2025年河南省驻马店市上蔡县八校联考中考三模英语试题

2025年河南省普通高中招生考试模拟试卷 英 语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求，直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。 一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。每段对话读两遍。 1. How much should the man pay for two T-shirts? A. 30 yuan. B. 50 yuan. C. 60 yuan. 2. What will Lily probably do this afternoon? A. Go on a boat ride. B. Work on her project. C. Take a science class. 3. Who broke the bottle? A. Mom. B. Frank. C. Jack. 4. What did the man add to the soup? A. Some milk. B. Some sugar. C. Some salt. 5. How did Jim get to know the volunteer activity? A. From his friend. B. From his teacher. C. From the Internet. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. Where is Noah from? A. South Africa. B. North America. C. South America. 7. How long does it take Noah to ride to the beach? A. 15 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 45 minutes. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 8. What is the girl’s dream? A. To be a teacher. B. To be an engineer. C. To be a doctor. 9. Why did the boy change his dream? A. He likes children. B. He is good at computers. C. He enjoys learning about AI. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 10. Where was Bill standing? A. By the lake. B. At school. C. In the library. 11. What did Jason do for Bill? A. He told stories to him. B. He bought water for him. C. He walked with him. 12. How did Jason feel at last? A. Lucky. B. Surprised. C. Glad. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. What does the girl like best about the cinema? A. Its screen. B. Its service. C. Its environment. 14. What does the girl say about Judy’s new film? A. The story is boring. B. It’s not worth watching. C. Judy’s acting is excellent. 15. When will the boy go to the cinema? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday. 第三节 听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Students’ Opinions on Online Classes Survey result Only 16 of 100 students liked taking online classes. Disadvantages ●It’s hard to pay 17 attention while studying online. ●It’s difficult to communicate or 18 to the teacher. Advantages ●Taking online classes 19 time. ●They can rewatch any part of the 20 that they don’t understand. 二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A Explore the World Beyond Books Ever wanted to explore the world indoors? Come to Zhengzhou Public Library! We will change the library into a global village (地球村) where you can learn about different countries and cultures in a fun way. Who 50 children aged 13 to 16 When 13:30~17:30, on Saturday, April 26, 2025 Where Zhengzhou Public Library How much free What to do at the event: The event space is filled with stalls (摊位), each standing for a different country. At each stall, a volunteer will introduce their country and culture by using pictures, tools, and local handicrafts (手工艺品). Feel free to visit the stalls and learn about different cultures in a fun and active way. Remember to follow the steps below: To sign up or get more information, please scan the QR code (二维码) First come, first served! 根据材料内容选择最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。 1. What time will the event end on that day? A. At 3:30 p.m. B. At 4:30 p.m. C. At 5:30 p.m. D. At 6:30 p.m. 2. What’s the job of the volunteer at each stall? A. Drawing some pictures. B. Handing out stamps. C. Selling local handicrafts. D. Introducing their country. 3. What’s the first step in taking part in the event? A. Sign your name on the map. B. Get a travel bag and a passport. C. Win a small but beautiful gift. D. Tour around and enjoy handicrafts. 4. What should 14-year-old Bob do if he wants to sign up for the event? A. He should call the library. B. He should scan the OR code. C. He should pay money first. D. He should come with an adult. 5. What’s the purpose of the poster? A. To invite kids to a library event. B. To sell books at the public library. C. To show how to make handicrafts. D. To tell stories about different countries. B Leah Misch has made many positive changes to her lifestyle over the past three years. Today, her free time is filled with activities that are healthy and fun. She enjoys running, hiking, biking and swimming. Three years ago, Leah was not physically active. Being overweight, she was at increased risk for health problems, so she decided to make some changes. When Leah heard about “Minutes in Motion” from her friend, she liked the idea of an activity challenge. Leah set up her own Minutes in Motion team, naming it “You Go Girl”, because it was something her mother always told her for encouragement. She began to challenge herself with 30 minutes of physical activity each day. In the beginning, Leah was quite interested and excited. But not long after, her knees hurt and her lungs (肺) seemed to be on fire. Though wanted to give up, she kept telling herself that it was only a half hour of her day. Slowly, she started seeing the positive benefits (好处). As she continued to push herself, she started to feel better. She started losing weight, sleeping better and feeling more energetic. In just three years, Leah lost 90 pounds and completed several running races. She even won a race and finished her first half-marathon happily. Now, Leah’s team continues to grow every year, with friends from all over the country. For those who are thinking about joining Minutes in Motion, Leah offers this saying: “…” 根据材料内容选择最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。 6. Why has Leah changed her lifestyle? A. To make more friends. B. To try something new. C. To improve her health. D. To win in running races. 7. Where did Leah’s team’s name come from? A. One of her favorite songs. B. A suggestion from her friend. C. A famous saying about healthy living. D. Her mother’s words of encouragement. 8. Which of the following best shows the changes in Leah’s feelings in Paragraph 4? A. B. C. D. 9. Which could be the saying that Leah offered at the end of the text? A. Practice makes perfect. B. Failure is the mother of success. C. Happiness lies first of all in health. D. Keep trying and success will come. 10. What’s the best title for the text? A. Leah’s Journey to Health B. Leah’s Unexpected Success C. Leah’s Change to Active D. Leah’s Minutes in Motion Team C ①On December 4, 2024, “Spring Festival, social practices of the Chinese people in celebration of the traditional New Year” was listed as an intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) by UNESCO (联合国教科文组织). That’s to say, this Year of the Snake marks the first intangible cultural heritage Spring Festival. Traditional Spring Festival customs and activities have been introduced to nearly 200 countries and areas around the world. ②The Spring Festival puts family first. The Chinese value family and the strong bonds among family members. Each Spring Festival, millions of people from all corners of the world set off on the journey home to enjoy the celebration of culture and traditions. ③The Spring Festival celebrations last for 15 days, starting at the dining table and ending with the Lantern Festival, which brings much joy to family gatherings and different cultural activities. ④Spring Festival food traditions have much to do with the culture of Chinese food. From dumplings to sticky rice cakes, from fried meatballs to braised fish (红烧鱼), all dishes carry the best wishes for loved ones. ⑤People also carry on the traditions of hanging red lanterns, setting off fireworks and putting up couplets, hoping to keep bad luck away and bring good luck. ⑥As part of our culture, the Spring Festival is one of the most important festivals in China and around the world. Being on the list shows it’s recognized not only for its Chinese roots (根) but also for the idea it carries—connecting all humans. Human unity (团结) has always played an important part in reaching common goals and a better future. It is very likely to bridge cultures and bring people together in celebration and harmony. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。 11. What does the underlined word “bonds” in the second paragraph mean? A. Differences. B. Connections. C. Traditions. D. Celebrations. 12. What is lying in the food traditions according to the text? A. Good wishes. B. Wealth gained. C. Family values. D. Human unity. 13. Which of the following best shows the structure of the text? A. B. C. D. 14. How might the writer feel when he wrote the text? A. Doubtful. B. Surprised. C. Positive. D. Disappointed. 15. Where can we probably find the text? A. In a travel guidebook. B. In a science report. C. In a history textbook. D. In a cultural magazine. D Having good social behavior can make our lives much more enjoyable and help us get along better with others. ____16____ Be open to different people. ____17____ It’s important to be friendly to everyone, no matter how different they may seem from you. By accepting these differences, you can understand others better and build stronger relationships. Remember, being open-minded helps us grow and learn from others, making our world a more welcoming place. ____18____ Body language helps you communicate well. Remember to smile and make eye contact (接触). People feel more comfortable around someone who smiles. When talking to someone, make sure to look them in the eye. It shows you’re listening and interested in what they’re saying. Dress properly. First, think about where you are going. ____19____ To a ball game or a picnic? The type of clothes you wear shows others that you care about your appearance and can help you feel good about yourself. Improve your conversation skills. Think before you speak. ____20____ And try to use polite words like “please”, “thank you”, and “excuse me”. It shows respect for others and helps create a friendly atmosphere (氛围). 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整，并将其标号填写在下面题号后的横线上。 A. Try to use good body language. B. Are you going to a nice restaurant? C. Our society is made up of all kinds of people. D. Take a moment to think what you’re going to say. E. Here are some useful ways to help you behave socially. 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。 It was Tom’s birthday. His parents ____21____ him a pair of basketball shoes. “Happy birthday!” his parents said as he tried the shoes on. “They aren’t ____22____. We got them from Mr. Byre’s second-hand shop, ____23____ they look good,” Tom’s mom added. “They’re amazing! Thank you!” Tom said. Tom came to school in the shoes. His friend Brandon thought his shoes were cool. He ____24____ buying a similar pair. Suddenly, Brandon saw the words “To my dearest boy” on the sole (鞋底) of one of the shoes. “Your mother ____25____ wrote that,” Brandon said. Tom ____26____ his head, saying, “This isn’t my mother’s handwriting (笔迹). It ____27____ be from the old owner’s parent.” Tom wondered who had ____28____ such pretty shoes. When school ended, Tom reached Mr. Byrne’s store and asked about the shoes. The man said, “Oh, they were brought in by Samuel. He lives in a yellow house nearby.” “Do you know ____29____ he sold them?” Tom asked. “Most people bring things here because they need money,” Mr. Byrne explained. Samuel’s dad had died weeks before, and his poor mother was sick and needed money for ____30____. So he sold his basketball shoes to ____31____ his mother, though he loved the shoes. Tom walked out of the ____32____. He looked around the street and saw Samuel’s house. He walked there and knocked on the door. A kid opened it. “Are you Samuel?” Tom asked. “Yes. What’s up?” “Are these your shoes?” Tom asked. Samuel nodded sadly. “I hope you can always wear them because I didn’t get a ____33____ to.” After knowing the ____34____, Tom decided to return them to him. “You can’t return home without shoes on!” Samuel tried to stop him. But Tom pushed the shoes onto Samuel’s hands. That night, Tom explained what had happened to his parents. To his surprise, his parents weren’t ____35____ but praised him instead. 21. A. lent B. handed C. posted D. ordered 22. A. comfortable B. ugly C. new D. colorful 23. A. unless B. until C. so D. but 24. A. considered B. forgot C. regretted D. suggested 25. A. politely B. mostly C. probably D. peacefully 26. A. dropped B. touched C. nodded D. shook 27. A. needn’t B. must C. couldn’t D. would 28. A. turned down B. broken down C. given up D. picked up 29. A. why B. how C. when D. where 30. A. education B. medicine C. hobby D. clothes 31. A. praise B. comfort C. support D. punish 32. A. school B. store C. hospital D. cinema 33. A. chance B. test C. word D. rule 34. A. plan B. idea C. way D. truth 35. A. amazed B. excited C. angry D. nervous 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。请将答案写在下面题号后的横线上。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 speech choose before she one easy with sleep worry hand “For the final exam, everyone will give a ten-minute speech on one of the science topics we have studied this year,” Mr. Marx said. Angela was very ____36____ and she felt her stomach knot (疼) with nervousness. She ____37____ “tadpoles (蝌蚪)” as her topic and hoped to be the last one to make it. She wanted as much time as possible to prepare before the big day. As the day got closer, Angela had trouble ____38____. She always dreamed of forgetting her ____39____, even though she was well-prepared. On the morning of her speech, she couldn’t eat breakfast and felt nervous during her math class before science. Finally, Mr. Marx called her name. Her ____40____ shook as she walked to the front of the class. “Tadpoles,” she began, “are the early life stage of frogs or toads (蟾蜍) .” Her ____41____ sentence came out, and then, something unexpected happened—she relaxed. Once she started, the words came out ____42____. She saw Mr. Marx smiling and nodding, which made ____43____ feel more confident. The nervousness that had built up for weeks started to disappear. When she finished, she said ____44____ a big smile, “Does anyone have any questions about tadpoles?” The speech was over ____45____ Angela realized it. She found that facing her fear was much easier than she had expected. 第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。请将答案写在下面题号后横线上。每空限填一词。 Hi Tony, I get to know that you are not so close to your parents, and are unsure how to bring joy to their lives when they’re feeling down. Here are a few easy ways to cheer them ____46____. ◆Give them a gift. Can you remember the person ____47____ once gave you a gift? You must feel warm inside because of his kindness. The act of gift-giving is more important than the gift itself. Giving a gift to someone can brighten their whole day. ◆Make them laugh. Telling a joke or an interesting story is a good way to make someone happy. Don’t ____48____ afraid to make fun of yourself. Talk about a time when you made a mistake or did something stupid. Your parents will be thankful for the humor. ◆Change their environment. The environment has ____49____ influence on our feelings. If you need to get someone out of his or her sadness, get them out! Having a different environment can lead ____50____ better ways of thinking. Hope things work well! Good luck! Yours, Marine 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hey, Peter! There’s a first-aid training course in our community. ________51________? B: Yes, I’d like to. But what can we learn in the course? A: Well, some basic first-aid skills like CPR and how to stop bleeding in case of an accident. B: ________52________. These skills are really important. A: I can’t agree with you more. I’ve seen people give first aid to strangers on the street, and I think everyone should be able to do that. B: That’s true. ________53________? A: This weekend. B: OK. ________54________? A: It’s made up of two classes, and each class lasts for 3 hours. B: I see. How much is the course? A: No, no. ________55________. It’s free! B: Wow, that’s amazing! We should let more people know about it. A: Good idea. Let’s tell the news to more neighbors. 六、书面表达（20分） 56. DeepSeek的惊艳亮相，向世界展示了中国科技发展的迅猛势头和卓越成就。身处智能化时代，我们青少年应当如何使用科技，让青春在科技创新的浪潮中绽放光彩？请你根据下面漫画和写作提示，写一篇英文短文。 内容提示： （1）What can you see in the picture? （2）Who do you think is right? （3）What should we do when facing difficult questions? 写作要求： （1）短文须包含所有提示要点，可适当发挥； （2）文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称； （3）词数100左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。 From the picture, I can see two students are doing their homework. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年河南省普通高中招生考试模拟试卷 英 语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求，直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。 一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。每段对话读两遍。 1. How much should the man pay for two T-shirts? A. 30 yuan. B. 50 yuan. C. 60 yuan. 2. What will Lily probably do this afternoon? A. Go on a boat ride. B. Work on her project. C. Take a science class. 3. Who broke the bottle? A. Mom. B. Frank. C. Jack. 4. What did the man add to the soup? A. Some milk. B. Some sugar. C. Some salt. 5. How did Jim get to know the volunteer activity? A From his friend. B. From his teacher. C. From the Internet. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. Where is Noah from? A South Africa. B. North America. C. South America. 7. How long does it take Noah to ride to the beach? A. 15 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 45 minutes. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 8. What is the girl’s dream? A. To be a teacher. B. To be an engineer. C. To be a doctor. 9. Why did the boy change his dream? A. He likes children. B. He is good at computers. C. He enjoys learning about AI. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 10. Where was Bill standing? A. By the lake. B. At school. C. In the library. 11. What did Jason do for Bill? A. He told stories to him. B. He bought water for him. C. He walked with him. 12 How did Jason feel at last? A. Lucky. B. Surprised. C. Glad. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. What does the girl like best about the cinema? A. Its screen. B. Its service. C. Its environment. 14. What does the girl say about Judy’s new film? A. The story is boring. B. It’s not worth watching. C. Judy’s acting is excellent. 15. When will the boy go to the cinema? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday. 第三节 听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Students’ Opinions on Online Classes Survey result Only 16 of 100 students liked taking online classes. Disadvantages ●It’s hard to pay 17 attention while studying online. ●It’s difficult to communicate or 18 to the teacher. Advantages ●Taking online classes 19 time. ●They can rewatch any part of the 20 that they don’t understand. 二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A B 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A C 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. D D 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. D 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. C 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. worried 37. chose 38. sleeping 39. speech 40. hands 41. first 42. easily 43. her 44. with 45. before 第二节 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. up 47. who##that 48. be 49. an 50. to 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. Would you like to take it 52. That sounds great 53. When will it begin 54. How long does the course last 55. We don’t need to pay for it 六、书面表达（20分） 【56题答案】 【答案】例文 From the picture, I can see two students are doing their homework. The girl finds the question too difficult and considers asking AI for help. But the boy tries to stop her from doing that. He thinks it’s not good. In my opinion, the boy is right. Doing homework is the duty of students and we should finish it independently. It helps us understand and remember what we’ve learned. When we come across difficult questions, we should first try to solve them on our own. This way, we can improve our problem-solving skills. If we still can’t work out the problem, we can discuss it with our classmates or seek help from our teachers. Depending too much on AI for homework can make us lazy. We might stop using our brains to think. So, let’s challenge ourselves and develop our own abilities. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$