山东省菏泽市成武县2024-2025学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题

2024-2025学年度第二学期期中学业质量测评 七年级英语试题 注意事项: 1. 本试题分第I卷和第II卷两部分。第I卷为选择题,75分;第II卷为非选择题,45分;共120分。考试用时120分钟。 2. 请务必在答题卡规定的答题区域内作答,第I卷须用2B铅笔填涂,第II卷须用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写。 第Ⅰ卷（选择题共75分） 一、听力（共四节,满分30分） 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5个小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子, 每个句子后有三幅图画。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的图画, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节（共5个小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子, 每个句子后有一道小题。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答语, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 6. A. They're cool. B. In Sichuan. C. Yes, I do. 7. A. I'm good at it. B. Yes, it's mine. C. It's well-used. 8. A. It's too long. B.30 yuan. C. Twice a day. 9. A. Good idea. B. Rice, please. C. Oh, me too. 10. A. Exactly! B. Let me count. C. Here you are. 第三节（共 5 个小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分） 听下面5段对话, 每段对话后有一道小题。每段对话读两遍。请你听完对话的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 11. What does the woman serve? A. Tea. B. Cake. C. Ice cream. 12. What does Nick's mum tell him to do? A. Do his homework. B. Play outside. C. Watch TV. 13. What does Sally need? A. A jump rope. B. A skateboard. C. A tennis racket. 14. What animals does Bill want to see first? A. The giraffes. B. The elephants. C. The tigers. 15. How often does the woman play football with her team? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 第四节（共 5 个小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分） 听下面一段短文, 短文后有五道小题。短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 16. What colour is Peter's hair? A. Brown. B. Black. C. Red. 17. What is Peter like? A. Quiet. B. Interesting. C. Polite. 18. What musical instrument does Peter like playing? A. The drums. B. The piano. C. The guitar. 19. What time does Peter usually get up? A. At 6:00 a. m. B. At 6:15 a. m. C. At 6:30 a. m. 20. What does Peter love? A. Chocolate. B. Chips. C. Soft drinks. 二、完形填空（共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 In a small village, there lives a young man named Bob. He feels very ___1___. One day he goes to a smart man to ask how to become rich (富有的). The smart man says, “Bob, you are ___2___ rich.” “But where is my wealth (财富)?” Bob asks. “I can’t find it anywhere.” “It’s right there ___3___ you,” the smart man says. “Your ears are your wealth. They let you hear the birds singing and your family laughing. Your ___4___ are your wealth. With them, you can work and cook. Your legs are your wealth. They take ___5___ to any place you want to go.” “You call these wealth? Everyone has them,” Bob says. “Well, would you like to give your ___6___ to the blind? And I can give you a lot of money,” the smart man says. Bob says without thinking, “ ___7___ ! My eyes are important to me! They let me ___8___ all beautiful things in the world.” “That’s right, Bob. Health is wealth. We should treasure (珍爱) it and ___9___ it. It can hardly come back ___10___ it goes,” the smart man says. 1. A. poor B. healthy C. handsome 2. A. soon B. sometimes C. already 3. A. about B. with C. behind 4. A. hands B. ears C. teeth 5. A. us B. me C. you 6. A. mouth B. eyes C. nose 7. A. Thanks B. Please C. No 8. A. see B. hear C. write 9. A. belong to B. look after C. talk about 10. A. before B. because C. once 三、阅读选择（共 20 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 30 分） 阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Sunshine Art Museum Please follow the rules: 1. Do not run. 2. Do not eat or drink. 3. Do not take photos. 4. Put your litter in the black box. 5. Queue up 15 minutes before the workshop (工作坊) starts. 6. Speak quietly in the workshop. Workshops: ▲Making Toy Planes (玩具飞机) (10:15 a. m.—11:15 a. m. ) ▲Making Paper Clothes (3:00 p. m.—4:00 p. m. ) 11. Which picture is for Rule 2? A. B. C. 12. In the workshop, people must _________. A. queue up B. take photos C. speak quietly 13. How many workshops are there at Sunshine Art Museum? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 14. When does the “Making Paper Clothes” workshop start? A. At 10:15 a. m. B. At 3:00 p. m. C. At 4:00 p. m. 15 You may see the material from a _________. A. notice B. drama C. storybook B Kate is a Grade 7 student. She lives with her mum, dad and grandma. She likes doing sports. She’s a member of the school Wushu club. These days, she is busy learning Tai Chi. Kate’s grandma spends most of her time sleeping and watching TV. Her life is boring. Kate wants to help Grandma change that, so she starts to teach Grandma Tai Chi. At the start, Grandma doesn’t like it because it’s difficult for her. She often makes mistakes when she tries to do the moves (动作). But Kate always encourages her. They practise for half an hour every day. Today is Kate’s birthday and her family has a party for her. Four of Kate’s good friends come to the party. After they play some fun games, Grandma walks to Kate and says she has a surprise. Then Grandma does a few Tai Chi moves. She does very well. Kate gives Grandma a big hug (拥抱). Grandma says, “Thank you, Kate. I have a new hobby. My life is interesting now and I’m also getting healthy.” 16. What can we know about Kate from Paragraph 1? A. She is in Grade Eight. B. She loves sports. C. She has a family of three. 17. How is Kate’s grandma’s life before she learns Tai Chi? A Boring. B. Interesting. C. Exciting. 18. How long does Kate do Tai Chi with Grandma every day? A. For 30 minutes. B. For 40 minutes. C. For 60 minutes. 19. What is Grandma’s surprise for Kate on her birthday? A. A fun game. B. A delicious cake. C. A few Tai Chi moves. 20. What is the passage mainly about? A. Busy school life. B. New hobby, new life. C. A big birthday party. C Michael wants to be a healthy boy. He often plays sports and he likes running with his friends. However, Michael has a bad eating habit—he doesn’t like vegetables. This makes his mum worry about him. Every day, Michael’s mum prepares vegetables for him, but he says no to them and asks for cookies or chips. “Michael,” his mum says again and again, “you need to eat well to grow big and strong.” But Michael doesn’t listen to her. One day, Mum comes up with a great idea. She asks Michael to ▲ his own vegetables in their yard! Michael is happy to have a try. At the start, Michael has a lot of fun. But after a few days, he finds that it is hard work. He has to water the plants, and he even has to pull weeds (拔草). But to Mum’s joy (高兴), Michael keeps working hard. Weeks pass and Michael goes to pick the fresh vegetables excitedly. He even helps Mum cook some of the vegetables for dinner. To Michael’s surprise, he finds these vegetables taste good! He understands that hard work makes them taste good. From that day on, Michael starts eating vegetables! 21. Why does Michael’s mum worry about him? A. He has no friends. B. He doesn’t like sports. C. He doesn’t like vegetables. 22. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A. Vegetables. B. Cookies. C. Chips. 23. The best word for “ ▲ ” is “________”. A. pick B. grow C. cook 24. What’s Paragraph 4 mainly about? A. How Michael takes care of the vegetables. B. Why Michael wants to take care of the vegetables. C When Michael usually takes care of the vegetables. 25. What can you learn about Michael from the last paragraph? A. He will grow more vegetables. B. He will cook dinner every day. C. He is happy with his hard work. D One day in July, something funny happens (发生) in a little village in Qinghai Province. Three big brown bears visit a villager’s house when no one is at home. Why do they do that? Because they are hungry and they want to find food to eat! The bears look around and find bags of beans. Then one bear puts his head into a plastic bucket (塑料桶) to see what is inside, but he can’t get his head out. It looks like he is wearing a funny hat! A villager sees the bear and worries about him. The villager calls the police for help. The policemen arrive quickly and know they must help the bear. But bears are strong and can be angry when they are hungry, so the policemen can’t just take off the bucket with their hands. One of the policemen has an idea. “Let’s use a rope!” he says. Then they make a noose (绳套) and want to use it to catch the bucket from far away. They wait for the bear to become quiet. When the bear is sleepy, they toss the rope to him and catch the bucket with the noose. Then, the policemen and the bear play a “tug of war (拔河)”. After a little while, the bucket falls off the bear’s head. The policemen and the bear are scared. They all run away. And the bear runs back to the forest. Now, everyone in the village loves to tell the story of the bear with the bucket. 26. Why do the bears go to the village? A. To look for food. B. To find their hats. C. To do something funny. 27. Where does the bear put his head? A. Into a box. B. Into a bucket. C. Into a bag. 28. What does the underlined word “toss” in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese? A. 拉紧 B. 挥舞 C. 投掷 29. What’s Paragraph 4 mainly about? A. How the policemen help the bear. B. When the policemen help the bear. C. Why the policemen stay with the bear. 30. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Bear Is Strong B. The Villager Is Safe C. A Bear’s Funny “Hat” 四、情景交际（共 5 小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分） 根据对话内容，选择恰当的选项补全对话，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A: This is a nice place! And this e-menu looks cool! B: Yeah! Look! This Mapo tofu looks very nice. A: ____31____ B: It’s a hot dish. And it’s very spicy (辛辣的). A: This Gongbao chicken looks great too. ____32____ B: I’d like to try the tofu dish. Would you like something to drink? A: Sure, I’d like to drink some tea. ____33____ Would you like some juice or coffee? B: No, thanks. ____34____ Oh, a cup of tea with milk. A: Do people in the UK usually put milk in their tea? B: Sometimes. ____35____ It’s just like milk tea! A: Yes I’d love to try! A. What about you? B. I’d like a cup of tea too. C. Is it a cold or hot dish? D. Do you want to have a try? E. Would you like chicken or tofu? 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共45分） 温馨提示: 请将答案书写在答题卡的指定位置。 五、阅读表达（共 5 小题; 每小题 2 分, 满分 10分） Hello! I am Capybara, a new animal superstar. You know me, right? Are you ready to come into my world? Let’s go! I am cute but I can grow as long as a big desk and as tall as a chair. I only eat plants. Grass, fruits and vegetables are my favourite food. My home is in the forests in South America, near rivers and lakes. We capybaras are all great swimmers. We can stay underwater for up to 5 minutes! We are getting more and more popular now. Why? We are social butterflies. We love to hang out with our friends. We often spend a lot of time together, sharing food and taking naps. We love a peaceful life. That’s why we seldom fight with each other. We enjoy resting in the sun and swimming in the water. Even though we may look quite big, we are very friendly. We like to come up to people and welcome them into our world. So there you have it! We’re not just big and cute —we’re social, peaceful and friendly. Do you want to be friends with us? We‘re waiting with open arms to welcome you! 36. What does Capybara only eat? ___________________________________ 37. Where is Capybara’s home? ___________________________________ 38. Why are Capybaras getting more and more popular now? ___________________________________ 39. 请把划线句子翻译成汉语。 ___________________________________ 40. 请从文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。 Would you like to make friends with us? ___________________________________ 六、词汇运用（共 10 小题; 每小题 1分, 满分 10分） （A）根据语境及所给音标提示, 补全所缺单词。 41. I don’t like snakes because they’re________. /'skeəri / 42. There’re many rules in life, and they can help you to ________ /bɪ'kʌm/ a better person. 43. In our ________ /gru:p/, many students like to do sport and exercise. 44. Do you think the poor eating habits are common ________/ ә'mʌŋ/ young people? 45. Shh, we must talk ________ /'kwaɪətli/ in the library. （B） 根据语境，从方框中选择恰当的短语填空，每个限用一次。 absent from, in danger, focus on, put on, full of 46. Beijing is a beautiful city ________ culture and history. 47. Oh, the rabbit is ________. We must find a way to save it. 48. Mary is ________ school today because she is in hospital. 49. You can’t use your phone in class because you need to ________ learning. 50. When you eat more food than your body needs, you may ________ weight over time. 七、综合填空（共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分） A 阅读下面对话，用方框内所给词汇的适当形式填空，使对话或短文语义完整。 lend, off, tell, first, can’t Anne: Hi, I’m Anne. What’s your name? Tom: Hello! I’m Tom. It’s my ___51___ day here. Anne: It’s nice to meet you, Tom! Is everything OK? Tom: Well, I can’t find my pencil box. I think it’s in my locker. Anne: Here, I can ___52___ you my pen. Tom: Thanks! Would you like a sweet? Anne: No, thank you. We ___53___ eat snacks in class. Tom: Can we drink water? Anne: Yes, of course. Tom: OK, thanks… Oh! I’m sorry, I have to answer my phone. Anne: Oh, but we mustn’t bring our mobile phones to class. We have to turn them ___54___ and keep them in our lockers. That’s another rule. Tom: OK! Thanks for ___55___ me, Anne. Anne: You’re welcome, Tom. B 阅读下面短文，用方框内所给词汇的适当形式填空，使对话或短文语义完整。 pick up, one another, different from, in some ways, look after I love elephants. They look very ____56____ other animals. They are huge. They have large ears and long trunks. They can ____57____ and carry heavy things with their trunks. Elephants are like us ____58____. They are very playful and love to play in the water. They are great swimmers. They are also clever. For example, they can remember ____59____ and places with food and water after many years. Elephants are very kind too. They ____60____ other elephants when they don’t feel well. The big elephants also help the baby ones. 八、书面表达（满分15分） 61. 假如你是李华，你校英文公众号Teen Talk栏目正在举办征文活动，请根据以下征文信息写一篇短文并投稿。 **Write for Teen Talk!** Hey there! How do you stay healthy (保持健康)? We’d love to hear from you! Here are some questions to help you write your article. ◆Can you share (分享) some good habits to stay healthy? ◆What healthy food do you eat? ◆What sports do you usually do? Can’t wait to read your amazing article! Teen Talk 要求：1. 内容充实， 结构完整，语言准确，书写规范； 2. 词数不少于70。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024-2025学年度第二学期期中学业质量测评 七年级英语试题 注意事项: 1. 本试题分第I卷和第II卷两部分。第I卷为选择题,75分;第II卷为非选择题,45分;共120分。考试用时120分钟。 2. 请务必在答题卡规定的答题区域内作答,第I卷须用2B铅笔填涂,第II卷须用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写。 第Ⅰ卷（选择题共75分） 一、听力（共四节,满分30分） 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5个小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子, 每个句子后有三幅图画。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的图画, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节（共5个小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子, 每个句子后有一道小题。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答语, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 6. A. They're cool. B. In Sichuan. C. Yes, I do. 7. A. I'm good at it. B. Yes, it's mine. C. It's well-used. 8. A. It's too long. B.30 yuan. C. Twice a day. 9. A. Good idea. B. Rice, please. C. Oh, me too. 10. A. Exactly! B. Let me count. C. Here you are. 第三节（共 5 个小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分） 听下面5段对话, 每段对话后有一道小题。每段对话读两遍。请你听完对话的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 11. What does the woman serve? A. Tea. B. Cake. C. Ice cream. 12. What does Nick's mum tell him to do? A. Do his homework. B. Play outside. C. Watch TV. 13. What does Sally need? A. A jump rope. B. A skateboard. C. A tennis racket. 14. What animals does Bill want to see first? A. The giraffes. B. The elephants. C. The tigers. 15. How often does the woman play football with her team? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 第四节（共 5 个小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分） 听下面一段短文, 短文后有五道小题。短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。 16. What colour is Peter's hair? A. Brown. B. Black. C. Red. 17. What is Peter like? A. Quiet. B. Interesting. C. Polite. 18. What musical instrument does Peter like playing? A. The drums. B. The piano. C. The guitar. 19. What time does Peter usually get up? A. At 6:00 a. m. B. At 6:15 a. m. C. At 6:30 a. m. 20. What does Peter love? A. Chocolate. B. Chips. C. Soft drinks. 二、完形填空（共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C 三、阅读选择（共 20 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 30 分） 阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. A B 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. B C 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. C D 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. C 四、情景交际（共 5 小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. C 32. E 33. A 34. B 35. D 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共45分） 温馨提示: 请将答案书写在答题卡的指定位置。 五、阅读表达（共 5 小题; 每小题 2 分, 满分 10分） 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. Capybara only eats plants. 37. Capybara’s home is in the forests in South America, near rivers and lakes. 38. Because they are social, peaceful and friendly. 39. 我们喜欢与朋友闲逛。 40. Do you want to be friends with us? 六、词汇运用（共 10 小题; 每小题 1分, 满分 10分） （A）根据语境及所给音标提示, 补全所缺单词。 【41题答案】 【答案】scary 【42题答案】 【答案】become 【43题答案】 【答案】group 【44题答案】 【答案】among 【45题答案】 【答案】quietly （B） 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. full of 47. in danger 48. absent from 49. focus on 50. put on 七、综合填空（共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分） A 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. first 52. lend 53. can’t 54. off 55. telling B 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. different from 57. pick up 58. in some ways 59. one another 60 look after 八、书面表达（满分15分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文： Staying healthy is important for everyone. Here are some ways I keep fit. First, I develop good habits like getting up early and going to bed before 10 p.m. I also wash hands frequently to avoid germs. Second, I eat healthy food such as vegetables, fruits and whole grains instead of junk food. Drinking enough water every day is my habit too. Third, I exercise regularly. I play basketball twice a week and run every morning. These sports help me stay energetic. In conclusion, by keeping good habits, eating right and exercising often, I maintain a healthy lifestyle. I hope my experience can help others. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$