning. It was a New Year’s gift, filled with love. 21. A. what B. how C. when D. where 22. A. playing B. walking C. training D. bathing 23. A. goodness B. fault C. pleasure D. turn 24. A. duties B. trips C. games D. goals 25. A. trend B. policy C. difference D. truth 26. A. reward B. responsibility C. task D. inconvenience 27. A. inspected B. greeted C. disturbed D. seized 28. A. broke down B. ran out C. pulled back D. looked up 29. A. angry B. anxious C. eager D. frightened 30. A. headed B. drove C. rushed D. searched 31. A. coldness B. warmth C. tiredness D. sadness 32. A. bed B. toy C. pillow D. chair 33. A. undergoing B. refreshing C. tolerating D. surviving 34. A. amazing B. exciting C. adventurous D. unpleasant 35. A. joyfully B. patiently C. unwillingly D. repeatedly 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述新年第一天，作者决心每天早上在商场散步，随后答应帮邻居遛狗一周。在寒冷早晨，作者带着小狗艾米散步，过程中感受到小狗的温暖陪伴，这让作者愉快地开启了健康的新习惯，作者视此为新年充满爱的礼物。 【21题详解】 考查连词词义辨析。句意：“今年，我要开始每天早上在商场散步，”我承诺，“无论发生什么事。”A. what什么；B. how怎样；C. when何时；D. where何地。no matter what“无论什么”，引导让步状语从句，在句中作主语，表示无论发生什么事，作者都要去散步，故选A项。 【22题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：“你介意每天早上帮我遛一下艾米，我的小博美犬，为期一周吗？”A. playing玩耍；B. walking散步，遛（狗等）；C. training训练；D. bathing洗澡。根据下文“The more we walked”可知，作者带小狗出去散步可知，这里是问是否介意帮忙遛狗，故选B项。 【23题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：“这是我的荣幸，”我回答道。A. goodness善良；B. fault错误；C. pleasure荣幸；D. turn轮流。当别人请求帮忙，常用“It’s my pleasure”表示乐意帮忙，故选C项。 【24题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：我散步任务的第一天非常寒冷。A. duties任务；B. trips旅行；C. games游戏；D. goals目标。根据上文“I am going to start walking at the mall every morning”可知，散步任务的第一天非常寒冷，故选A项。 【25题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：事实是，无论我多么喜欢动物，这仍然会给我带来不便。A. trend趋势；B. policy政策；C. difference不同；D. truth事实。根据下文“no matter how much I love animals, it would still be “my...”可知，这里表达的是实际情况，truth符合语境，故选D项。 【26题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：事实是，无论我多么喜欢动物，这仍然会给我带来不便。A. reward奖励；B. responsibility责任；C. task任务；D. inconvenience不便。根据上文“was bitter cold”和“no matter how much I love animals”，以及常识可推知，此处指天气很冷，帮邻居遛狗对作者来说是一种不便，故选D项。 【27题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：当我到达艾米家时，一只小博美犬向我打招呼。A. inspected检查；B. greeted打招呼；C. disturbed打扰；D. seized抓住。根据下文“She finished her hello by licking my leg”可知，小狗通过舔腿向作者打招呼，所以这里是小狗向作者打招呼，greet符合语境，故选B项。 【28题详解】 考查动词短语辨析。句意：她舔了舔我的腿算是打完招呼，但我往后退缩了。A. broke down崩溃，出故障；B. ran out用完；C. pulled back退缩；D. looked up查阅，抬头看。根据上文“ I regretted approving of Jean’s request”可知，作者后悔答应请求，所以作者一开始对小狗比较抗拒，所以会往后退缩，pull back符合语境，故选C项。 【29题详解】 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：然后我又看了一眼——迎来了一只博美犬热切的凝视，邀请我成为她的朋友。A. angry生气的；B. anxious焦虑的；C. eager热切的；D. frightened害怕的。根据下文“inviting me to be her friend”可知，小狗热切地想和作者做朋友，eager符合语境，故选C项。 【30题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：我们俩走进寒冷的早晨。A. headed前往，朝……走；B. drove驾驶；C. rushed冲；D. searched搜索。根据下文“outside into the freezing morning”这里指作者和小狗一起出去散步，head outside“朝外走”，符合语境，故选A项。 【31题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：我们走得越多，我就越能感受到来自我的小伙伴的温暖——从她小小的心传递到我的心。A. coldness寒冷；B. warmth温暖；C. tiredness疲惫；D. sadness悲伤。根据“from her little heart to mine”以及后文作者的感受可知，作者感受到小狗带来的温暖，故选B项。 【32题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：回到家，吃完喝完后，她睡着了，把我的脚当作她的枕头。A. bed床；B. toy玩具；C. pillow枕头；D. chair椅子。根据上文“she fell asleep”可知，小狗把头放在作者脚上睡觉，所以是把脚当作枕头，pillow符合语境，故选C项。 【33题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：我闭上眼睛休息了一会儿，这种精神焕发感觉是在商场散步永远无法带给我的。A. undergoing经历；B. refreshing使精神焕发；C. tolerating忍受；D. surviving幸存。根据上文“The more we walked, the more I felt the...coming from my little companion—from her little heart to mine.”可知，作者感受到小狗的温暖，这里指和小狗相处让作者精神焕发，refreshing符合语境，故选B项。 【34题详解】 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我和艾米共度的清晨根本不是一次不愉快的经历。A. amazing令人惊奇的；B. exciting令人兴奋的；C. adventurous冒险的；D. unpleasant不愉快的。根据下文“start a healthy new habit even on a cold January morning. It was a New Year’s gift, filled with love.”可知，小狗帮助作者开启健康新习惯，所以这段经历不是不愉快的，故选D项。 【35题详解】 考查副词词义辨析。句意：即使在寒冷的一月早晨，她也帮助我愉快地开启了一个健康的新习惯。A. joyfully愉快地；B. patiently耐心地；C. unwillingly不情愿地；D. repeatedly反复地。根据上文“My early mornings with Amy were not an...experience at all.”可知，作者是愉快地开启新习惯，故选A项。 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In recent decades, China ___36___ (make) remarkable progress in environmental protection. Facing severe environmental challenges ___37___ (bring) about by rapid economic development, the Chinese government has been taking a series of ___38___ (measure) to safeguard the ecological environment. One of the most significant efforts is the large-scale ___39___ (plant) of trees. The “Green Great Wall” project, ___40___ has been carried out for decades, aims to prevent desertification and improve the ecological conditions in the northern regions. Not only has this project effectively reduced soil erosion (侵蚀) ___41___ it has also provided habitats for wildlife. Moreover China has been strengthening ___42___ (it) environmental regulations (法规). Stricter laws and regulations have been put into effect, which require industries to adopt cleaner production technologies and reduce pollution emissions. Factories that fail ___43___ ( meet) the environmental standards will be shut down. In addition, the public’s environmental awareness has been raised ___44___ (significant). More and more people are actively participating in environmental protection activities, such as garbage classification and energy-saving activities. However, there is still a long way to go. As China continues to develop, it is crucial to strike a balance ____45____ economic growth and environmental protection. 【答案】36. has made 37. brought 38. measures 39. planting 40. which 41. but 42. its 43. to meet 44. significantly 45. between 【解析】 【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国在应对环境挑战、加强法规建设、提高公众环保意识等方面所做的努力，并强调了经济发展与环境保护之间平衡的重要性。 【36题详解】 考查现在完成时。句意：近几十年来，中国在环境保护方面取得了显著进展。根据时间状语“In recent decades”，此处需用现在完成时。故答案是has made。 【37题详解】 考查过去分词作后置定语。句意：面对由快速经济发展带来的严峻环境挑战，中国政府采取了一系列措施来保护生态环境。句子中已经存在谓语has been taking，bring需要变为非谓语动词，此处“bring about”与逻辑主语“challenges”之间是被动关系，需用过去分词作后置定语。故答案是brought。 【38题详解】 考查固定搭配。句意：面对由快速经济发展带来的严峻环境挑战，中国政府采取了一系列措施来保护生态环境。此处考查固定搭配take measures to do sth.，意思是“采取措施做……”，故答案是measures。 【39题详解】 考查名词。句意：其中最重要的努力之一是大规模植树。横线前有形容词large-scale，后有介词of，说明横线处应该填入名词形式，表示“种植”，plant的名词是planting。故答案是planting。 【40题详解】 考查定语从句。句意：“绿色长城”项目已经实施了数十年，旨在防止沙漠化并改善北部地区的生态条件。此处引导非限制性定语从句，先行词是“project”，在从句中作主语，需用关系代词which。故答案是which。 【41题详解】 考查固定句型。句意：这个项目不仅有效减少了土壤侵蚀，还为野生动物提供了栖息地。此处考查固定句型“not only...but also...”，表示“不仅……而且……”，其中also可以省略。故答案是but。 【42题详解】 考查代词。句意：此外，中国一直在加强其环境法规。横线后有名词regulations，此处需用形容词性物主代词“its”。故答案是its。 【43题详解】 考查动词短语。句意：未能达到环保标准的工厂将被关闭。这里考查动词短语fail to do sth.，表示“未能做某事”，需用动词不定式。故答案是to meet。 【44题详解】 考查副词。句意：此外，公众的环保意识也显著提高。此处需用副词修饰动词 raised，表示“显著地”。故答案是significantly。 【45题详解】 考查介词。句意：随着中国继续发展，在经济增长和环境保护之间取得平衡至关重要。此处考查固定搭配“strike a balance between...and...”，表示“在……和……之间取得平衡”。故答案是between。 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假设你是李华，你校英语杂志 Crazy English将举办主题为“How to use social media platforms wisely”的征文比赛，请你写一篇短文投稿。 注意： 1. 写作词数为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 How to use social media platforms wisely Many social miedia platforms are becoming increasingly popular as science and technology progresses. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】 How to use social media platforms wisely Many social media platforms are becoming increasingly popular as science and technology progresses. However, using them wisely is crucial. Here are some tips. Firstly, limit your screen time. Set a daily schedule to avoid addiction and focus on real-life activities. Secondly, choose content carefully. Follow accounts that inspire learning and positivity, and avoid harmful information. Thirdly, protect privacy. Never share personal details like addresses or passwords online. Finally, be respectful. Think before commenting and spread kindness instead of negativity. By following these steps, we can enjoy social media’s benefits while staying safe and responsible. Let’s make the digital world better together! 【解析】 【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生就你校英语杂志Crazy English将举办主题为 “How to use social media platforms wisely”的征文比赛进行投稿。 【详解】1.词汇积累 建议：tip → suggestion 首先：Firstly → First of all 集中于：focus on → concentrate on 喜欢：enjoy → be fond of 2.句式拓展 简单句变复合句 原句：Firstly, limit your screen time. 拓展句：Firstly, limit your screen time, which is of great importance. 【点睛】【高分句型1】Follow accounts that inspire learning and positivity, and avoid harmful information.（运用了that引导的限制性定语从句） 【高分句型2】 By following these steps, we can enjoy social media’s benefits while staying safe and responsible.（运用了状语从句的省略 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was the New Year’s Eve of 2025. Lily, a high-school senior, was filled with excitement as she prepared for the annual family gathering at her grandparents’ old-fashioned house in the countryside. The house was always filled with warmth and laughter during the holidays, and this year was no exception. As Lily arrived, she noticed that her cousin, Tom, seemed a bit down. Tom had been struggling with his studies and was worried about his future. Lily, determined to cheer him up, decided to spend some time with him before the big dinner. After a while, they found themselves in the attic (阁楼), going through old boxes filled with memories. Among the old stuff, they discovered an old-fashioned board game that their parents used to play when they were kids. Just as they were about to start playing, they heard a loud noise coming from outside. They rushed to the window and saw that a heavy snowstorm had suddenly hit. The wind was howling, and the snow was piling up rapidly. Realizing that the storm might cause some problems, Lily’s parents and uncles decided to check on the generators and the heating system. Meanwhile, Lily and Tom continued their exploration in the attic, hoping to find more interesting things to pass the time. Suddenly, Tom found a small, dusty diary hidden at the bottom of a box. As he opened it, he found that it was written by their great-grandfather. The diary was filled with stories about his life, his struggles, and his hopes for the future. One story in particular caught their attention. It was about how their great-grandfather had faced a difficult time during a harsh winter when he was young. But he never gave up, and with the help of his family and friends, he managed to get through it. As they read on, they were deeply inspired by their great-grandfather’s perseverance. Just then, Lily had an idea. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 She suggested that they share the story with the whole family. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ After the dinner, Tom decided to share his own plans for the future. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】One possible version: She suggested that they share the story with the whole family. Tom immediately agreed. When everyone was seated around the dinner table, Lily began to tell the touching story from the diary. Everyone listened quietly. As she finished, there was a moment of reflection, and then her grandfather spoke up, sharing his own memories of how the family had always supported each other through difficulties and obstacles. This led to a lively discussion about the importance of family bonds and perseverance. After the dimer, Tom decided to share his own plans for the future. He said that inspired by their great-grandfather’s story, he had decided to face his study difficulties bravely. He was going to make a detailed study plan and ask teachers and classmates for help. Everyone listened attentively and offered words of encouragement. This special New Year’s Eve not only brought them closer but also filled them with hope and determination for the coming year. 【解析】 【导语】本文以Lily和Tom在雪夜中发现的旧日记为线索展开，讲述了2025年除夕夜，高中生Lily在祖父母乡下的老宅中试图鼓舞因学业烦恼而情绪低落的堂弟Tom的故事。他们在阁楼寻找有趣物品时，发现了曾祖父年轻时度过艰难寒冬的日记。通过阅读日记中的故事，他们被曾祖父面对困境时不放弃的精神所激励，并决定与家人分享这个故事。 【详解】1.段落续写： ①由第一段首句内容“她建议他们把故事分享给全家。”可知，第一段可描写分享故事的时候大家的反应以及这些故事对大家的影响。 ②由第二段首句内容“晚餐后，Tom决定分享自己对未来的计划。”可知，第二段可描写Tom的计划是什么以及大家听后的反应。 2.续写线索：分享曾祖父的故事——全家认真倾听——受到故事的影响——Tom决定分享计划——家人支持并鼓励——故事感悟 3.词汇激活 行为类 ①就坐：be seated/sit down/seat oneself ②支持：support/back ③面对：face/be faced with 情绪类 ①感人的：touching/moving ②鼓舞：inspired/encouraged/motivated 【点睛】[高分句型1] As she finished, there was a moment of reflection, and then her grandfather spoke up, sharing his own memories of how the family had always supported each other through difficulties and obstacles.（运用了as引导时间状语从句、现在分词短语作状语以及how引导的宾语从句） [高分句型2] He said that inspired by their great-grandfather’s story, he had decided to face his study difficulties bravely.（运用了that引导的宾语从句以及过去分词短语作状语） 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$