天津市天津市蓟州区2024-2025学年高二下学期7月期末英语试题

天津市部分区2024-2025学年度第二学期期末练习 高二英语 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分，共120分，考试用时100分钟。 第Ⅰ卷(共85分) 第一部分：听力理解(共两节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the woman going to do tonight? A. Watch TV. B. Go to the theater. C. Play volleyball. 2. Where are most probably the speakers? A. On a farm. B. At a restaurant. C. In a park. 3. When will the man see the doctor? A. At the moment. B. At 10 o’ clock. C. In 5 minutes. 4. What will the woman do first after work? A. Get dinner ready. B. Pick up the kids. C. Go home. 5. What does the man mean? A. The woman owns the whole shop. B. The woman has bought too much. C. The woman came back late. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至8题。 6. Where are the speakers planning to go in the morning? A. To the city hall. B. To the art museum. C. To the shopping center. 7. Why does the man want to go to the zoo? A. To have Chinese food. B. To buy nice gifts. C. To see unusual animals. 8. How will the speakers get to the beach? A. By subway. B. By bike. C. On foot. 听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11小题。 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She decides to learn skating. B. She plays a lot of sports. C. She finds it hard to do sports. 10. What does the man say about skiing in the mountains? A. It’s expensive. B. It’s dangerous. C. It’s unpopular. 11. Where does the man play football? A. In a local school. B. On the beach. C. At a sports center. 听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15小题。 12. What kind of work does the speaker do? A. Greeting customers. B. Helping in the kitchen. C. Shopping for the staff. 13. Why does the speaker like the job? A. There is no pressure. B. He can learn something. C. It’s good to his health. 14. What happens when the speaker has to rush? A. He makes his uncle angry. B. He tends to break things. C. He complains to the manager. 15. What is most probably the speaker? A. A school cleaner. B. An assistant cook. C. A college student. 第二部分：英语知识运用(共两节，满分35分) 第一节：单项填空(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —I apologize for forgetting the E-dictionary you lent me. —______. You can bring it next time. A. You are welcome B. Never mind C. That’s right D. My pleasure 2. Many experts believe that economic growth is ______ related to employment opportunities. A. gradually B. quickly C. directly D. immediately 3. In a room above the store, where a party ______, some workers were busily setting the table. A. would be held B. will be held C. was to hold D. is to hold 4. —Shall we take a taxi? —No, we ______. It’s only ten minutes’ walk. A. couldn’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. daren’t 5. Paper cutting doesn’t seem hard to learn ______ you practise regularly. A. in case B. as long as C. so that D. in order that 6. The teacher always tells us, “Knowledge is power,”______ encourages us to keep learning and expanding our horizons. A who B. where C. as D. which 7. Most of these forests ______ unprotected in the past, but now they are legally preserved. A. stayed B. stay C. will stay D. have stayed 8. The ______ to stay healthy has encouraged many people to take up regular exercise. A. desire B. potential C. curiosity D. quantity 9. It’s a good habit to check the weather forecast ______ when planning an outdoor activity. A. in detail B. in fact C. in advance D. in addition 10. The President agreed to the proposal, ______ that he hoped for a peaceful solution. A. assuming B. reporting C. doubting D. stating 11. The activity center is looking for a volunteer ______ meals to people living alone. A. to be delivered B. to deliver C. delivered D. having delivered 12. However dark the road ahead is, always keep your head up to the sky because that’s ______ your dreams lie. A. that B. whether C. what D. where 13. ______ climate change for over a decade, Mary remains increasingly concerned about its worsening effects. A. Having studied B. Studying C. To study D. Studied 14. A good school policy should be ______ students’ real needs and opinions. A. made of B. known for C. based on D. separated from 15. — I’m going to Spain. Would you tell me about your experience there? — ______. Let’s discuss it after class. A. Go ahead B. Have a try C. Forget it D. By all means 第二节：完型填空(共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从31~50各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 One Sunday, our family had dinner together. While the adults talked in the living room, I was ____16____ in the kitchen to help my grandmother wash dishes. As usual, she told me stories about her ____17____ while we worked. Born in the early 1950s, my grandmother experienced an ____18____ different childhood lifestyle from mine. She did not have a ____19____ to go to school. Like in typical families, where boys were ____20____ much more than girls, my grandma had to stay at home to do housework. The only opportunity she could ____21____ to study was when her brother was having Chinese ____22____ with the home tutor (家庭教师). She would sit quietly at the far end of the long dinner table, listening ____23____. This training taught her to read and write her Chinese upside down — a skill that has ____24____ to be quite practical, especially ____25____ we share the newspaper. On most weekends, my grandmother, a young girl then, and her brother would go to the ____26____. There, they would walk through deep water, sit down cross-legged underwater and hold their ____27____ while they watched all action going on around them. This is something I ____28____ — her ability to open her eyes ____29____ and still sit comfortably on the seabed. My childhood is much happier than my grandmother’s. I feel ____30____ that I did not have to go through the ____31____ she experienced. Unlike her, I have never had problems with ____32____. I believe the difference in our childhoods ____33____ why my grandmother is such a ____34____ person to talk to. Her stories are so vivid that they bring the past to life and make my history textbooks ____35____. 16. A. turned down B. left behind C. paid off D. picked out 17. A. childhood B. marriage C. career D. study 18. A. sincerely B. hardly C. properly D. entirely 19. A. gift B. chance C. opinion D. permit 20. A. favored B. tolerated C. trusted D. paid 21. A. determine B. display C. attract D. seize 22. A. cultures B. lessons C. versions D. characters 23. A. carefully B. exactly C. nervously D. really 24. A. proved B. tended C. remained D. evolved 25. A. since B. because C. before D. when 26. A. market B. mountain C. beach D. class 27. A. secret B. breath C. view D. tongue 28. A. admire B. notice C. adopt D. commit 29. A. downstairs B. underground C. underwater D. overland 30. A. regretful B. amazed C. thankful D. disappointed 31. A. difficulties B. regrets C. joys D. adventures 32. A. housework B. education C. experiment D. performance 33. A. means B. argues C. explains D. confirms 34. A. patient B. depressing C. boring D. wonderful 35. A. dry up B. fade away C. stand out D. come alive 第三部分：阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A If you always try to make others happy, you might feel tired and lose yourself. This happens because you fear rejection or criticism. You think saying “yes” to everyone will make them like you, but it sometimes creates problems. Others will keep asking for favors, and you’ll feel stressed. True happiness comes from balancing others’ needs with your own. Here are simple ways to stop being such a people-pleaser: Wait before answering Next time someone texts or emails a request, don’t reply immediately. Wait 24hours to think. Show people how to treat us. And train them on what to expect from us. Provide a choice For those who want to say no in a gentle way, instead of giving an excuse, you can provide a choice. It’s more useful too! Something like, “I’d love to help you pick out a new sofa but not this weekend. My friend Lucy has an excellent eye for sofas.” is much more helpful. Remember you can say no Most people say “yes” because they feel pressured, not because they want to. Pause and ask: “Do I really want to do this?” If helping others makes you unhappy. it’s okay to refuse. Saying “no” to small things frees time for what you truly care about. Know it gets easier Saying no needs practice. The more you do it, the more used to it you become and the less people expect from you. Once you say you are unavailable a few times, people stop asking so much from you. Accept you can’t please everyone No matter how hard you try, some people won’t like you. Focus on doing what’s right for you. And a rich, wonderful life has lots of those “yes” moments—as well as plenty of loving “nos”. 36. Who is the passage written for? A. Those who like satisfying everyone. B. People who always make requests. C. Those who often feel stressed. D. People who want more freedom. 37. What are you advised to do when someone makes a request through email? A Pretend not to see it. B. Give an immediate answer. C. Teach him a good lesson. D. Avoid giving a quick reply. 38. Giving someone a choice can make saying no ______. A. less helpful B. more important C. less believable D. more effective 39. What will people do if you say no a few times? A. Lose touch with you. B. Leave you immediately. C. Stop asking you so much. D. Consider you to be impolite. 40. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To help people avoid making mistakes. B. To advise on avoiding pleasing everyone. C. To encourage people to focus on their own needs. D. To explain why some people dislike others. B “If you could have any three things, what would you want?” Eleven-year-old Ruby Kate Chitsey loves asking that question, but it’s not a game. She asks it at nursing homes. Even more amazing, she then sets out to make the residents’ (住户) wishes come true. Ruby Kate has long been close to older folks. Her mother, Amanda Chitsey, is a nurse who works at nursing homes in northwest Arkansas, and Ruby Kate often stays with her in the summer. Last May, Ruby Kate noticed a resident named Pearl staring out a window. She seemed sad. “What are you looking at?” Ruby Kate asked. Pearl said she was watching her dog being led away by his new owner after a visit. Pearl didn’t know when she would see her dog again. Ruby Kate and Amanda asked around and discovered that the nursing home didn’t allow residents to have dogs and Pearl couldn’t afford to pay anyone to look after hers. So Ruby Kate decided to do something. Amanda began her project by asking residents to name the three things they wanted most in life. “This way seems easier than asking, ’What do you want?’” she explained. “It helps people communicate their needs more clearly.” At first she worried that people might request cars and other things an 11-year-old wouldn’t be able to provide. Instead, they expressed hopes to receive chocolate bars, pants that fit properly, and even wanted someone to talk to. “It broke me,” Amanda says. “We left the nursing home that day and went straight to a store and bought as many items as we could.” They granted the wishes of about 100 people in three months. Then they started asking for donations. The good people of Harrison responded enthusiastically, so much so that Amanda set up a GoFundMe page, Three Wishes for Ruby’s Residents, hoping to collect $5,000, which was realized in a month. Then it became a nonprofit and planned to start its first nationwide donation. Ruby Kate doesn’t plan to stop there. “I consider kindness to be my hobby,” she says, “and I’m very good at it.” By making kindness a part of life, she shows that even small acts can bring big happiness. 41. Why did Ruby ask nursing home residents what they wanted most? A. To satisfy her own curiosity. B. To show her sympathy to them. C. To help them realize their wishes. D. To check on their living conditions. 42. How did Ruby get the idea to ask residents the question? A. By working together with her mother. B. By noticing what happened to a resident. C. By helping a resident get back her dog. D. By living with older folks for a long time. 43. What shocked Amanda after she got the answers from the residents? A. They just asked for some simple items. B. What they needed were some luxuries. C. What they wanted were beyond her reach. D. They were poorly treated in the nursing home. 44. What does the underlined word “granted” in Paragraph 5 mean? A. Ignored. B. Promised. C. Met. D. Denied. 45. How does Ruby Kate view kindness? A. As a passion she is skilled at. B. As a task adults should finish. C. As a duty she performed. D. As a game kids love playing. C A significant study, led by Sarah Gaither, a researcher from Duke University, shows that reminding children of their different social roles—like friend, neighbor, son, or daughter—can greatly improve their problem-solving skills and creative thinking. This research highlights the importance of self-awareness in early cognitive growth and gives useful advice for teachers and parents. The experiment included 196 English-speaking children aged 6 to 10. The children were split into two groups. The first group was reminded that they had various roles, such as son, daughter, reader or helper, while the second group of children received information about other children’s many roles instead of their own. Both groups then did tasks to test creativity, flexibility, and analytical skills. The results were clear. Children in the first group solved problems better. For example, when shown a picture of a bear looking at a high beehive (蜂巢), these children thought of more creative ideas—like using a stick to get honey or working with imaginary animals. They also adapted better when sorting facial photos. While the control group sorted faces by simple traits like gender or age, the first group used deeper details, like facial expressions or situations. Gaither says the results show a simple but useful method for teachers. “By teaching children to think about their roles, schools can help them develop skills for adaptability and new ideas,” she says. This matches social identity theory, which states that knowing many group memberships broadens views and reduces fixed thinking. “People often consider they belong to only one group at a time,” said Christopher Marlowe, a teacher in Durham, North Carolina, “When we make kids realize that they have different roles, they begin to think more and remember that there are many other groups. It will do good to their mental development.” 46. What is Sarah Gaither’s role in the study? A. A teacher designing classroom activities. B. A psychologist analyzing social behaviors. C. A journalist reporting on child development. D. A university researcher leading the study. 47. What does Paragraph 2 suggest about the experiment design? A. The first group learned about their roles. B. Children were grouped by their ages. C. The second group received no tasks. D. All participants listed family members. 48. Why does the author mention the example of the beehive? A To emphasize the difficulty of the tests. B. To criticize traditional teaching methods. C. To show role awareness affects problem-solving. D. To compare children’s creativity with that of animals. 49. What can be inferred about children aware of multiple roles? A. They struggle with group cooperation. B. They develop broader views on social issues. C. They rely more on adults for decision-making. D. They prefer individual activities over teamwork. 50 Which of the following is the passage probably taken from? A. A history book. B. An art magazine. C. A science magazine. D. A technical instruction book. 第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共35分) 第四部分：写作(共两节，满分35分) 第一节：阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读短文，并按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 I am a 45-year-old man, married and have a successful career as a lawyer. But my life was not always so great. I had a learning disability from an early age. I went to a special school where I got plenty of extra help. Still, I suffered the rest of my school days in public schools. My turning point came when I joined a music band. Playing the guitar became my voice when words failed. At first, my fingers trembled and I couldn’t press the strings correctly. Yet, through daily practice, I could play melodies that expressed emotions I couldn’t put into words. Here I learned my first important lesson: disabled as I was in language, I could still be smart and well express myself with music. And my confidence came along. I got my next lesson from long-distance running. In the beginning, running even one kilometer made me tired. My legs hurt, and I wanted to stop. But I set small goals. Each week, I ran a little farther. After about two years of running, I found myself training for a long-distance running race. I learned that the more you practice something, the better at it you will become. Later I decided to apply my previous experience to learning how to read and write. Every day I practiced reading and writing, which I used to avoid as much as possible. After two hard years, I was literate. Having gone through the long process with music, running, reading and writing, now I’ve got to a point in my life where I know I am smart enough to dive into an area that is totally unknown, hard, but interesting. 51. What made the author’s school days difficult? (no more than 5 words) ___________________________________________________________________________ 52. Why did music give the author confidence? (no more than 10 words) ___________________________________________________________________________ 53. What lesson did the author learn from long-distance running? (no more than 15 words) ___________________________________________________________________________ 54. What is the meaning of the underlined part in Paragraph 4? (no more than 5 words) ___________________________________________________________________________ 55. How does the author’s story inspire you to overcome difficulties in life? Put it in your own words. (no more than 20 words) ___________________________________________________________________________ 第二节：书面表达(满分25分) 56. 假设你是晨光中学的李津。6月5日是世界环境日，学校英语俱乐部正在举办主题为“绿色出行，美好未来”的写作比赛。请根据以下信息，撰写一篇稿件参赛。 年份 天津新能源汽车销量 2014年 2825辆 2024年 160,000辆 内容包括： (1)简要描述表格所示现象： (2)分析该现象产生的原因(如环保意识、政府政策、技术发展等)： (3)发出号召，鼓励绿色出行。 参考词汇： 新能源汽车new energy vehicles (NEVs) 注意： (1)词数不少于100； (2)可以适当加入细节，使内容充实、行文连贯。 Green Travel, Brighter Future ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 天津市部分区2024-2025学年度第二学期期末练习 高二英语 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分，共120分，考试用时100分钟。 第Ⅰ卷(共85分) 第一部分：听力理解(共两节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the woman going to do tonight? A. Watch TV. B. Go to the theater. C. Play volleyball. 2. Where are most probably the speakers? A. On a farm. B. At a restaurant. C. In a park. 3. When will the man see the doctor? A. At the moment. B. At 10 o’ clock. C. In 5 minutes. 4. What will the woman do first after work? A. Get dinner ready. B. Pick up the kids. C. Go home. 5. What does the man mean? A. The woman owns the whole shop. B. The woman has bought too much. C. The woman came back late. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至8题。 6. Where are the speakers planning to go in the morning? A To the city hall. B. To the art museum. C. To the shopping center. 7. Why does the man want to go to the zoo? A. To have Chinese food. B. To buy nice gifts. C. To see unusual animals. 8. How will the speakers get to the beach? A. By subway. B. By bike. C. On foot. 听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11小题。 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She decides to learn skating. B. She plays a lot of sports. C. She finds it hard to do sports. 10. What does the man say about skiing in the mountains? A. It’s expensive. B. It’s dangerous. C. It’s unpopular. 11. Where does the man play football? A. In a local school. B. On the beach. C. At a sports center. 听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15小题。 12. What kind of work does the speaker do? A. Greeting customers. B. Helping in the kitchen. C. Shopping for the staff. 13. Why does the speaker like the job? A. There is no pressure. B. He can learn something. C. It’s good to his health. 14. What happens when the speaker has to rush? A. He makes his uncle angry. B. He tends to break things. C. He complains to the manager. 15. What is most probably the speaker? A. A school cleaner. B. An assistant cook. C. A college student. 第二部分：英语知识运用(共两节，满分35分) 第一节：单项填空(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】B 【6题答案】 【答案】D 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】C 【10题答案】 【答案】D 【11题答案】 【答案】B 【12题答案】 【答案】D 【13题答案】 【答案】A 【14题答案】 【答案】C 【15题答案】 【答案】D 第二节：完型填空(共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从31~50各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 【16~35题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. D 第三部分：阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B B 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. A C 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. C 第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共35分) 第四部分：写作(共两节，满分35分) 第一节：阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. His learning disability. 52. Because he could express himself with music. 53. The more you practice, the better at something you will be. 54. He could read and write. 55. We can overcome difficulties by practicing and not giving up. 第二节：书面表达(满分25分) 【56题答案】 【答案】Green Travel, Brighter Future On World Environment Day, June 5th, it’s a great time to reflect on our travel choices and their impact on the environment. The data in the table clearly shows a remarkable increase in the sales of new energy vehicles (NEVs) in Tianjin. In 2014, only 2,825 NEVs were sold, while in 2024, this number skyrocketed to 160,000. There are several reasons for this significant growth. Firstly, people’s environmental awareness has been constantly rising. They are more conscious of the harm caused by traditional fuel-powered vehicles to the environment and are eager to make a positive change by choosing NEVs. Secondly, the government has implemented a series of favorable policies to promote the use of NEVs. These include subsidies for purchasing, preferential treatment in license plate acquisition, and the construction of a large number of charging stations, which greatly facilitate the use of NEVs. Thirdly, the development of technology has made NEVs more reliable, with longer battery life and better performance, making them a more attractive option for consumers. In conclusion, the increasing popularity of NEVs is a positive step towards a greener future. However, we should not stop here. We should encourage more people to choose green travel methods, such as taking public transportation, cycling, or walking. Let’s all make a joint effort to create a cleaner and more beautiful world for ourselves and future generations. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$