河南省南阳市淅川县2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末质量评估英语试卷

2025春期期终七年级调研测试 英语试卷 听力部分 听力材料: 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. M: Hello! What can I do for you? W: I want a pair of yellow shorts. 2. M: Did you play badminton last Friday, Lingling? W: No. I played it last Saturday. 3. W: Did you work out the math problem? M: OK. I’ll do it with my brother. 4. W: Do you know water goes up in the air and turns into clouds? M: Yes. Then the clouds form water drops. 5. W: I want to join the music club. Do you want to go with me, Kangkang? M: No, I like playing chess. I want to join the chess club. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7小题。 M: Which is the way to your home from our school? W: Go across the bridge and walk on to the end of the road. M: How long does it take on foot? W: Only 20 minutes. M: Can I go to visit you tomorrow? W: Of course. Let’s meet at 10:00 a.m. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9小题。 W: Hey, Ma Ming! I didn’t see you last weekend. M: Hi, Jiang Hua! I had to stay at home then. W: Why? M: Well, I had to clean my room and did my homework. How about you? W: I played basketball on Saturday morning. On Saturday afternoon, I went to see a movie. And on Saturday night, I visited my friend. M: Wow, you had fun. W: Yeah. It was a great weekend. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 I’m Deng Hua. I love music. Three years ago, I joined a music club in my high school. I made many friends there. We often shared ideas about music and helped each other to make beautiful music. Our music was very popular at school. Now I am a singer. Thanks to my friends at the music club, my dream comes true. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15小题。 M: Good afternoon, madam. Welcome to our fruit store. What can I do for you? W: I want to buy some strawberries. How much are they? M: They are 30 yuan a kilo. W: OK. It’s really cheap. I would like 2 kilos. M: Here you are. W: Do you have any tomatoes here? M: Sorry. We don’t have tomatoes. You can go and find some in the supermarket next door. W: Thank you! Here is the money. 第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格。每空填一词。短文读两遍。 On March 5th, Lei Feng Day, I volunteered at a nursing home. It was a wonderful experience. We arrived there at 9:00 a.m. At first, we cleaned the windows and swept the floor, and then we visited some elders there. We chatted and played cards with them. Mrs. Li, an old lady, was an English teacher. We told her about our school life. She was very happy to be with us. I felt good about helping others. Together, we can make the world a better place. 参考答案（仅供参考，若有异议，请研讨处理） 1-5 ABCAA 6-10 BABAB 11-15 BBBCC 16. March 17. nine/9 18. swept 19. English 20. good 二．阅读理解（40分） （A）21—25 CDBAD （B）26—30 CADBD （C）31—35 DCBCB （D）36—40 BCDAE 三．完形填空（15分） 41—45 BCAAC 46—50 DCADA 51—55 CDBAA 四. 语篇填空（15分) 第一节 56.but 57.running 58.bridges 59. its 60.far 61. shopping 62.takes 63. camping 64. happily 65.yourself(yourselves) 第二节 66. to 67. is 68. with 69. so 70. the 五．补全对话（10分） 71. It was great/good/./Great...... 72. What was the film/it about 73. We should do something to help them 74. What did you do 75. Can I join you (next time)/Can I go with you/Can I go too...... 六．书面表达（20分） How to be a good student It’s important for us to learn about how to be a good student. As students, we should follow the rules in our everyday life. First, we must follow school rules at school. We should respect our teachers and be kind to our classmates. We should help each other. Second, we should do our homework on time after school. Also, we can help our parents with housework at home. Third, we need to read more in our free time. We must not play computer games and watch TV for a long time. Follow these rules, and we’ll become good students. 英语中考评分标准 一、第1～15题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。 第16～20题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分（包括大小写错误）。 二、第21～40题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。 三、第41～55题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。 四、第56～70题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分（包括大小写错误）。 五、第71～75题，每小题2分。句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分，答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，无错误，应当给分。 六、书面表达（20分） （一）评分原则 1、本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。 2、评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3、词数少于规定词数20词的，从总分中减去2分;多于规定词数的,不扣分。 4、评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5、拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6、如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。 7、句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第四档 完成了试题规定的任务。 1、覆盖所有内容要点； 2、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求； 3、语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致； 4、有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑； 5、达到了预期的写作目的。 16～20 第三档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 1、虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容； 2、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求； 3、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解； 4、应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯； 5、整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 11～15分 第二档 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 1、漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容； 2、语法结构单调，词汇项目有限； 3、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解； 4、较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性； 5、信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 6～10分 第一档 未完成试题规定的任务。 1、明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求； 2、语法结构单调，词汇项目有限； 3、较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解； 4、缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯； 5、信息未能传达给读者。 1～5分 0分 1、未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 2、写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2025年春期期终七年级调研测试 英 语 试 卷 注意事项： 1、本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分，试题卷共10页，六个大题，76小题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 1. 试题卷上不要答题，请用0.5毫米黑色签字水笔直接把答案写在答题卡相应位置上。答在试题卷上的答案无效。 3、答题前，考生务必将本人姓名、准考证号填在答题卡第一面的指定位置上。 题 号 一 二 三 四 五 六 总分 得 分 得　分 评卷人 一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）请将第1至第15小题的正确答案标号在答题卡相应位置上涂黑。 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the woman want? A. A pair of yellow shorts. B. A yellow skirt. C. A pair of blue trousers. 2. When did Lingling play badminton? A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday 3. Who helped the boy work out the math problem? A. His friend. B. His math teacher. C. His brother. 4. What are they talking about? A. The water cycle. B. Water safety. C. Saving water. 5. What club does Kangkang want to join? A. The chess club. B. The English club. C. The music club. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7小题。 6. Which is the way to get to the girl’s home from her school? A. Go across the bridge and turn left. B. Go across the bridge and go straight. C. Go across the bridge and turn right. 7. How far is it from the school to the girl’s home? A. Twenty minutes on foot. B. Ten minutes by bike. C. Ten minutes on foot. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9小题。 8. What did Jiang Hua do on Saturday morning? A. He watched TV. B. He played basketball. C. He played football. 9. How was Jiang Hua’s weekend? A. It was great. B. It was boring. C. It was tiring. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12小题。 10. When did Deng Hua join the music club in high school? A. Two years ago. B. Three years ago. C. Four years ago. 11. What did Deng Hua and his friends often do in the music club? A. Organize (组织)concerts for the school. B. Share ideas about music and help each other make music. C. Take part in music competitions(比赛). 12. What is Deng Hua’s job now? A. A music teacher. B. A singer. C. A high school student. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15小题。 13. Where is the woman now? A. In a supermarket. B. In a fruit store. C. In a restaurant. 14. How much do the strawberries cost in all? A. 35 yuan. B. 55 yuan. C. 60 yuan. 15. Where is the supermarket? A. Across from the store. B. Far from the store. C. Next to the store. 第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格。每空填一词。短文读两遍。请将第16至第20小题的正确答案填写在答题卡相应题号后的位置上。 Volunteering Date On 16. 5th. Arrival Time At 17. o’clock in the morning. Cleaning Activities Cleaned the windows and 18. the floor. Mrs.Li’s Job An 19. teacher. Writer’s Feeling Felt 20. about helping others. 得　分 评卷人 二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）请将正确答案标号在答题卡相应位置上涂黑。 请阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A The Big Big Zoo is a new zoo. There are many animals in the zoo. You can see pandas, monkeys, tigers, elephants and so on. When you’re free, please come and have a good time here! Opening hours: ▲ Monday—Friday: 9:00 a.m. — 6:00 p.m. ▲ Saturday—Sunday: 8:00 a.m. — 7:00 p.m. ▲ Panda Show: 10:00 a.m. — 11:20 a.m. ▲ Elephant Show: 3:00 p.m. — 3:45 p.m. Ticket prices: ◆ Over 70 years old: free ◆18 — 70 years old: 20 yuan ◆10 — 17 years old: 15 yuan ◆Under10 years old: free Attention: 1. Children under13 must come with adults(成年人)； 2. Don’t swim in the river; 3. Keep away from the animals and don’t give food to them; 4. Don’t ride a bike in the zoo. Address(地址): At No. 603, Green Street How to get to the zoo: Take Bus No. 273, Bus No. 553 or Bus No. 580. 根据材料内容，选择最佳答案。 21. When can we go to the Big Big Zoo? A. At 8: 00 a.m. on Monday. B. At 7: 00 p.m. on Wednesday. C. At 8: 30 a.m. on Saturday. D. At 8: 00 p.m. on Sunday. 22. How long does the Elephant Show last in the zoo? A. For 30 minutes. B. For 25 minutes. C. For 40 minutes. D. For 45 minutes. 23. If 12-year-old Linda and her parents go to the zoo, how much should they pay? A. 45 yuan. B. 55 yuan. C. 65 yuan. D. 75 yuan. 24. Where is the Big Big Zoo? A. At No. 603, Green Street. B. At No. 273, Green Street. C. At No. 553, Green Street. D. At No. 580, Green Street. 25. What is this passage? A. A travel plan. B. A piece of news. C. A sports report. D. A zoo introduction. B Helping others is an important part of life. Whether you are caring for friends and family or giving back to your community, you are doing your part to the society. Li Ying is good at knitting(编织) and she can knit many different beautiful things. Every weekend, she teaches the ladies in her community to knit at her home. She teaches them the basic skills first and day by day they can knit their own favorite clothes. Her son is a middle school student. He studies very well. When the students in the community have problems in their lessons, he is always ready to help them to solve them. Mr. Zhang and his wife are both engineers(工程师,设计师). They are too busy with their work every day. Li Qian is their neighbor. Every day she sets aside some time(留出时间) to do housework for them, such as cleaning rooms and cooking meals. She also helps to take care of their daughter. Besides, she does volunteer work in her free time. She helps to clean up the parks, collect the rubbish and care for the old people. She always says, “Helping others is my duty. This is a great way to make their day easier.” 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 26. When does Li Ying teach the ladies to knit? A. On Thursday and Friday. B. On Friday and Saturday. C. On Saturday and Sunday. D. On Sunday and Monday. 27. What does the underlined word “them” in the second paragraph refer to? A. Students. B.Problems. C. Lessons. D. Ladies. 28. What volunteer work does Li Qian do? a. Cleaning the park. b. Collecting the rubbish. c. Looking after the sick people. d. Caring for the old people. e. Washing dirty clothes. A. abe B. bed C. ade D. abd 29. What is Li Qian like? A. Young and lovely. B. Kind and helpful. C. Pretty and lucky. D. Busy and polite. 30. What does this passage mainly talk about? A. Doing more housework in the community. B. Finding new ways to make friends. C. Trying out new ideas in everyday life. D. Helping others is important. C In everyday life, you need to buy things. But before you go food shopping, making a list is a good idea. Some people don’t like to make a shopping list because it takes time. However, there are many reasons why you should make one. First, a shopping list helps you to save time. For example, you could write down all the fruit and other food. Keeping your list organized will help you shop faster. Second, a shopping list helps you not to forget anything. You wouldn't want to get home from the store and find you didn't buy something you needed. A shopping list helps you remember everything you want to buy. A shopping list can also help you to save money. Without a list, you might not remember if you have enough milk at home. You might buy the milk as you think you don't have any. When you get home, you would see you already(已经) have a full bottle of milk. Then the extra milk might go to waste. If you make a list, you’ll not buy the things you don’t need. Although it’ll take you a few minutes to write out a shopping list, it’s worth your time.When you write the list, you should put the things in different groups. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 31. How did the writer start the passage? A. By telling a story. B. By asking a question. C. By giving an example. D. By giving an opinion. 32. What does the underlined word “extra” in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese? A. 新鲜的 B. 急需的 C. 额外的 D. 优惠的 33. Why can a shopping list help save your money? A. Because you won’t buy unhealthy food. B. Because you won’t buy anything you don’t need. C. Because you won’t go to the store every day. D. Because you won’t always eat outside. 34. How many reasons does the writer give us for making a shopping list? A.Five. B.Four. C.Three. D.Two. 35. Which shows the structure of this passage? (①=Paragraph 1....) A.①/②③④⑤ B.①/②③④/⑤ C.①②/③④⑤ D.①②/③④/⑤ D Nowadays we often work as a team. But leading a team can be difficult. People want team leaders they can trust. Would you like to be a good leader? 36 Ask to know about your team Learn about each teammate. You can't be a successful leader unless(除非) you know about your team. Be a “learner” instead of a “knower” as you don’t have all the answers. 37 For example, as you pass someone, you can ask, “Hi! Do you enjoy doing the work?” or “Do you have any ideas about how to do it better?” Talk to your team 38 It’s good practice to talk actively with everyone on your team. Tell them what you're thinking about and what new problems you are considering. The more you talk to them, the more comfortable they will feel when they give you their opinions. 39 Let your team feel you are a good listener. Whenever they have problems at work or at home, listen to what they want to say. Be patient and never try to interrupt(打断)your team. Make your team feel they can talk to you. Care about your team Show your team you care about them. People will work harder for their leaders if they feel they are really cared about. 40 That will make your team trust and respect you more. 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。 ( A. Listen to your team. B. Here ’ s some advice for you. C. Try to get close to them by asking questions. D. Communication holds great importance in building a strong team. E. If someone comes to you with a problem, always be ready to help. ) 得　分 评卷人 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）请将正确答案在答题卡相应位置上涂黑。 请先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A.B.C.D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案，并将其序号填入题前括号内。 Last Sunday, I met a girl on the street. She has only one leg. So she couldn’t 41 as quickly (快速地) as others. When she crossed the road, I 42 to help her. She felt very happy and gave me a 43 . It was an unforgettable 44 for me. There 45 some people with disabilities (残疾) around us. They face(面对）many 46 in their life. For example, it is difficult for them to 47 the road. 48 I think we should do something useful for them. But how can we help them? Here are some 49 for you. First, we can offer help 50 them when they need help. For example, we can help 51 cross the street or carry their bags. Second, we can 52 them or call them when we are free. That way, they may 53 warm. Finally, we can provide them with some 54 books, beautiful clothes and delicious food. That way, they may feel happy. If we can do something useful for them, we can make a big 55 in their life. And we can also make the world a better place. 41. A. hold B. walk C. pass D. sleep 42. A. liked B. got C. volunteered D. paid 43. A. hug B. store C. office D. yard 44. A. experience B. way C. idea D. road 45. A. is B. am C. are D. be 46. A. questions B. events C. games D. problems 47. A. crosses B. crossing C. cross D. crossed 48. A. So B. But C. Or D. Because 49. A. streets B. maps C. stores D. ways 50. A. to B. with C. from D. in 51. A. his B. you C. them D. her 52. A. worry about B. wait for C. look for D. chat with 53. A. get B. feel C. put D. drive 54. A. free B. expensive C. bad D. cheep 55. A. difference B. exam C. match D. business 得　分 评卷人 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）请将正确答案填写在答题卡相应题号后的位置上。 第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 ( happy you take but shop far bridge run its camp ) Hello! My name is Zhang Li. I live in Xichuan County. It’s small 56 beautiful. The Guanhe River is 57 along my community and my school. There are five 58 over the river in my town. The fourth bridge or Yimin Big Bridge(移民大桥) is famous for(因...而著名) 59 special design(设计). I have an easy life here. My home is not 60 from my school. I walk to school and always enjoy the beauty of nature on my way to school. Wandelong Supermarket is in my community. There are all kinds of clothes and food in it. On weekends, I often go 61 in the supermarket after dinner with my parents. My mother usually 62 me to Chongde Park to play games. Sometimes, I go 63 with my friends on the bank of the river(河岸). We talk and play 64 there. It is my favorite activity. I love my hometown. You can come and enjoy 65 here. 第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。 From Kangkang To Li Ming Subject My Classroom Rules Dear Li Ming, I’m happy to hear from you. Since you want to know my class rules, I’d like 66 tell you some of them. During classes, we should always keep quiet. Also, we should put things in order. A clean and tidy environment 67 very important to everyone. We should never fight 68 others because safety always comes first. Rules are really important to us, 69 we should keep them in mind and follow them. Please let me know what you think of 70 rules. Yours, Kangkang 得　分 评卷人 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）请将正确答案填写在答题卡相应题号后的位置上。 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话意思完整、通顺。 A: Hello! How was your weekend? B: 71. . I saw a film on Saturday. A: 72. ? B: It was about helping stray(流浪的)animals. A: Did you learn anything from it? B: Yes. Stray animals have a hard life. 73. . A: You’re right. What did you do on Sunday? B: I stayed at home and did my homework. What about you? A: I took part in a volunteer activity. B:74. ? A: I picked up rubbish in the park. B: Sounds great!75. ? I want to help too. A: Sure. I’ll call you next time. 得　分 评卷人 六、书面表达（20分）请将答案填写在答题卡相应题号的位置上。 强国有我！作为祖国未来的建设者和接班人，我们青少年学生肩负着民族复兴的时代使命。因此，我们必须自律自强，努力成长为祖国栋梁之材。请你以“How to be a good student”为题写一篇英语短文，谈谈如何成为一名好学生。 写作要求： 1、品德方面:遵规守纪，尊敬老师，团结同学…… 2、学习方面:努力学习，合作互助，乐于向他人学习…… 3、生活方面:帮助父母做家务劳动，多阅读，少看电视和打游戏…… 4、开头已给出，不计入总词数，不少于80词，包含所给要点，可适当发挥; 5、条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范; 6、文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称。 How to be a good student It’s important for us to learn about how to be a good student. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$